1. How is brainstorming different from JAD ? Brainstorming sessions
a) last for about 2-3 hours
b) last for about 2-3 days
c) cover the technology used for the development
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Brainstorming is a group or individual creativity technique by which efforts are made to find a conclusion for a specific problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its member(s).The idea is to quickly reach to an approved solution ASAP.
2. How is throwaway prototype different from evolutionary prototype ?
a) It involves successive steps
b) It involves just one task
c) The prototype is built with the idea that it will eventually be converted into final system
d) It has a shorter development time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Except option b all other options represent the characteristics of an evolutionary prototype.
3. Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which of the following is not an example of an Expected Requirement ?
a) Ease of software installation
b) Overall operational correctness and reliability
c) Specific system functions
d) Quality graphical display
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Expected requirements are so fundamental that a customer does not explicitly state them. System functions comes under the category of Normal requirements in QFD which is compulsory to be defined, hence is not an expected requirement.
4. QFD works best if it has management commitment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: QFD involves heavy investment in initial stages, thus bounding the management to provide appropriate funding for the development process .
5. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques is applicable to messy, changing and ill-defined problem situations ?
a) Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
b) Prototyping
c) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM)
d) Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Soft systems methodology (SSM) is a systemic approach for tackling real-world problematic situations. It is a common misunderstanding that SSM is a methodology for dealing solely with ‘soft problems’ (problems which involve psychological, social, and cultural elements). SSM does not differentiate between ‘soft’ and ‘hard’ problems, it merely provides a different way of dealing with situations perceived as problematic.
6. To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster team proposed several criteria that are summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems Methodology (SSM).Which of the following alphabet is representing an entirely different meaning to SSM ?
a) C – Customer
b) A – Actor
c) T – Transformation
d) E – ER Model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘E’ in CATWOE stands for Environmental constraints.
7. Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an elicitation technique.
a) It incorporates human element into design
b) SSM is in its infant stage
c) SSM is suitable for new systems
d) Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, Issue Resolution and Reorganization support SSM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SSM is still in its infancy. It is evolving and its industrial usage is low.
8. How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Preparation, Execution and Follow up are the three phases to be achieved for a successful brainstorming session.
9. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Specification Techniques) meeting ?
a) System Analyst
b) Scribe
c) Facilitator
d) Manager
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A Facilitator (a customer/developer/an outsider) controls the FAST meeting. His role is to ensure that the meeting is productive.
.
1. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Use Cases
b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) State Transition Diagram
d) Activity Diagram
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under the design phase of SDLC.
2. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Economic feasibility (cost/benefit analysis), Technical feasibility (hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal feasibility studies are done in Requirement Analysis.
3. How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Problem Recognition, Evaluation and Synthesis (focus is on what not how), Modeling, Specification and Review are the five phases.
4. Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements, hence requirements must be traceable.
5. Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends upon the size of project
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements must be actionable, measurable, testable, related to identified business needs or opportunities, and defined to a level of detail sufficient for system design.
6. _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.
a) Performance, Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Option a and c are the types of requirements and not the issues of requirement analysis..
7. The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three perspectives or views. What is that perspective or view ?
a) Developer
b) User
c) Non-Functional
d) Physical
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The perspectives or views have been described as the Operational, Functional, and Physical views. All three are necessary and must be coordinated to fully understand the customers’ needs and objectives.
8. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements analysis is conducted iteratively with functional analysis to optimize performance requirements for identified functions, and to verify that synthesized solutions can satisfy customer requirements.
9. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection characteristics that should be used as an analyst considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Retained information, Needed services, Multiple attributes, Common attributes, Common operations and Essential requirements are the six criterion mentioned by Coad and Yourdon.
10. Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not ‘how’.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ‘What’ refers to a system’s purpose, while ‘How’ refers to a system’s structure and behavior.
1. Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ?
a) Verifiable
b) Ambiguous
c) Complete
d) Traceable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS should be unambiguous in nature which means each sentence in SRS should have a unique interpretation.
2. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a standard is maintained” ?
a) Correct
b) Complete
c) Consistent
d) Modifiable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS is complete full labeling and referencing of all figures, tables etc. and definition of all terms and units of measure is defined.
3. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if
a) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while retaining the style and structure
b) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet
c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable
d) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Real world object may conflict with each other for example one requirement says that all lights should be red while the other states that all lights should green.
4. Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?
i. SRS is written by customer
ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true
c) All are true
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS acts as a communication media between the Customer, Analyst, system developers, maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract between Purchaser and Supplier. It is essentially written by a developer on the basis of customer’ need but in some cases it may be written by a customer as well.
5. The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification.
a) black-box
b) white-box
c) grey-box
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The system is considered as a black box whose internal details are not known that is, only its visible external (input/output) behavior is documented.
6. Which of the following is included in SRS ?
a) Cost
b) Design Constraints
c) Staffing
d) Delivery Schedule
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Design constraints include standards to be incorporated in the software, implementation language, resource limits, operating environment etc.
7. Which of the following is not included in SRS ?
a) Performance
b) Functionality
c) Design solutions
d) External Interfaces
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS document concentrates on: "what needs to be done” and carefully avoids the solution (“how to do”) aspects.
9. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 sacs of event X 10% of the time. "What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Verifiable
c) Non-verifiable
d) Correct
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable. Here the given condition can be verified during testing phase.
10. Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file character. "What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and only if, every requirement stated therein has only one unique interpretation. The given statement does not answer the question: “which data set will have an end of file character ?”.
11. Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface. "What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-Verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable. The statement can only be answered on completion of the software and customer evaluation but still human interface will vary from person to person.
12. Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the worst types of specification document as it is difficult to change, difficult to be precise, has scope for contradictions, etc.
1. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Enduring requirements are core requirements & are related to main activity of the organization while volatile requirements are likely to change during software development life cycle or after delivery of the product.
2. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library management. What type of management requirement is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
c) Both Enduring & Volatile
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For library management system issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. are core activities and are stable for any system.
3. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes
a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Systems continue to be built as the advancement of new products being launched in the market and so does the market changes, the technology and in turn customer’s expectation.
4. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality makes no sense without reference to requirements, which means quality-oriented development is requirements-driven development, thus requirements management is a prerequisite for quality-oriented development.
5. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability refers to the ability to describe and follow the life of a requirement in both forwards and backwards direction. Requirements can be traced from its origins, through its development and specification, to its subsequent deployment and use, and through periods of ongoing refinement and iteration in any of these phases.
6. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements Management needs continued funding throughout a project. Project funding is often limited at the onset of a project, restricted to those aspects of the project which are tangible and visible, and subsequently allocated in a phase-by-phase manner.
7. Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rational Suite is an environment tool for requirement management.
8. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are the activities of requirement management.
9. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DOORS is one such tool that supports Automatic Link Detection.
10. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fundamental to the problem mentioned in the statistical report is poor requirements management. Option a and c are its sub parts.
1. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software modelling-How many different notations does it have ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The different notations of UML includes the nine UML diagrams namely class, object, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart, component, deployment and use case diagrams.
2. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behavior of the system ?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Behavioral models are used to describe the dynamic behavior of an executing system. This can be modeled from the perspective of the data processed by the system or by the events that stimulate responses from a system.
3. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
a) Behavioral Model
b) Context Model
c) Data Model
d) Structural Model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Structural models show the organization and architecture of a system. These are used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.
4. Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture.
a) Structural perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Structural perspective is used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.
5. Which system model is being depicted by the ATM operations shown below:
software-engg-mcqs-system-modelling-1-q5
a) Structural model
b) Context model
c) Behavioral model
d) Interaction model
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Context models are used to illustrate the operational context of a system. They show what lies outside the system boundaries.
6. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement mentioned is true and each activity represents one process step.
7. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a working/executable code.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is an approach to software development in which a system is represented as a set of models that can be automatically transformed to executable code.
8. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.
a) Deployment
b) Collaboration
c) State chart
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: State diagrams show system states and events that cause transitions from one state to another.
1. Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling ?
a) Activity
b) Data Flow Diagram (DFD)
c) State Chart
d) Component
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DFDs focus on system functions and do not recognize system objects.
2. _________________ allows us to infer that different members of classes have some common characteristics.
a) Realization
b) Aggregation
c) Generalization
d) dependency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generalization is an everyday technique that we use to manage complexity. This means that common information will be maintained in one place only.
3. One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the system architecture.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Structural models of software display the organization of a system in terms of the components that make up that system and their relationships.
4. ______________ & ______________ diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling.
a) Use Case, Sequence
b) Class, Object
c) Activity, State Chart
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Use case modeling is mostly used to model interactions between a system and external actors. Sequence diagrams are used to model interactions between system components, although external agents may also be included.
5. Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 3
d) Level 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Level 1 ERD models all data objects (entities) and their “connections” to one another while Level 3 ERD models all entities, relationships, and the attributes that provide further depth. Thus option b is correct.
6. ___________ classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as the software is used.
a) Controller
b) Entity
c) Boundary
d) Business
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.
7. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator (CRC) modeling ?
a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC modelling
b) The review leader reads the use-case deliberately
c) Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All participants in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards.
8. A data object can encapsulates processes and operation as well.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A data object encapsulates data only. There is no reference within a data object to operations that act on the data.
1. The two dimensions of spiral model are
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The radial dimension depicts the cumulative costs and the angular dimension depicts the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral model represents a phase.
2. The Incremental Model is combination of elements of
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software system, particularly needed in case of quick delivery of a limited functionality system..
3. Model preferred to create client/server applications is
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In case of client/server applications, the concurrent process model specifies activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension. Hence Concurrency is achieved by these two activities occurring simultaneously and can be modeled using the state-oriented approach.
4. Identify the correct statement with respect to Evolutionary development:
a) Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary development based approach
c) It facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of documentation it generates
d) Sometimes the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a re- implementation of the software system using a more structured approach
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and
throw-away prototyping.
5. Spiral model was developed by
a) Victor Busily
b) Berry Boehm
c) Bev Littlewoods
d) Roger Pressman
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Berry Boehm in 1986 in his Article “A spiral model of software development and enhancement”.
6. Software evolution does not comprises:
a) Development activities
b) Negotiating with client
c) Maintenance activities
d) Re-engineering activities
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software evolution refers to the study and management of the process of making changes to software over time. Thus it comprises rest three options.
7. Processes for evolving a software product depend on:
a) Type of software to be maintained
b) Development processes used
c) Skills and experience of the people involved
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution depend on all these factors.
8. Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems ?
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution depend rely on these two techniques.
9. Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of_____________
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reengineering is the examination and alteration of a subject system to reconstitute it in a new form and the subsequent implementation of the new form.
10. Reverse engineering is the last activity in a reengineering project.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reverse engineering is often the initial activity in a reengineering project.
11. The cost of re-engineering is often significantly less than the costs of developing new software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a high risk in new software development. There may be development problems, staffing problems and specification problems, thereby increasing the cost.
1. A sociotechnical system is a system that includes
a) people
b) software
c) hardware
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A sociotechnical system is a system that includes people, software, and hardware to show that you need to take a systems perspective on security and dependability.
2. Which layer is missing in the sociotechnical system stack as shown below:
software-engg-mcqs-sociotechnical-systems-q2
a) organizational layer
b) application layer
c) physical layer
d) transport layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The application layer This layer delivers the application-specific functionality
that is required.
3. Consider an example of a system which has a police command and control system that may include a geographical information system to provide details of the location of incidents. What kind of system the example represents?
a) Complex System
b) Technical computer-based system
c) Sociotechnical System
d) Both Complex and Sociotechnical System
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Complex systems are usually hierarchical and so include other systems.
4. Which property of a sociotechnical system varies depending on how the component assemblies are arranged and connected?
a) security
b) usability
c) volume
d) reliability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The volume of a system (the total space occupied) varies depending on how the component assemblies are arranged and connected.
5. Which property of a sociotechnical system depends on the technical system components, its operators, and its operating environment?
a) security
b) usability
c) volume
d) reliability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Usability reflects how easy it is to use the system.
6. In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from perspectives namely:
a) only software reliability
b) only hardware reliability
c) hardware and software reliability
d) hardware, software and operator reliability
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from all three perspectives.
7. There are ________ overlapping stages in the lifetime of large and complex sociotechnical systems.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stages are Procurement, Development and Operation.
8. Sociotechnical systems are deterministic.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sociotechnical systems are non-deterministic partly because they include people and partly because changes to the hardware, software, and data in these systems are so frequent
9. What are the two ways to view the human error of a sociotechnical system?
a) hardware and software approach
b) management and users approach
c) person and systems approach
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
10. Human and organizational factors such as organizational structure and politics have a significant effect on the operation of sociotechnical systems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As people are a part of the system, hence they affect the sociotechnical system.
1. A characteristic of a software system that can lead to a system error is known as?
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. An erroneous system state that can lead to system behavior that is unexpected by system users is known as?
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. An event that occurs at some point in time when the system does not deliver a service as expected by its users is called _____________
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. A chemical plant system may detect excessive pressure and open a relief valve to reduce these pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of dependability and security issue the example states?
a) Hazard avoidance
b) Damage limitation
c) Hazard detection
d) Hazard detection and removal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The system is designed so that hazards are detected and removed before they result in an accident.
5. An aircraft engine normally includes automatic fire extinguishers. What kind of dependability and security issue the example states?
a) Hazard avoidance
b) Damage limitation
c) Hazard detection
d) Hazard detection and removal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The system may include protection features that minimize the damage that may result from an accident.
6. An assessment of the worst possible damage that could result from a particular hazard is known as
a) Risk
b) Hazard probability
c) Hazard severity
d) Mishap
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hazard severity can range from catastrophic, where many people are killed, to minor, where only minor damage results. When an individual death is a possibility, a reasonable assessment of hazard severity is ‘very high’.
7. which of the following terms is a measure of the probability that the system will cause an accident?
a) Risk
b) Hazard probability
c) Accident
d) Damage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The risk is assessed by considering the hazard probability, the hazard severity, and the probability that the hazard will lead to an accident.
8. A weakness in a computer-based system that may be exploited to cause loss or harm is known as?
a) Vulnerability
b) Attack
c) Threat
d) Exposure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. A password checking system that disallows user passwords that are proper names or words that are normally included in a dictionary is an example of ___________ with respect to security systems.
a) risk
b) control
c) attack
b) asset
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A control protective measure that reduces a system’s vulnerability.
10. The safety of a system is a system attribute that reflects the system’s ability to operate, normally or abnormally, without injury to people or damage to the environment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. How many stages are there in Risk-driven requirements specification?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These include Risk identification, Risk analysis, Risk reduction and Risk decomposition
2. Consider a case where the system is unavailable and cannot deliver its services to users. What type of failure is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One may separate this into loss of critical services and loss of non-critical services, where the consequences of a failure in non-critical services are less than the consequences of critical service failure.
3. Consider a case where the failure of the system causes damage to the system itself or it data. What type of failure is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. POFOD stands for
a) Possibility of failure of data
b) Probability of failure of data
c) Possibility of failure on demand
d) Probability of failure on demand
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. Which reliability metric sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be observed relative to a certain time period?
a) POFOD
b) ROCOF
c) AVAIL
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rate of occurrence of failures (ROCOF) sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be observed relative to the number of system executions.
6. Which of the following is not a functional reliability requirement for a system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are correct except option d.
7. To specify security requirements, one should identify the risks that are to be dealt with.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To specify security requirements, one should identify the assets that are to be dealt with.
8. The aim of preliminary risk analysis and assessment process is to derive security requirements for the system as a whole.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In preliminary risk analysis stage, decisions on the detailed system requirements, the system design, or the implementation technology have not been made.
9. At which stage of risk analysis specification, the additional security requirements take account of the technologies used in building the system and system design and implementation decisions?
a) Preliminary risk analysis
b) Life-cycle risk analysis
c) Operational risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This risk assessment takes place during the system development life cycle after design choices have been made..
10. Which reliability requirements are concerned with maintaining copies of the system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These requirements are geared to helping the system recover after a failure has occurred.
1. Which of the following examples does not involve dependability engineering ?
a) Medical Systems
b) Power Systems
c) Library Management
d) Telecommunications
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software customers expect all software to be dependable. However, for non-critical applications such as certain management systems, they may be willing to accept some system failures.
2. What is the term for development process organized such that faults in the system are detected and repaired before delivery to the customer ?
a) Fault Avoidance
b) Fault detection
c) Fault tolerance
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Fault Avoidance, the system is developed in such a way that human error is avoided and thus system faults are minimized.
3. What is the term for a system that is designed such that the faults in the delivered software do not result in system failure ?
a) Fault Avoidance
b) Fault detection
c) Fault tolerance
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. Which process characteristic with respect to Dependability Engineering is mentioned by the statement: “The process should be understandable by people apart from process participants”?
a) Diverse
b) Documentable
c) Auditable
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It means that process standards are being followed and make suggestions for process improvement.
5. Which of the following is not a Protection system ?
a) System to stop a train if it passes a red light
b) System to indicate not returning of the library book
c) System to shut down a reactor if temperature/pressure are too high
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Protection system is a specialized system that is associated with some other control system, which can take emergency action if a failure occurs.
6. The use of a well-defined, repeatable process is essential if faults in a system are to be minimized.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
7. Which of the following is a Strategy to achieve Software diversity ?
a) Different programming languages
b) Different design methods and tools
c) Explicit specification of different algorithms
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Diversity means to provide the same functionality in different ways so that critical components of a dependable system will not fail in the same way.
8. Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault avoidance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault tolerance.
9. Which of the following is a bad practice of Dependable programming ?
a) Limit the visibility of information in a program
b) Check array bounds
c) Check all inputs for validity
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are good practices to achieve Dependability Engineering.
10. What is a Range check?
a) Check that the input does not exceed some maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a name
b) Check that the input falls within a known range
c) Use information about the input to check if it is reasonable rather than an extreme value
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. Which of the following is a layer of protection for Security ?
a) Platform-level protection
b) Application-level protection
c) Record-level protection
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-d
Explanation: None.
2. Security engineering is only concerned with maintenance of systems such that they can resist malicious attacks.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: Security engineering is concerned with maintenance as well as development of such systems.
3. What are security controls ?
a) Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful
b) Controls that are intended to detect and repel attacks
c) Controls that are intended to support recovery from problems
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-d
Explanation: All the options define a security control property.
4. Controls that are intended to repel attacks is analogous to ____________ in dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: Here the system is designed so that faults in the delivered software do not result in system failure.
5. Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful is analogous to ____________ in dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) Fault Recovery
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Fault avoidance the system is developed in such a way that human error is avoided and thus system faults are minimized.
6. What is Life cycle risk assessment ?
a) Risk assessment before the system has been deployed
b) Risk assessment while the system is being developed
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-c
Explanation: None.
7. A system resource that has a value and has to be protected is known as
a) Asset
b) Control
c) Vulnerability
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
8. An impersonation of an authorized user is an example of a security threat.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: It is a security attack.
9. The records of each patient that is receiving or has received treatment resembles which security concept ?
a) Asset
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Control
View Answer
Answer-a
Explanation: Asset is a system resource that has a value and has to be protected.
10. Circumstances that have potential to cause loss or harm is known as
a) Attack
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Control
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
1. Static Analysis involves executing a program.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Static analysis techniques are system verification techniques that don’t involve executing a program.
2. Which of the following is a technique covered in Static Analysis ?
a) Formal verification
b) Model checking
c) Automated program analysis
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. Select the disadvantage of using Formal methods
a) Concurrent systems can be analyzed to discover race conditions that might lead to deadlock
b) Producing a mathematical specification requires a detailed analysis of the requirements
c) They require the use of specialized notations that cannot be understood by domain experts
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Formal methods are the ultimate static verification technique that may be used at different stages in the development process.
4. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Model Checking?
a) Model checking is particularly valuable for verifying concurrent systems
b) Model checking is computationally very inexpensive
c) The model checker explores all possible paths through the model
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Model checking is very expensive. It is only practical to use it in the verification of small to medium sized critical systems.
5. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: "Variables declared but never used”.
a) Control Faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/output Faults
d) Interface faults
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: “Unreachable code”.
a) Control Faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/output Faults
d) Interface faults
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: ”Non-usage of the results of functions”.
a) Storage management faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/output Faults
d) Interface faults
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. Static analysis is now routinely used in the development of many safety and security critical systems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The static analyzer can discover areas of vulnerability such as buffer overflows or unchecked inputs
9. Which level of Static Analysis allows specific rules that apply to a program to be checked ?
a) Characteristic error checking
b) User-defined error checking
c) Assertion checking
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Users of a programming language define error patterns, thus extending the types of error that can be detected.
10. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: "Pointer Arithmetic”.
a) Storage management faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/Output Faults
d) Interface faults
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
d) Development and Documentation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. Which tool is use for structured designing ?
a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data-flow diagram
d) Module
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software engineering and organizational theory, is a chart which shows the breakdown of a system to its lowest manageable levels.
3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification
d) design
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Program specification is the definition of what a computer program is expected to do.
5. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The developer has to find in the technical documentation enough information to start coding.
6. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The role of database administrators includes the development and design of database strategies, system monitoring and improving database performance and capacity, and planning for future expansion requirements.
7. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. Debugging is:
a) creating program code
b) finding and correcting errors in the program code
c) identifying the task to be computerized
d) creating the algorithm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as expected.
9. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create structural and behavioral models of the system which is covered by architecture, data and the interface of the product.
10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency
b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software functional quality reflects how well it complies with or conforms to a given design, based on functional requirements or specifications.
11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cohesion of a single module/component is the degree to which its responsibilities form a meaningful unit.
12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Coupling between modules/components is their degree of mutual interdependence.
1. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________
a) Functions
b) Modules
c) Classes
d) Sub procedures
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A modular system consist of well defined manageable units with well defined interfaces among the units.
2. Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software modularity?
a) Modules are robust
b) Module can use other modules
c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
d) Modules are mostly dependent
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Modularity cannot bring benefits unless the modules are autonomous or independent.
3. _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.
a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coupling or dependency is the degree to which each program module relies on each one of the other modules.
4. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) Data Coupling
d) Content Coupling
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The dependency between module A and B is said to be data coupled if their dependency is based on the fact they communicate by only passing of data.
5. Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Content coupling occurs when module A changes data of module B or when control is passed from one module to the middle of another.
6. Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?
a) Logical Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Coincidental Cohesion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Coincidental cohesion exists in modules that contain instructions that have little or no relationship to one another.
7. Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Functional Cohesion is a type of cohesion in which the tasks performed by a software module all contribute to the performance of a single function.
8. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal of high cohesion and low coupling.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the software is not properly modularized, a host of seemingly trivial enhancement or changes will result into death of the project.
9. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Module exhibits temporal cohesion when it contains tasks that are related by the fact that all tasks must be executed in the same time-span.
1. Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design.
a) It consists of module definitions
b) Modules represent data abstraction
c) Modules support functional abstraction
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: Option b defines an Object Oriented Design.
2. Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ?
a) Object oriented analysis
b) Object oriented design
c) Structured approach
d) Both Object oriented analysis and design
View Answer
Answer-d
Explanation: None.
3. Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements specified in
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: None.
4. Structured Analysis is based on the principles of
a) Top-down decomposition approach
b) Divide and conquer principle
c) Graphical representation of results using DFDs
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answere-d
Explanation: None.
5. Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ?
a) A function such as “search-book” is represented using a circle
b) Functions represent some activity
c) Function symbol is known as a process symbol or a bubble in DFD
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-d
Explanation: All the options are correct with respect to Function Oriented Software Design.
6. Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ?
a) Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
b) Maintains the data dictionary
c) Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not
d) It complies with the available system
View Answer
Answer's-d
Explanation: It takes long time to establish the system in order to comply with the available system.
7. What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle?
a) Transform
b) Data Store
c) Function
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-b
Explanation: None.
8. Structural decomposition is concerned with function calls.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Structural decomposition is concerned with developing a model of the design which shows the dynamic structure.
9. A function-oriented design focuses on the entities in the system rather than the data processing activities.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: It is an object oriented design which focus on entities.
10. In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by
a) Circle
b) Arrow
c) Rectangle
d) Triangle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. SA/SD features are obtained from which of the methodologies?
a) Constantine and Yourdon methodology
b) DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
c) Gene and Sarsen methodology
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following is not an activity of Structured Analysis (SA) ?
a) Functional decomposition
b) Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model
c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The module structure is the software architecture.
3. To arrive at a form which is suitable for implementation in some programming language is the purpose of
a) Structured Analysis (SA)
b) Structured Design (SD)
c) Detailed Design (DD)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The results of structured analysis can be easily understood by ordinary customers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The results of structured analysis directly represents customer’s perception of the problem and uses customer’s terminology for naming different functions and data.
5. Structured Analysis is based on the principle of Bottom-Up Approach.
Explanation: Context diagram captures the various entities external to the system interacting with it and data flow occurring between the system and the external entities.
7. A directed arc or line in DFD represents
a) Data Store
b) Data Process
c) Data Flow
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It resembles data flow in the direction of the arrow.
8. A DFD is always accompanied by a data dictionary.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A data dictionary lists all data items appearing in a DFD including definition and data names.
9. Which of the following is a function of CASE Tool?
a) Supporting Structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
b) Maintaining the data dictionary
c) Checking whether DFDs are balanced or not
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a
a) Physical file
b) Data Structure
c) Logical file
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A logical file can be a data structure or a physical file on disk.
1. Choose the incorrect statement in terms of Objects.
a) Objects are abstractions of real-world
b) Objects can’t manage themselves
c) Objects encapsulate state and representation information
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Objects are independent.
2. What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions ?
a) Object
b) Class
c) Super Class
d) Sub Class
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in an class hierarchy to have different methods with the same name?
a) Aggregation
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In polymorphism instances of each subclass will be free to respond to messages by calling their own version of the method.
4. Inherited object classes are self-contained.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inherited object classes are not self-contained. They cannot be understood without reference to their super-classes.
5. Which of the following points related to Object-oriented development (OOD) is true?
a) OOA is concerned with developing an object model of the application domain
b) OOD is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement requirements
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is in support with the OOD.
6. How is generalization implemented in Object Oriented programming languages?
a) Inheritance
b) Polymorphism
c) Encapsulation
d) Abstract Classes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD ?
a) Easier maintenance
b) Objects may be understood as stand-alone entities
c) Objects are potentially reusable components
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options define the characteristics of OOD.
8. Which of the following describes "Is-a-Relationship” ?
a) Aggregation
b) Inheritance
c) Dependency
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. Object that collects data on request rather than autonomously is known as
a) Active Object
b) Passive Object
c) Multiple instance
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A passive object holds data, but does not initiate control.
10. Objects are executed
a) sequentially
b) in Parallel
c) sequentially & Parallel
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Objects may be distributed and may execute sequentially or in parallel.
1. How many layers are present in the OO design pyramid?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) one
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The four layers are: Subsystem layer, class and object layer, message layer and responsibilities layer
2. Which of the following early OOD methods incorporates both a “micro development process” and a “macro development process.” ?
a) Brooch method
b) Rum Baugh method
c) Wires-Brock method
d) Coad and Yourdon method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The macro development process includes the architectural planning and micro developments process defines rules that govern the use of operations and attributes and the domain-specific
policies for memory management, error handling, and other infrastructure
functions.
3. Grady Brooch, James Rum Baugh, and Ivar Jacobson combined the best features of their individual object-oriented analysis into a new method for object oriented design known as
a) HTML
b) XML
c) UML
d) SGML
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become
widely used throughout the industry as the standard approach to OOD.
4. A design description of an object is known as a class
a) instance
b) object
c) case
d) both instance and object
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. Which of the following is conceptually similar to objects?
a) PACKAGE
b) PROC
c) PRIVATE
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A package is a namespace that organizes a set of related classes and interfaces.
6. A design description in OOD includes
a) Protocol Description
b) Implementation Description
c) Type Description
d) both Protocol and Implementation Description
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. Which of the following is not an operation as per OOD algorithms and data structures?
a) operations that manipulate data in some way
b) operations that perform a computation
c) operations that check for syntax errors
d) operations that monitor an object for the occurrence of a controlling event
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Operations that check for syntax errors is concerned with the programming language used, so it will be handled by the compiler.
8. Throughout the OOD process, a software engineer should look for every opportunity for creating new design process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A software engineer should look for every opportunity to reuse existing design patterns whenever they meet the needs of the design rather than creating new ones.
1. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project
b) track potential risk
c) help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?
a) Market
b) Product
c) Technology
d) People
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Market is a collection of competitors, stakeholders, users each having different views on the product. So it does not affect the software quality.
3. The intent of project metrics is:
a) minimization of development schedule
b) for strategic purposes
c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
d) minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A project metric is a quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component or process possesses an attribute.
4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?
a) Efficiency
b) Cost
c) Effort Applied
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency is an indirect measure.
5. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?
a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Reliability
d) All of the Mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are indirect measures of a product.
6. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___________________
a) number of Functions
b) number of user inputs
c) number of lines of code
d) amount of memory usage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA ?
a) Number of user Input
b) Number of user Inquiries
c) Number of external Interfaces
d) Number of errors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: FPA includes five domains namely input, output, inquiries, interface and logical files.
8. Usability can be measured in terms of:
a) Intellectual skill to learn the system
b) Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
c) Net increase in productivity
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as
a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
b) Function points analysis
c) Control Chart
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Others options are formulas.
10. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
a) E – errors found before software delivery
b) D – defects found after delivery to user
c) Both E and D
d) Varies with project
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DRE = E / (E + d).
1. The user has no control over the contents of a static web page.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Static web pages are just for information purposes.
2. Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?
a) Word Token
b) Word Count
c) Word Size
d) Word Length
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The word count metric gives the total number of words on a web page.
3. How is the complexity of a web page related to link count ?
a) Directly
b) Indirectly
c) No relation
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If link count is more, complexity will be more.
4. It is expected to have less number of connections for a good web application.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: More the link count, more the complexity and the web page dependence factor will increase.
5. Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about________ for a web page that is to be built.
a) size
b) complexity
c) effort
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between two or more web pages ?
a) Number of Static Content Objects
b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
c) Web Page Similarity
d) Number of Internal Page Links
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page Similarity ?
a) Content based
b) Link based
c) Usage based
d) Traffic based
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Similarity between two web pages is not judged upon its traffic activity.
8. The static content objects are dependent on the actions of the user.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic Objects are user dependent
9. Link based measures rely on ___________ structure of a web graph to obtain related pages.
a) Embedded
b) Hyperlink
c) Dynamic
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Only option b answers the blank, rest are not in accordance to the question.
10. Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?
a) Number of Static Content Objects
b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
c) Number of Inherited Objects
d) Word Count
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There is no such metric as an inherited object’s count.
1. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Complexity metrics measure the logical complexity of source code.
2. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of
a) Analysis Model
b) Testing
c) Design Model
d) Source Code
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These metrics lead to the design of test cases that provide program coverage.
3. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by
a) Booch
b) Boehm
c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in 1979, hundreds of books and papers have been written on functions points since then.
4. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The five values are: External Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries, Internal Logical Files and External Interface Files.
5. Function Point Computation is given by the formula
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula for Function Point Computation.
6. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.
a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They are “black box” in that they do not require any knowledge of the inner workings of a particular software component.
7. Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here?
a) “fan check-out” of module i
b) “fan check-in” of module i
c) “fan in” of module i
d) “fan out” of module i
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fan out is number of modules directly invoked by module i.
8. SMI stands for
a) Software Mature Indicator
b) Software Maturity Index
c) Software Mature Index
d) Software Maturity Indicator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product starts becoming unstable
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product begins to stabilize.
10. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules
a) in the current release
b) in the current release that have been changed
c) from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
11. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
a) Reliability
b) Usability
c) Efficiency
d) Functionality
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
12. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software
a) stated needs
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system resources
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. Size and Complexity are a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Product Metrics describe the characteristics of product.
2. Cost and schedule are a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Project Metrics describe the project characteristics and execution.
3. Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a
a) measurement
b) measure
c) metric
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Metric is a quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component, or process possesses a given attribute.
4. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality Factors?
a) Flexibility
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) Integrity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flexibility is a part of Product revision as per McCall’s Software Quality Factors.
5. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio?
a) maximum number of nodes at any level
b) longest path from the root to a leaf
c) number of modules
d) lines of control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘a’ represents the arcs or the lines of control.
6. Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?
a) Complexity Metrics
b) Cohesion Metrics
c) Morphology Metrics
d) Coupling Metrics
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Morphology metrics are a part of High level design metrics.
7. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Metric is the act of obtaining a measure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Measurement is the act of obtaining a measure.
9. MTTC falls the the category of
a) correctness
b) integrity
c) maintainability
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mean time to change (MTTC) is the time it takes to analyze the change request, design an appropriate modification, implement the change, test it, and distribute the change to all users.
10. Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics.
a) Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)
b) Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
c) Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)].
1. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.
2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage projects successfully.
5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.
7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these are to be assessed.
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.
9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are identified.
10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the attribute than can be measured.
1. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size
b) Planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the software grows rapidly.
2. What describes the data and control to be processed?
a) Planning process
b) Software scope
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases refined to provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.
3. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
(FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a joint team of customers
and developers who work together to identify the problem, propose elements
of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
requirements.
4. CLSS stands for
a) conveyor line sorting system
b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed
d) conveyor line sorting specification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The conveyor line sorting system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a conveyor line. Each box is identified by a barcode that contains a part number and is sorted into one of six bins at the end of the line.
5. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is known as
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None
6. The environment that supports the software project is called
a) CLSS
b) SEE
c) FAST
d) CBSE
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineering environment (SEE), incorporates hardware and software.
7. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP.
9. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?
a) Predicting staffing levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules
d) Predicting clients demands
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client to client.
10. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost.
2. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is a incurred by the employees.
3. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced in some given time. Function points and object points
are the best-known metrics of this type.
4. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived from historical project data and current as well as future project characteristics.
5. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is available
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates of code size but are often still inaccurate.
6. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these completed projects.
7. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database programming?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is designed to make estimates of prototype development.
8. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective assessment. If the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the effort required is estimated to be 60 person-months.
9. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimates are based on function points, which are then converted to number of lines of source code. The formula follows the standard form discussed above with a simplified set of seven multipliers.
10. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
11. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-models that produce increasingly detailed software estimates.
1. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP?
a) FP-Based Estimation
b) Process-Based Estimation
c) COCOMO
d) Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Function points and COCOMO are used to evaluate effort.
2. The empirical data that support most estimation models are derived from a vast sample of projects.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Empirical data is derived from a limited sample of projects. For this reason, no estimation model is appropriate for all classes of software and in all development environments.
3. COCOMO stands for
a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been established?
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on
a) Cost
b) Time
c) Schedule
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation depends on factors such as Function points and LOC.
9. COCOMO-II was developed at
a) University of Texas
b) University of Southern California
c) MIT
d) IIT-Kanpur
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II?
a) Early design estimation model
b) Application Composition estimation model
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
d) Post architecture estimation model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It was a part of COCOMO.
1. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.
2. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.
3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
5. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.
6. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.
7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a first step toward avoiding them when possible and controlling them when necessary.
8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: "the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility
a) Confidentiality
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Engineers should normally respect the confidentiality of their employers or clients irrespective
of whether or not a formal confidentiality agreement has been signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing the use of intellectual property such as patents, copyright, etc.
2. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.
”Here the term misuse refers to:
a) Unauthorized access to computer material
b) Unauthorized modification of computer material
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the ACM/IEEE Code
of Ethics ?
a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional
standards possible
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client
d) It means that the product designed /created should be easily available
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below:
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system
b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Identify the correct statement: “Software engineers shall
a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favor.”
b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and
employer consistent with the public interest and shall ensure that their products and related modifications
meet the highest professional standards possible. Thus options a & c are ruled out.
6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
b) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
a) responsiveness
b) licensing
c) memory utilization
d) processing time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Licensing of a software product comes under corporate part of the software company.
8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun their cost
estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts". What is the reason for
these statistics ?
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding
c) Management issues in the company
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject, hence option a covers them both.
9. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to
a) Software companies
b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software companies are responsible for making policies and providing working atmosphere for the
software development, so in turn these companies become a part of software development process. Bugs from
developers side is no new thing. Thus option c answers the question.
10. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry about the quality
of the product.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one of the several factors that determine the quality of the product.
11. Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software Engineering Code of Ethics and
Professional Practice ?
a) PUBLIC
b) PROFESSION
c) PRODUCT
d) ENVIRONMENT
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rest all are clauses for software ethics, environment does not focus on specific clause nor its of
importance related to question.
12. What is a Software ?
a) Software is set of programs
b) Software is documentation and configuration of data
c) Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software is not just set of program but it is also associated documentation and configuration of
data to make program run.
13. Which of these does not account for software failure ?
a) Increasing Demand
b) Low expectation
c) Increasing Supply
d) Less reliable and expensive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to more production and not failure.
14. What are attributes of good software ?
a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality
c) Software development
d) Software maintainability & functionality
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Good software should deliver the required functionality, maintainability. Software development is
not an attribute but a fundamental.
15. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?
a) Software dependence
b) Software development
c) Software validation
d) Software specification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Software dependence is an attribute and not an engineering activity for process.
16. Which of these is incorrect ?
a) Software engineering belongs to Computer science
b) Software engineering is a part of more general form of System Engineering
c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering
d) Software engineering is concerned with the practicalities of developing and delivering useful software
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software engineering is a vast sub domain which comes under computer science which is main
domain.
17. Which of these is true ?
a) Generic products and customized products are types of software products
b) Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market
c) Customized products are commissioned by particular customer
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All of them are true.
18. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?
a) Heterogeneity
b) Flexibility
c) Business and social change
d) Security
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them
both.
19. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?
a) Software processes
b) Software Security
c) Software reuse
d) Software Validation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Software validation is an activity for software process and not the fundamental for
engineering.
20. Which of these is not true ?
a) Web has led to availability of software services and possibility of developing highly distributed
service
based systems
b) Web based systems have led to degradation of programming languages
c) Web brings concept of software as service
d) Web based system should be developed and delivered incrementally
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Web based systems has led to important advances in programming languages.
21. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for small projects & programming exercises of 100 or 200 lines.
22. RAD stands for
a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
23. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.
24. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Their is no such thing as Diagonal Prototype whereas other options have their respective
definitions.
25. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.
26. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for 100-200 LOC
27. RAD Model has
a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases namely: Business modeling, Data modeling, Process
modeling, Application generation and Testing & Turnover.
28. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or under-develop
functionality. Also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.
29. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
30. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
31. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
c) Concurrent Development Model
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
32. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software and particularly
when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.
33. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
a) Customer can respond to each increment
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Incremental Model is generally easier to test and debug than other methods of software
development because relatively smaller changes are made during each iteration and is popular particularly
when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system. However, option “a” can be seen in other
models as well like RAD model, hence option “d” answers the question.
34. The spiral model was originally proposed by
a) IBM
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman
d) Royce
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
35. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The radial dimension of the model represents the cumulative costs and the angular
dimension represents the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral from
X-axis clockwise through 360o represents one phase.
36. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?
a) It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral
c) It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Except option “b” all other tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as well.
37. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.
a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All other options are the advantages of Spiral Model.
38. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
39. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?
a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
40. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When applied to client/server applications, the concurrent process model
defines activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension.
Thus Concurrency is achieved by system and component activities occurring simultaneously
and can be modeled using the state-oriented approach.
41. Selection of a model is based on
a) Requirements
b) Development team & Users
c) Project type and associated risk
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Each model has to have some requirements, a team of developers, users and the rips
k involved in developing a project.
42. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Prototyping Model starts with a requirements analysis phase including techniques like FAST, QFD,
Brainstorming. In
case of Spiral model the first phase involves activities related to customer communication like determining objectives.
43. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Relying on risk assessment/analysis provides more flexibility than required for many applications which
overcomes the criteria of less experienced developers.
44. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a project/product within a stipulated
time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RAD model is inapplicable to develop cheaper products/software/projects as the cost of modeling,
hiring highly skilled developers/designers and automated code generation is very high.
But here the cost is not an issue, so one can select this model as it reduces development time.
45. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Active Participation of user is involved in all the four phases of RAD model and in case of the Prototyping
model we need user’s presence/involvement every time a new prototype is build or designed.
46. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the market, what model approach
would they prefer ?
a) RAD
b) Iterative Enhancement
c) Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement
d) Spiral
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
47. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow and iterations in this model are handled indirectly.
This changes can cause confusion as the project proceeds thereby delaying the delivery date.
48. Choose the correct option from given below:
a) Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
b) RAD Model Model facilitates reusability of components
c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
d) None
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
49. Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
50. RAD Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
51. Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below.
a) FORTRAN
b) COBOL
c) Unix shell
d) C++
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rest all are third generation languages(3GL).
52. Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT.
i. Design strategy
ii. Transformation into product
iii. Implementation
iv. Requirement gathering
a) 1, 4, 3, 2
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 1, 3, 2
d) 1, 3, 4, 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned in option c represents the Fourth Generation Techniques(4GT)Model.
53. 4GL is an example of ______________ processing.
a) White Box
b) Black Box
c) Functional
d) Both Black Box & Functional
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Functional processing/testing is also referred to as black box testing in which contents of the black box are not known. Almost anything might be referred to as a black box: an algorithm or the human mind. Functionality of the black box is understood in terms of its inputs and outputs.
54. The 4GT Model is a package of ______________
a) CASE Tools
b) Software tools
c) Software Programs
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 4GT encompasses a broad array of software tools enabling the software engineer to specify the characteristics at a high level leading to an automatically generated source code based on these specifications.
55. Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL? One originating ______________
a) on Lisp machine
b) on report generators
c) from database query languages
d) from GUI creators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fifth-generation programming language are built on LISP.
56. In 4GT, we can specify the user requirements in graphic notation or small abbreviated language form.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
57. Productivity of software engineers is reduced in using a 4GT.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 4GLs are more programmer-friendly and enhance programming efficiency with usage of English-like words and
phrases, thereby increasing the productivity of professionals able to engage in software development.
58. Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as the standard language for
managing structured data?
a) SQL
b) PROLOG
c) C
d) JAVA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: C & JAVA are third generation languages(3GLs) whereas PROLOG is a 5GL.
59. What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small scale products,
applications or programs ?
a) Improved productivity of software engineers
b) Reduction in software development time
c) 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators offers a credible solution to many software problems
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since automated coding is done using CASE tools & code generators proponents claim a dramatic reduction in
software development time.
60. Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life cycle model ?
a) Spiral Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) Rad Model
d) 4GT Model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since coding phase is eliminated in 4GT Model, more expertise is required for analysis, design and testing
activities.
61. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Portability is a software product quality which means software can run on different hardware platforms or software environments.
62. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.
a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded
c) Generic, Customized
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: rest all are sub categories/applications of option c.
63. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For systems with a long life, maintenance costs may be several times development costs.
64. Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?
Explanation: Cost of a software is a management issue & is not related to process activities.
66. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases, regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the__________ phase which focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses on how and the_________ phase which focuses on change.
i. support
ii. development
iii. definition
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
67. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report?
a) Communication
b) Planning
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Deployment the product is delivered to the customer who evaluates the product and provides feedback based on the evaluation.
68. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another project.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: the overall flow of activities,
69. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Reusability management
b) Risk management
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
70. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase.Which one of the following is not one that falls into such category?
a) Translation
b) Correction
c) Adaptation
d) Prevention
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Translation is done in the development phase.
71. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more programmers and catch up.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As new people are added, people who were working must spend time educating the newcomers, thereby reducing the amount of time spent on productive development effort.
72. Choose an internal software quality from given below:
a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: rest all are external qualities which are visible to the user.
73. RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________
a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
74. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice. What does static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process
c) It shows the phases of the model over time
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
75. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working program.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A working program is only one part of a software configuration that includes many elements. Documentation provides a foundation for successful engineering and, more important, guidance for software support.
76. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ?
a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
77. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software engineering ?
a) Software Verification
b) Software Validation
c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Software Verification is accounted for in implementation & testing activity.
78. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed software efforts.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A formal and detailed description of the information domain, function, behavior, performance, interfaces, design constraints and validation criteria is essential which can be determined only after thorough communication between customer and developer.
Explanation: Due to using previously tested components they produce more reliable system at a faster rate.
81. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.
i. Test
ii. Design
iii. Install
iv. Specification
v. Manufacture
vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
81. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-d
Explanation: None.
82. Agile Software Development is based on
a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development
View Answer
Answer-d
Explanation: The software is developed in increments with the customer specifying the requirements to be included in each increment and the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software. They are iterative because they work on one iteration followed by improvements in next iteration
83. Which on of the following is not an agile method?
a) XP
b) 4GT
c) AUP
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-b
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not incorporate iteration and the continuous feedback, which is the fundamental aspect of an agile method.
84. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer's-b
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to reduce overheads in the software process and to be able to respond quickly to changing requirements without excessive rework.
85. How is plan driven development different from agile development ?
a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-c
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to software engineering is based around separate development stages with the outputs to be produced at each of these stages planned in advance.
86. How many phases are there in Scrum ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases
View Answer
Answer's-b
Explanation: There are three phases in Scrum. The initial phase is an outline planning phase followed by a series of sprint cycles and project closure phase.
87. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
88. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-c
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each software development process which can’t be avoided.
89. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ?
a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-c
Explanation: None.
90. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
91. Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release once every month.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Incremental development is supported through small, frequent system releases.
92. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete, it is integrated into the whole system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows a continuous integration approach. After any such integration, all the unit tests in the system must pass.
93. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every _______ weeks.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP) takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative development. New versions may be built several times per day, hence delivering the increment for approval every 2nd week after testing the new version.
94. User requirements are expressed as __________ in Extreme Programming.
a) implementation tasks
b) functionalities
c) scenarios
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: User requirements are expressed as scenarios or user stories. These are written on cards and the development team break them down into implementation tasks. These tasks are the basis of schedule and cost estimates.
95. Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?
a) Yes
b) No
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The role of the customer in the testing process is to help develop acceptance tests for the stories that are to be implemented in the next release of the system. However, people adopting the customer role have limited time available and so cannot work full-time with the development team. They may feel that providing the requirements was enough of a contribution and so may be reluctant to get involved in the testing process.
96. Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions that may occur.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very difficult to write incrementally. For example, in a complex user interface, it is often difficult to write unit tests for the code that implements the ‘display logic’ and workflow between screens.
97. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Automated test harnesses are used to run all component tests each time that a new release is built.
98. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows Test-first development approach.
99. Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other developers before forwarding that release to customers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair programming which means developers work in pairs, checking each other’s work and providing the support to always do a good job.
100. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding
c) planning, design, coding, testing
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four activities, and in the same in order.
101. What are the types of requirements ?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned traits are beneficial for an effective product to be developed.
102. Select the developer-specific requirement ?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Availability is user specific requirement.
103. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation
b) design
c) analysis
d) documentation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement Analysis, Requirement Documentation and Requirement Review are the four crucial process steps of requirement engineering. Design is in itself a different phase of Software Engineering.
104. FAST stands for
a) Functional Application Specification Technique
b) Fast Application Specification Technique
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
105. QFD stands for
a) quality function design
b) quality function development
c) quality function deployment
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
106. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs to interact with the system, be it a person or another (external) system.
107. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software requirements specification (SRS), is a complete description of the behavior of a system to be developed and may include a set of use cases that describe interactions the users will have with the software.
108. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion.
109. Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the right one.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This situation is seen in every field of work as each professional has his/her way of looking onto things & would argue to get his/her point approved.
110. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
c) Managers
d) Users of the software
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Users are always the most important stakeholders. After all, without users or customers,
what’s the point of being in business?.
111. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?
a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All are non-functional requirements representing quality of the system. Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.
112. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?
a) Availability
b) Testability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A developer needs to test his product before launching it into the market.
113. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ?
a) Functional
b) Non-Functional
c) Known Requirement
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.
114. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?
a) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform
b) It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and standardized
c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Option c is termed as reliability and option e refers to efficiency.
115. Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The behavior of functional requirements may be expressed as services, tasks or functions the system is required to perform.
116. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR).
a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality
b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process
c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes
d) Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Quantitative Approaches in NFRs are used to find measurable scales for the quality attributes like efficiency, flexibility, integrity, usability etc.
117. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Software Quality Tree [Boehm 1976], Roman [IEEE Computer 1985], Process-Product-External considerations [Somerville 1992], Mc Call’s NFR list and Dimensions of Quality–Components of FURPS+ are the five classification schemes for NFRs.
.
118. According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ?
a) Testability
b) Speed Efficiency
c) Serviceability
d) Install ability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed Efficiency belong to Performance (P) in FURPS+ .
119. Does software wear & tear by decomposition ?
a) Yes
b) No
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike hardware, software is reliable.
120. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?
a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All the traits of option c sync with dependability.
121. Choose the correct statement on how NFRs integrates with Rational Unified Process ?
a) System responds within 4 seconds on average to local user requests and changes in the environment
b) System responds within 4 seconds on average to remote user requests and changes in the environment
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: System response to a local user is 2 seconds on average.
122. What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?
a) Identifying Stakeholder
b) Listing out Requirements
c) Requirements Gathering
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stakeholders are the one who will invest in and use the product, so its essential to chalk out stakeholders first.
125. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment(QFD) ?
a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b) User, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Normal, Expected, Exciting
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to QFD, Normal, Expected and Exciting requirements maximizes customer satisfaction from the Software Engineering Process.
126. What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view of the system ?
a) Object Oriented Design (by Brooch)
b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)
c) Fusion (by Coleman)
d) Object Modeling Technique (by Rum Baugh)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Use Case captures who does what with the system, for what purpose, without dealing with system internals.
127. What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Ternary
d) Both Primary and Secondary
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A primary actor is one having a goal requiring the assistance of the system whereas, a secondary actor is one from which system needs assistance. There is no such thing as ternary actor in Software Engineering.
128. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?
a) Problem of scope
b) Problem of understanding
c) Problem of volatility
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Users specify unnecessary technical detail that may confuse, rather than clarify overall system objectives. Also, the customers/users are not completely sure of what is needed, have a poor understanding of the capabilities and limitations of their computing environment and they do not understand that the requirements change over time.
129. What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement elicitation ?
a) JAD
b) Traceability
c) FAST
d) Both JAD and Traceability
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Joint application design (JAD) is a process used to collect business requirements while developing new information systems for a company. Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements.
130. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability provides bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements.
131. How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As-is Scenario, Visionary Scenario, Evaluation Scenario and Training Scenario are the four scenarios in requirement elicitation activities.
1. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts". What is the reason for these statistics ?
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding
c) Management issues in the company
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject, hence option a covers them both.
2. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases, regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the__________ phase which focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses on how and the_________ phase which focuses on change.
I. support
ii. development
iii. definition
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.
I. Test
ii. Design
iii. Install
iv. Specification
v. Manufacture
vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4.Starting from least to most important, choose the order of stakeholder.
I. Managers
ii. Entry level Personnel
iii. Users
iv. Middle level stakeholder
a) I, ii, iv, iii
b) I, ii, iii, iv
c) ii, iv, I, iii
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Users are your customers, they will be using your product, thus making them most important of all.
5. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner.
I. Consolidation
ii. Prioritization
iii. Requirements Gathering
iv. Evaluation
a) iii, I, ii, iv
b) iii, iv, ii, I
c) iii, ii, iv, I
d) ii, iii, iv, I
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements gathering captures viewpoint from different users followed by evaluation of those
view points. Now comes the task of checking the relative importance of the requirements and finally to
consolidate or bind together the information collected.
6. Choose a framework that corresponds to Issue Based Information System (IBIS).
a) Idea -> Question -> Argument
b) Question -> Idea -> Argument
c) Issue -> Position -> Justification
d) Both Question -> Idea -> Argument and Issue -> Position -> Justification
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: IBIS is a simple and non-intrusive method that provides a
framework for resolving issues and gathering requirements.
7.Arrange the steps in order to represent the conducting of Wideband Delphi Technique.
i. Conduct a group discussion
ii. Conduct another group discussion
iii. Present experts with a problem
iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously
v. Iterate until consensus is reached
vi. Feedback a summary of result to each expert
a) I, iii, ii, iv, v, vi
b) iii, I, ii, iv, v, vi
c) I, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
d) iii, I, iv, vi, ii, v
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sequence represents the working steps of a Wideband Delphi technique .
8. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard.
i. General description
ii. Introduction
iii. Index
iv. Appendices
v. Specific Requirements
a) iii, I, iamb, iv
b) iii, ii, I, v, iv
c) ii, I, v, iv, iii
d) iii, I, ii
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The given sequence correctly resemble a standard SRS prototype as per IEEE.
9. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 sacs of
event X 10% of the time. "What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Verifiable
c) Non-verifiable
d) Correct
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable.
Here the given condition can be verified during testing phase.
10. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DOORS is one such tool that supports Automatic Link Detection.
11. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before
completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the
reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fundamental to the problem mentioned in the statistical report is poor requirements
management. Option a and c are its sub parts.
12. Identify the correct statement with respect to Evolutionary development:
a) Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary development based approach
c) It facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of documentation it generates
d) Sometimes the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a re- implementation of the software system using a more structured approach
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and
throw-away prototyping.
1. Software Maintenance includes a. Error corrections b. Enhancements of capabilities c. Deletion of obsolete capabilities d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
2. Maintenance is classified into how many categories? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. five Answer: Option (c)
3. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever-changing environment, falls under which category of software maintenance? a. Corrective a. Adaptive b. Perfective c. Preventive Answer: Option (b)
4. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance? a. Regression Testing b. System Testing c. Integration Testing d. Unit Testing Answer: Option (a)
5. Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to produce a different output than its original version? a. Coverage b. Minimization c. Safe d. Maximization Answer: Option (c)
6. _____________ measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle realistic applications. a. Efficiency b. Precision c. Generality d. Inclusiveness Answer: Option (c)
7. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications? a. Efficiency b. Precision c. Generality d. Inclusiveness Answer: Option (d)
8. Which of the following is true about Corrective Maintenance? a. It includes modifications and updating done in order to correct or fix problems, which are either discovered by user or concluded by user error reports. b. It includes modifications and updating applied to keep the software product up-to date and tuned to the ever-changing world of technology and business environment. c. It includes modifications and updates done in order to keep the software usable over long period of time. d. It includes modifications and updating to prevent future problems of the software. Answer: Option (a)
9.Which of the following is not a type of maintenance? a. Adaptive Maintenance b. Preventive Maintenance c. Perfective Maintenance d. Performativity Maintenance Answer: Option (d)
10.Which process is used to achieve system specification by thoroughly analyzing, understanding the existing system? a. Program Restructuring b. Reverse Engineering c. Forward Engineering d. None of the above Answer: Option (b)
11.What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance? a. System Testing b. Black-box testing c. White-box testing d. Regression Testing Answer: Option (d)
12. What are legacy systems? a. new systems b. old systems c. under-developed systems d. None of the above Answer: Option (b)
13. The continued evolution of legacy systems applies which techniques to ensure? a. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering b. Reverse Engineering c. Reengineering d. Forward engineering Answer: Option (c)
14. The Maintenance of software includes. a. Error corrections Different activity of a project management b. Enhancements of capabilities c. Deletion of obsolete capabilities d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
15. Different activity of a project management is a. Project planning b. project control c. project monitoring d. All the above Answer: Option (d)
16. Which of the following activity is undertaken immediately after feasibility study and before the requirement analysis and specification phase? a. Project planning b. project control c. project monitoring d. Project scheduling Answer: Option (a)
17. This activity is undertaken once the development activities start? a. Project planning b. project monitoring & control c. project cost estimation d. Project size estimation Answer: Option (b)
18. Which of the following activity is not the part of project planning? a. Risk Management b. Project control c. Project monitoring d. Project scheduling Answer: Option (c)
19. In the project planning, which of the following is considered as the most basic parameter based on which all other estimates are made? a. project cost b. project size c. project effort d. project duration Answer: Option (b)
20. During project estimation, project manager estimates following a. ALL b. Project size c. Project effort d. project duration. Answer: Option (a)
21. Which of the following is not project management goal? a. Keeping overall costs within budget b. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time c. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development tea d. Avoiding customer complaints Answer: Option (d)
22. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management? a. Specification delays b. Product competition c. Testing d. Staff turnover Answer: Option (c)
23. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as a. Project Management b. Manager life cycle c. Project Management Life Cycle d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
24. A 66.6% risk is considered as a. very low b. low c. moderate d. high Answer: Option (d)
25. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project? a. travel and training costs b. hardware and software costs c. effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers) d. all of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
26.Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for a. team b. project c. customers d. project manager Answer: Option (b) 27. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system? a. Internship management b. Change management c. Version management d. System management Answer: Option (a)
28.A software project that meets all the given objectives is a success of _________. a. Project fundamental purpose b. Project quality c. Project requirement d. Project management myth Answer: Option (d)
29___________ is not an effective software project management focus. a. People b. Product c. Process d. popularity. Answer: Option (d)
30._________ is not a project manager’s activity. a. project design b. project management c. project planning d. project control Answer: Option (a)
31. Which of the following software maintenance process models is used when major changes are to be made in a software? a. Primary model b. Secondary model c. Tertiary model d. Any of the above Answer: Option (a)
32. Which of the following statements is true? i. Reverse software engineering cycle is done when the client’s need, old code, etc. are not available. ii. Reverse software engineering cycle is done when the client’s need, old code, etc. are available.
Options: a. Only i is true b. Only ii is true c. Both i and ii are true d. None of them is true. Answer: Option (a)
33. The Software Configuration Management (SCM) is called the umbrella activity. a. False b. True Answer: Option (a)
34. The main aim of Software Configuration Management (SCM) is _____ a. Identify change b. Control change c. To ensure that the change is being properly implemented d. All of these Answer: Option (d)
35. Select the process that will ensure different versions of the system and components of the system are recorded and maintained? a. Workspace b. code control c. Configuration Control d. Versions Answer: Option (c)
36. Select the Software Configuration Management concept that aids to control change? a. Procedure b. Baseline c. Audit d. None of the above Answer: Option (b)
37. The output of the Software Process is _______ a. Computer programs b. The Documents which describe the computer programs. c. Data (within the program or external to program). d. All of these Answer: Option (d)
38. The Software Configuration items are ________ a. Software Requirements b. Design Specification c. Source Code d. All of these Answer: Option (d)
39. The task that is not a part of Software Configuration Management (SCM) is ______ a. Change control b. Version control c. Configuration status reporting d. None of the above e. None of these Answer: Option (d)
40. Which of the following combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process? a. Configuration status reporting. b. Version control c. Change control d. None of the above Answer: Option (b)
41. As the reliability increases, what happens to the failure intensity? a. Increases b. Decreases c. No effect d. None of the above e. None of these Answer: Option (b)
42. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as ___________? a. Project Management b. Manager life cycle c. Project Management Life Cycle d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
43. What stores all changes and info related to the project from development through maintenance in CASE tools? a. Database b. Repository c. Register d. Files Answer: Option (b)
44. _____is the associated with the Product Risk. a. Test object b. non-availability of the test environment c. Negative consequences d. Control of test item e. None of these Answer: Option (a)
45. one of the following factors affect the probable consequences? a. Risk timing b. Contingency planning c. Risk avoidance d. Risk monitoring e. None of these Answer: Option (a)
46.______is the Risk management most important jobs. a. Project manager b. Production team c. Investor d. Client Answer: Option (a)
47. one of the following is Risk management responsibility? a. Project team b. Investor c. Developer d. Customer Answer: Option (a)
48. one of the following ways to deal with a Risk? a. Transfer b. Ignore c. Mitigate d. All of these Answer: Option (d)
49. _____model is used to Project risk factor. a. Prototyping model b. Waterfall model c. Spiral model d. None of these Answer: Option (c)
50. ______strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced. a. Contingency plans b. Avoidance strategies c. Minimization strategies d. All of these Answer: Option (c)
51. RE indicates_____. a. Risk exposure b. Related expense c. Risk expense d. Risk evaluation Answer: Option (a)
52. one of the following is Risk? a. The negative consequence that must occur b. The negative consequence that will occur c. The negative consequence that could occur d. The negative consequence that shall occur e. None of these Answer: Option (c)
53. _____ Risk is the really want Building an excellent product or system. a. Business b. Schedule c. Technical d. Performance Answer: Option (a)
54. Legacy systems are __________ . a. new systems b. old systems c. under-developed systems d. none of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
55. __________ is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems. a. Forward engineering b. Reverse Engineering c. Reengineering d. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering Answer: Option (d)
56. Software Maintenance includes a. Deletion of obsolete capabilities b. Enhancements of capabilities c. Error corrections d. All of the given options Answer: Option (d)
57. Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of __________ a. Reengineering b. Forward engineering c. Reverse Engineering d. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering Answer: Option (a)
58. Reverse engineering is the last activity in a reengineering project. a. TRUE b. FALSE Answer: Option (b)
59. __________ activity transforms a model into source code. a. Forward engineering b. Reverse engineering c. Re-engineering d. Reconstructing Answer: Option (a)
60. Software evolution does not comprises: a. Development activities b. Negotiating with client c. Maintenance activities d. Re-engineering activities Answer: Option (b)
61. Processes for evolving a software product depend on: a. Type of software to be maintained b. Development processes used c. Skills and experience of the people involved d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
62. Which of the following is not a type of software maintenance? a. Corrective Maintenance b. Adaptive Maintenance c. Predictive Maintenance d. Preventive Maintenance Answer: Option (c)
63. Which type of software maintenance deals with the repair of defects found in day-to-day system functions? a. Corrective Maintenance b. Adaptive Maintenance c. Perfective Maintenance d. Preventive Maintenance Answer: Option (a)
64. Which type of software maintenance includes modifications applied to keep the software product up-to-date? a. Corrective Maintenance b. Adaptive Maintenance c. Perfective Maintenance d. Preventive Maintenance Answer: Option (b)
65. Which type of software maintenance includes modifications done in order to keep the software usable over a long period of time, e.g. new features, new user requirements for refining the software, and improve its reliability and performance? a. Corrective Maintenance b. Adaptive Maintenance c. Perfective Maintenance d. Preventive Maintenance Answer: Option (c)
66. Which type of software maintenance includes modifications to prevent future problems of software? a. Corrective Maintenance b. Adaptive Maintenance c. Perfective Maintenance d. Preventive Maintenance Answer: Option (d)
67. __________ can extract design information from source code. a. Forward engineering b. Reverse Engineering c. Reengineering d. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering Answer: Option (b)
68. What is the full form of SCM with reference to Software Engineering? a. Supply Chain Management b. Service Control Manager c. Software Configuration Management d. System Control Module Answer: Option (c)
69. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change? a. Data model b. Source code c. Baselines d. None of the given options Answer: Option (c)
70. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include a. A separate configuration management team for each project b. A single software configuration management team for the whole organization c. Software Configuration Management distributed among the project members d. All of the given options Answer: Option (b)
71. __________ combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process. a. Change control b. Version control c. SCIs d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
72. __________ complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during the review. a. Software configuration audit b. Software configuration management c. Baseline d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (a)
73. __________ is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system. a. System building b. Release management c. Change management d. Version management Answer: Option (a)
74. __________ is not a Software Configuration Management Activity. a. Configuration item identification b. Risk management c. Release management d. Branch management Answer: Option (b)
75. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in a. ISO 9000 b. CMM c. CMMI d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
76. _________ involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use. a. System building b. Release management c. Change management d. Version management Answer: Option (b)
77. __________ process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained. a. Code line b. Configuration control c. Version d. Workspace Answer: Option (b)
78. Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes? a. Version management b. System building c. Change management d. Release management Answer: Option (c)
79. Which of the following is not a Version management feature? a. Build script generation b. Version and release identification c. Change history recording d. Project support Answer: Option
80. Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems? a. Agile method b. Parallel compilation method c. Large systems method d. All of the given options Answer: Option (a)
81. _________ is a collection of component versions that make up a system. a. Version b. Code line c. Baseline d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
82. Which of the following is a configuration item? a. Log information b. Source code c. Design & Test specification d. All of the given options Answer: Option (d)
83. A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as __________. a. System building b. Mainline c. Software Configuration Item(SCI) d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
84. The statement “The creation of a new code line from a version in an existing code line” define the term __________. a. Branching b. Merging c. Codeine d. Mainline Answer: Option (a)
85. Effective software project management focuses on a. people, performance, payoff, product b. people, product, performance, process c. people, product, process, project d. people, process, payoff, product Answer: Option (c)
86. Organizations that achieve high levels of maturity in people management have a higher likelihood of implementing effective software engineering processes a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
87. The first step in project planning is to a. determine the budget. b. select a team organizational model. c. determine the project constraints d. establish the objectives and scope Answer: Option (d)
88. Process framework activities are populated with a. milestones b. work products c. QA points d. all of the above Answer: Option (d)
89. Project management is less important for modern software development since most projects are successful and completed on time a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
90. Which of the following is not considered a stakeholder in the software process? a. customers b. end-users c. project managers d. sales people Answer: Option (d)
91. The best person to hire as a project team leader is the most competent software engineering practitioner available a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
92. The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely complex problems is the a. closed paradigm b. open paradigm c. random paradigm d. synchronous paradigm Answer: Option (b)
93. One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process is to a. give team members more control over process and technical decisions b. give team members less control over process and technical decisions. c. hide bad news from the project team members until things improve. d. reward programmers based on their productivity. Answer: Option (b)
94. Small agile teams have no place in modern software development. a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
95. Which of these software characteristics is not a factor contributing to project coordination difficulties? a. interoperability b. performance c. scale d. uncertainty Answer: Option (b)
96. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a software project? a. context, lines of code, function b. context, function, communication requirements c. information objectives, function, performance d. communications requirements, performance, information objectives Answer: Option (c)
97. The major areas of problem decomposition during the project scoping activity are the a. customer workflow b. functionality to be delivered c. process used to deliver functionality d. software process model e. b and c Answer: Option (c)
98. Product and process decomposition occurs simultaneously as the project plan evolves. a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
99. When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process decomposition? a. when the project is extremely small in size b. any time the software is mission critical c. rapid prototyping does not require their use d. never the activities are invariant Answer: Option (d)
100. How does a software project manager need to act to minimize the risk of software failure? a. double the project team size b. request a large budget c. start on the right foot d. track progress e. c and d Answer: Option (e)
101.The W5HH principle contains which of the following questions? a. Why is the system being developed? b. What will be done by whom? c. Where are they organizationally located? d. How much of each resource is required? e. a, c d Answer: Option (e)
102. Which of these are critical practices for performance-based project management? a. assessing product usability b. defect tracking against quality targets c. empirical cost estimation d. formal risk management e. b, c, d Answer: Option (e)
103. A risk referent level is a risk component value (performance, cost, support, schedule) or combination of values that cause a project to be terminated. a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
104. An effective risk management plan will need to address which of the following issues? a. risk avoidance b. risk monitoring c. contingency planning d. all of the above Answer: Option (d)
105.Proactive risk management is sometimes described as fire fighting a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
106. Software risk always involves two characteristics a. fire fighting and crisis management b. known and unknown risks c. uncertainty and loss d. staffing and budget Answer: Option (c)
107. Three categories of risks are a. business risks, personnel risks, budget risks b. project risks, technical risks, business risks c. planning risks, technical risks, personnel risks d. management risks, technical risks, design risks Answer: Option (b)
108. Generic risks require far more attention than product-specific risks. a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
109. A risk item checklist would contain known and predictable risks from which of these categories? a. product size b. development environment c. staff size d. process definition e. all of the above Answer: Option (e)
110. Questions that should be asked to assess the overall project risks include: a. Have top managers formally committed to support the project? b. Are end-users committed to the project and proposed system being built? c. Are requirements fully understood by the development team and customers? d. Does the proposed budget have time allocated for marketing? e. a, b, c Answer: Option (e)
111.Software risk impact assessment should focus on consequences affecting a. planning, resources, cost, schedule b. marketability, cost, personnel c. business, technology, process d. performance, support, cost, schedule Answer: Option (d)
112.Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in two ways a. likelihood and cost b. likelihood and impact c. likelihood and consequences d. likelihood and exposure Answer: Option (c)
113. Risk tables are sorted by a. probability and cost b. probability and impact c. probability and consequences d. probability and exposure Answer: Option (b)
114. Individual team members can make their own estimate for a risk probability and then develop a consensus value. a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
115. Which factors affect the probable consequences likely if a risk does occur? a. risk cost b. risk timing c. risk scope d. risk resources e. b and c Answer: Option (e)
116. The reason for refining risks is to break them into smaller units having different consequences. a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
117. Effective risk management plan needs to address which of these issues? a. risk avoidance b. risk monitoring c. contingency planning d. all of the above Answer: Option (d)
118. Risk monitoring involves watching the risk indicators defined for the project and not determining the effectiveness of the risk mitigation steps themselves. a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
119.Hazard analysis focuses on the identification and assessment of potential hazards that can cause a. project termination b. schedule slippage c. cost overruns d. an entire system to fail Answer: Option (d)
120.Risk information sheets (RIS) are never an acceptable substitute for a full risk mitigation, monitoring, and management (RMMM) plan. a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
121.A new __________ is defined when major changes have been made to one or more configuration objects. a. entity b. item c. variant d. version Answer: Option (d)
122.WebApp configuration objects can be managed in much the same way as conventional software configuration objects except for: a. content items b. functional items c. graphic items d. user items Answer: Option (a)
123.SCI standards take a formal view and do not address guidelines for applying change management in agile environments. a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
124.How much effort is typically expended by a software organization on software maintenance? a. 20 percent b. 40 percent c. 60 percent d. 80 percent Answer: Option (c)
125. Software supportability is not concerned with either the provision of hardware or infrastructure. a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
126. Business process reengineering is often accompanied by software reengineering. a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
127.Which of the following is not an example of a business process? a. designing a new product b. hiring an employee c. purchasing services d. testing software Answer: Option (d)
128.Business process reengineering does not have a start or end, it is an evolutionary process. a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
129.Which of the following activities is not part of the software reengineering process model? a. forward engineering b. inventory analysis c. prototyping d. reverse engineering Answer: Option (c)
130.Software reengineering process model includes restructuring activities for which of the following work items? a. code b. documentation c. data d. all of the above Answer: Option (d)
131.Which of the following is not an issue to consider when reverse engineering? a. abstraction level b. completeness c. connectivity d. directionality Answer: Option (c)
132. Reverse engineering of data focuses on a. database structures b. internal data structures c. both a and b d. none of the above Answer: Option (c)
133.The first reverse engineering activity involves seeking to understand a. data b. processing c. user interfaces d. none of the above Answer: Option (b)
134.Reverse engineering should proceed the reengineering of any user interface. a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
135.Which of these benefits can be achieved when software is restructured? a. higher quality programs b. reduced maintenance effort c. software easier to test d. all of the above Answer: Option (d)
136.Code restructuring is a good example of software reengineering a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
137.Which of these is not an example of data restructuring? a. data analysis b. data-name rationalization c. data record standardization d. none of the above Answer: Option (a)
138. Forward engineering is not necessary if an existing software product is producing the correct output. a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
139. Reengineering client/server systems begins with a thorough analysis of the business environment that encompasses the existing computing system a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
140. The only time reengineering enters into work with a legacy system is when it components will be implemented as objects. a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
141.The cost benefits derived from reengineering are realized largely due to decreased maintenance and support costs for the new software product. a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
1. The order in which test levels are performed is: a. Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System b. Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance c. Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance d. It depends on the nature of a project Answer: Option (d) a. System testing is a Black box testing. b. Grey box testing c. White box testing d. Both a and b Answer: Option (a) 2. What is “V” Model? a. Test Design Technique b. Test Type c. SDLC Model d. Test Level Answer: Option (c) 3. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages? a. Test recording b. Test configuration c. Test planning d. Test specification Answer: Option (d) 4. which is not the other name for structural testing? a. Behavioral testing b. Glass box testing c. White box testing d. None of the above Answer: Option (a) 5. The technique applied for usability testing is: a. White box b. Grey box c. Black box d. Regression Testing Answer: Option (c) 6. Which of the following is not a Test Type? a. Database Testing b. Security Testing c. Statement Testing d. Functional Testing Answer: Option (c) 7. Static analysis can be best described as: a. The reviewing of test plans b. The analysis of batch programs c. The use of black box testing d. The analysis of program code Answer: Option (d) 8. Exhaustive testing is: a. Always possible b. impractical but possible c. practically possible d. impractical and impossible Answer: Option (b) 9. Which is not a type of incremental testing approach? a. Bottom up b. Top down c. Big-bang Answer: Option (c) 10. White-box testing can be started: a. After installation b. After SRS creation c. After programming d. After designing. Answer: Option (c) 11. What is Fault Masking? a. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault. b. Error condition hiding another error condition. c. Masking a fault by developer d. Masking a fault by a tester Answer: Option (b) 12. Which of the following is the component test standard? a. BS7925-2 b. IEEE 829 c. BS7925-1 d. IEEE 610 Answer: Option (a) 13. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is known as? a. Regression testing b. Beta testing c. Alpha testing d. None of the above Answer: Option (b) 14. Beta Testing is done at: a. Developer’s end b. User’s end c. User’s & Developer’s end d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 15. A program with high cyclamate complexity is likely to be: a. Large b. Small c. Difficult to write. d. Difficult to test. Answer: Option (d) 16. Unit testing is done by: a. Users b. Developers c. Customers d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 17. Which of the following is not a Software Development Life Cycle Phase? a. Requirements Gathering b. Test Closure c. Coding d. Testing Answer: Option (b) 18. In order to control cost, defects should ideally be detected in which phase: a. Coding b. Design c. Implementation d. Requirements Gathering Answer: Option (d) 20) Error guessing is a: a. Test verification techniques b. Test data management techniques c. Test control management techniques d. Test execution techniques Answer: Option (b) 20. Which of the following is not a white box technique? a. State transition testing b. Path testing c. Statement testing d. Data flow testing. Answer: Option (a) 21. Alpha testing is: a. Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site b. The first testing that is performed. c. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites d. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site Answer: Option (d) 22. Which of the following term describes testing? a. Finding broken code b. Evaluating deliverable to find errors. c. A stage of all projects d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 23. What is Cyclamate complexity? a. Black box testing b. White box testing c. Yellow box testing d. Green box testing Answer: Option (b) 24. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology? a. Retesting b. Sanity testing c. Breadth test and depth test d. Confirmation testing Answer: Option (c) 25. Which of the following is/are White box technique? a. Statement Testing b. Decision Testing c. Condition Coverage d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d) 26. What are the various Testing Levels? a. Unit Testing b. System Testing c. Integration Testing d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d) 27. Boundary value analysis belongs to? a. White Box Testing a. Black Box Testing b. White Box & Black Box Testing c. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 28. Alpha testing is done at a. Developer’s end b. User’s end c. Developer’s & User’s end d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (a) 29. Which of the following is also known as “Behavioral” testing? a. Black-box testing b. White-box testing c. C. Both A and B d. None of the above Answer: Option (a) 30. Which methodology is used to perform Maintenance testing? a. Breadth test and depth test b. Confirmation testing c. Retesting d. Sanity testing Answer: Option (a) 31. Which of the following is not part of the Test document? a. Test Case b. Requirements Traceability Matrix [RTM]c. Test strategy d. Project Initiation Note [PIN]Answer: Option (d) 32. Which of the following testing is related to the boundary value analysis? a. White box and black box testing b. White-box testing c. Black box testing d. None of the above Answer: Option (c) 33. Exploratory testing is a —–? a. Experience-based Test Design Technique b. White Box Test Design Technique c. Black Box Test Design Technique d. Grey Box Test Design Technique Answer: Option (a) 34. What is the best time to perform Regression testing? a. After the software has been modified b. As frequently as possible c. When the environment has been modified d. Both option a & c Answer: Option (d) 35. Which Test Document is used to define the Exit Criteria of Testing? a. Defect Report b. Test Summary Report c. Test Case d. Test Plan Answer: Option (d) 36. Which testing technique is used for usability testing? a. White-box testing b. Grey box testing c. Black Box testing d. Combination of all Answer: Option (c) 37. Which is not the right approach of Incremental testing approach? a. Big bang approach b. Top-down approach c. Functional incrimination d. Bottom-up approach Answer: Option (a) 38. The test levels are performed in which of the following order? a. Unit, Integration, System, Acceptance b. It is based on the nature of the project. c. Unit, Integration, Acceptance, System d. Unit, System, Integration, Acceptance Answer: Option (b) 39. Which of the below testing is executed without documentation and planning is known as? a. Regression Testing b. Adcock Testing c. Unit Testing d. None of the above Answer: Option (b) 40. The Regression test case is not a ——? a. Tests that focus on the software components, which have been modified. b. Low-level components are combined into clusters, which perform a specific software sub-function. c. Additional tests that emphasize software functions, which are likely to be affected by the change. d. A representative sample of tests, which will exercise all software functions. Answer: Option (b) 41. Which of the following abbreviation is correct for the terms SPICE? a. Software Process Improvement and Control Determination b. Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination c. Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination d. None of the above Answer: Option (b) 42. “Automation testing should be performed before starting the manual testing” is the true statement or false? a. True b. False Answer: Option (b) 43. ——— is the process of re-testing the modules that connected to the program or components after the modification has occurred. a. Regional regression Testing b. Re-testing c. Full Regression Testing d. Unit Regression Testing Answer: Option (a) 44. Who is responsible for sprint meeting? a. Scrum team b. Scrum master c. Product owner d. All of the above Answer: Option (d) 45. Generally, which testing is used when shrink-wrapped software products are being established and part of an integration testing? a. Integration Testing b. Validation testing c. Regression Testing d. Smoke testing Answer: Option (d) 46. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets? v – Test control w – Test monitoring x – Test estimation y – Incident management z – Configuration control 1 – Calculation of required test resources 2 – Maintenance of record of test results 3 – Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun 4 – Report on deviation from test plan 5 – Tracking of anomalous test results a. v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4 b. v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3 c. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2 d. v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5 Answer: Option (C) 47. The oracle assumption: a. Is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked. b. Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers? c. Is that the tester knows everything about the software under test. d. Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test. Answer: Option (d) 48. Static analysis is best described as: a. The analysis of batch programs. b. The reviewing of test plans. c. The use of black box testing. d. The analysis of program code. Answer: Option (d) 49. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for testing (the test phases) by: a. Reducing test time b. Increasing test time c. No change d. Can’t say Answer: Option (a) 50. Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults? a. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then. b. They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test phases. c. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then. d. Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then. Answer: Option (b) 51. The objective of __________ phase is to transform the design of the system into high-level language. a. Design phase b. Unit testing c. Coding d. Testing Answer: Option (c) 52. The main advantage of adhering to coding standard is a. Uniform appearance to the codes written by different engineers. b. Enhances code understanding. c. Good programming practice d. All of the above Answer: Option (d) 53. Which of the following is/are representative coding guidelines. a. Do not use a coding style that is too clever or too difficult to understand. b. Do not use an identifier for multiple purposes. c. The code should be well-documented. d. All of the above Answer: Option (d) 54. Which activity should be undertaken after the module successfully compiles? a. Code review b. Unit testing c. Integration testing d. All of the given options Answer: Option (a) 55. Which of the following is Algorithmic fault? a. Logic is wrong Code reviews b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler c. Not enough accuracy d. Maximum load violated Answer: Option (a) 56. Which of the following is Syntax fault? a. Logic is wrong Code reviews b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler c. Not enough accuracy d. Maximum load violated. Answer: Option (b) 57. Which of the following is Precision fault? a. Logic is wrong Code reviews. b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler c. Not enough accuracy d. Maximum load violated. Answer: Option (c) 58. Which of the following is Stress/Overload fault? a. Logic is wrong Code reviews. b. Wrong syntax; typos Compiler c. Not enough accuracy d. Maximum load violated. Answer: Option (d) 59. Which of the following are type of code review? a. Code inspection b. Code walkthrough c. Both d. None Answer: Option (c) 60. __________ helps to detect the algorithmic and logical error in code. a. Code walkthrough b. Code inspection c. Both d. None Answer: Option (a) 61.__________ helps to detect common programming errors in code. a. Code walkthrough b. Code inspection c. Both d. None Answer: Option (b) 62. Which of the following are some classical programming errors? a. Use of uninitialized variables. b. Jumps into loops. c. Array indices out of bound. d. All of the given options Answer: Option (d) 63. Which of the following defines Static Analysis? a. The analysis of batch programs. b. The reviewing of test plans. c. The analysis of program code d. The use of black box testing. Answer: Option (c) 64. Which of the following is true regarding Static Analysis Tools? a. It compares actual and expected results. b. It can detect memory leaks. c. It gives quality information about code without executing it. d. It tells about percentage of a code coverage. Answer: Option (c) 65. ITG stands for __________. a. instantaneous test group b. integration testing group c. individual testing group d. independent test group Answer: Option (d) 66. Which term describes testing? a. Finding broken code b. Evaluating deliverable to find errors. c. A stage of all projects d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 67. What are the various Testing Levels? a. Unit Testing b. System Testing c. Integration Testing d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d) 68. Unit testing is performed by __________. a. Users b. Developers c. Customers d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 69. __________ serve to replace modules that are subordinate (called by) the component to be tested. a. Stubs b. Driver c. Carrier d. All of the given options Answer: Option (a) 70. __________ is used in Bottom-up testing approach. a. Stubs b. Driver c. Carrier d. All of the given options Answer: Option (b) 71. __________ is used in Top-down testing approach. a. Stubs b. Driver c. Carrier d. All of the given options Answer: Option (a) 72. __________ is the process of testing the interface between two software units or modules? a. Unit Testing b. Integration Testing c. Validation Testing d. System Testing Answer: Option (b) 73. __________ is repeated testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested? a. Unit Testing b. Regression Testing c. Validation Testing d. System Testing Answer: Option (b) 74. When to do regression testing? a. When new functionalities are added to the application? b. When there is a change requirement. c. When there is a defect fix. d. All of the given options Answer: Option (d) 75. __________ is the process of evaluating software to determine whether it satisfies specified business requirements/client’s need? a. Unit Testing b. Integration Testing c. Validation Testing d. System Testing Answer: Option (c)
76. Alpha testing is done at __________. a. Developer’s end b. User’s end c. Developer’s & User’s end d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (a) 77. Beta testing is done at __________. a. User’s end b. Developer’s end c. User’s & Developer’s end d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (a) 78. Which testing level focuses on customer usage? a. Alpha Testing b. Beta Testing c. Validation Testing d. Both Alpha and Beta Answer: Option (d) 79. Black Box techniques are also known as __________. a. Design based testing. b. Specification-based testing c. Error guessing technique d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 80. White Box techniques are also classified as __________. a. Design based testing b. Structural testing c. Error guessing technique d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 81. Lower and upper limits are present in __________ chart. a. Run chart. b. Bar chart c. Control chart d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (a) 82. Behavioral testing is __________. a. White box testing b. Black box testing c. Grey box testing d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
83. __________ is Equivalence Partitioning. a. Black box testing b. White box testing c. Yellow box testing d. Green box testing Answer: Option (a) 84. __________ is Boundary Value Analysis (BVA). a. Black box testing b. White box testing c. Yellow box testing d. Green box testing Answer: Option (a) 85. __________ is Cyclamate complexity. a. Black box testing b. White box testing c. Yellow box testing d. Green box testing Answer: Option (b) 86. Which of the following is/are White box technique? a. Statement Testing b. Decision Testing c. Condition Coverage d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d) 87. Boundary value analysis belong to? a. White Box Testing b. Black Box Testing c. White Box & Black Box Testing d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 88. Which of the following terms defines the statement, “Every statement in a program is executed at least once”? a. Statement Coverage b. Branch coverage c. Path coverage d. Program overage Answer: Option (a) 89. Which of the following terms defines the statement, “Test cases are designed to make each branch condition to assume true and false values in turn”? a. Statement Coverage b. Branch coverage c. Path coverage d. Program overage Answer: Option (b) 90. Which of the following terms defines the statement, “Every path is executed at least once”? a. Statement Coverage b. Branch coverage c. Path coverage d. Program overage Answer: Option (c) 91. __________ testing checks code. a. Black box testing b. White box testing c. Red box testing d. Green box testing Answer: Option (b) 92. Testing done without planning and Documentation is called a. Unit testing b. Regression testing c. Adcock testing d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (c) 93. Acceptance testing is also known as__________. a. Grey box testing b. White box testing c. Alpha Testing d. Beta testing Answer: Option (d) 94. __________ is non-functional testing. a. Black box testing b. Performance testing c. Unit testing d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 95. __________ is black box testing. a. Basic path testing b. Boundary value analysis c. Code path analysis d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 96. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically. a. TRUE b. FALSE Answer: Option (b) 97. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process. a. Failure intensity b. Testing time c. Metrics d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (c) 98. Which of the following issues must be addressed if a successful software testing strategy is to be implemented? a. Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter prior to testing b. Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid cycle testing.” c. State testing objectives explicitly d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d) 99. Test cases should uncover errors like __________. a. Non-existent loop termination b. Comparison of different data types c. Incorrect logical operators or precedence d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (a) 100. __________ is considered as an adjunct to the coding step. a. Integration testing b. Unit testing c. Completion of Testing d. Regression Testing Answer: Option (a) 101. __________ is not regression test case. a. A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions. b. Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change. c. Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed. d. Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function. Answer: Option (d) 102. __________ testing integrates the set of classes required to respond to one input or event for the system. a. cluster testing b. thread-based testing c. use-based testing d. none of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 103. Which of the following is one of the steps in the integration testing of OO software? a. cluster testing b. thread-based testing c. use-based testing d. none of the mentioned Answer: Option (a) 104. Which methods can be used to drive validations tests? a. Yellow-box testing b. Black-box testing c. White-box testing d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 105 __________ is a part of testing OO code. a. Validation tests b. Integration tests c. Class tests d. System tests Answer: Option (c) 106. In which of the following testing strategies, a smallest testable unit is the encapsulated class or object? a. Unit testing b. Integration testing c. System testing d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (a) 107. Software Testing with real data in real environment is known as__________. a. Alpha testing b. Beta testing c. Regression testing d. None of the given options. Answer: Option (b) 108. Beta Testing is done by__________. a. Developers b. Testers c. Users d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
Software design yields __ levels of results. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 Answer: Option (b)
Which of the following is not an Advantage of modularization? a. Smaller components are easier to maintain. b. Concurrent execution can be made possible. c. Program cannot be divided based on functional aspects. d. Desired level of abstraction can be brought in the program. Answer: Option (c)
How many types of cohesion are there in software design? a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 Answer: Option (c)
Which of the following defines the degree of intra-dependability within elements of a module? a. Cohesion b. Coupling c. Design Verification d. None of the above Answer: Option (a)
When multiple modules share a common data structure and work on different part of it, it is called _. a. Common coupling b. Share coupling c. Data coupling d. Stamp coupling Answer: Option (d)
Which tool is use for structured designing? a. Program Chart b. Structure Chart c. Module Chart d. All the above Answer: Option (b)
In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern? a. Architecture b. Data c. Interface d. All of the above Answer: Option (d)
Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion? a. Functional Cohesion b. Temporal Cohesion c. Functional Cohesion d. Sequential Cohesion Answer: Option (a)
Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling? a. Control Coupling b. Stamp Coupling c. External Coupling d. Content Coupling Answer: Option (D)
Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design. a. It consists of module definitions. b. Modules represent data abstraction. c. Modules support functional abstraction. d. None of the above Answer: Option (b)
Defects removal efficiency (DRE) depends on: a. E: errors found before software delivery b. D: defects found after delivery to user c. Both A and B d. None of the above Answer: Option (c)
Which of the following is an indirect measure of product? a. Quality b. Complexity c. Reliability d. All of the above Answer: Option (d)
Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process? a. Efficiency b. Cost c. Effort Applied d. All of the above Answer: Option (a)
Which of the following is false? a. The user has no control over the contents of a static web page. b. The static content objects are dependent on the actions of the user. c. It is expected to have less number of connections for a good web application. d. Both A and B Answer: Option (b)
Function Point Computation is given by the formula a. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi) b. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]c. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) d. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) Answer: Option (b)
SMI stands for? a. Software Mature Indicator b. Software Mature Index c. Software Maturity Index d. Software Maturity Indicator Answer: Option (c)
Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of a. Analysis Model b. Source Code c. Design Model d. Testing Answer: Option (d)
Size and Complexity are a part of a. Product Metrics b. Process Metrics c. Project Metrics d. None of the above Answer: Option (a)
Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a a. Measurement b. Measure c. Metric d. None of the above Answer: Option (c)
The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does “a” represent in the ratio? a. maximum number of nodes at any level b. longest path from the root to a leaf c. number of modules d. lines of control Answer: Option (d)
Which of these are the various techniques to generate design alternatives? a. Determine Functional Component b. Determine Component based quality attribute. c. Modify an existing architecture. d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
Which of the following truly describes the approach determining functional component? a. This approach is based on studying the SRS and brainstorming candidate architectural constituents responsible for coherent collections of functional and data requirements. b. This approach begins by forming constituent and constituent relationship to satisfy non-functional requirements. c. This approach is used for similar program if architecture is available, it can be used as starting point.4 d. This approach describes the problem. Answer: Option (a)
Functional components for a working model can be stated as which of the following? a. Configuring Process Start up b. Providing User interface c. Allowing user to monitor and repa1ir the system. d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
The Non-functional components consist of
a. Re usability b. Adaptability c. Reliability d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
Which of the following statement is true? a. Device interface module is a software simulation of, or interface to, a real hardware device or system. b. A virtual device is a way to design a program with complex interfaces to device or other systems. c. The program units in the device interface module hides all details of interaction with hardware devices. d. None of the mentioned. Answer: Option (c)
Which of these are followed for an ideal device? a. Do exactly one job completely. b. Be loosely coupled to the rest of the program. c. Never change interface. d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
Which among these best represents Coupling for an ideal device? a. Do exactly one job completely. b. Be loosely coupled to the rest of the program. c. Hide its Implementation. d. Never change its interface Answer: Option (b)
Which among these best represents simplicity for an ideal device? a. Do exactly one job completely. b. Be loosely coupled to the rest of the program. c. Have a simple and consistent interface meeting the needs of the rest of the program. d. Never change its interface Answer: Option (C)
Which among these are the methods to improve software architecture? a. Combine Alternatives b. Impose an architectural style. c. Apply a mid-level design pattern. d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
Which among these signifies applying midlevel design pattern? a. The best features of two or more design alternatives can be combined into an improved design. b. The approximate particular style may be improved by modifying them to fit the style exactly. c. The architectural styles applied at low level of abstraction. d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
The intent of project metrics is: a. Minimization of development schedule. b. for strategic purposes c. assessing project quality on ongoing basis. d. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis. Answer: Option (d)
Which of the following is an indirect measure of product? a. Quality b. Complexity c. Reliability d. All of the Mentioned Answer: Option (d)
In size-oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the _______ a. number of Functions b. number of user inputs c. number of lines of code d. amount of memory usage Answer: Option (c)
Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA? a. Number of user Input b. Number of user Inquiries c. Number of external Interfaces d. Number of errors Answer: Option (d)
Usability can be measured in terms of a. Intellectual skill to learn the system b. Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage c. Net increase in productivity d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as a. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency) b. Function points analysis c. Control Chart d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance? a. Market b. Product c. Technology d. People Answer: Option (a)
Size and complexity are part of a. Process metrics b. Project metrics c. Product metrics d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
Architectural design metrics focus on a. Program architect b. Data structure c. Internal module complexity. d. Module effectiveness and Architectural design Answer: Option (d)
Which are not measurable characteristics of object-oriented design? a. Efficiency b. Cost c. Size d. Volatility Answer: Option (d)
Which of the following is not an objective of high-level design activity? a. To identify the important components of the system. b. To design the layering among the components of the system. c. To design the algorithms used in different components d. To identify the call relationships among different components Answer: Option (C)
In which of the following design phases, do the software designers free to make any alterations, corrections and modifications? a. Preliminary design phase b. Detailed design phase c. Both a and b d. None of the above Answer: Option (a)
Which one of the following types of cohesion can be considered as the best form of cohesion? a. Logical b. Coincidental c. Temporal d. Functional Answer: Option (d)
During the detailed design of a module, which one of the following is designed? a. Data structures and algorithms b. Control structure c. Data flow structure d. Module call relationships Answer: Option (a)
Which one of the following is the correct ordering of the coupling of modules from strongest to weakest? a. Content, common, control, stamp, data b. Common, content, control, stamp, data c. Content, data, common, stamp, common d. Data, control, common, stamp, content Answer: Option (a)
Which of the following objectives are not the one that the software designing phase claim to offer? i. Identify software design activities ii. Identify important items developed during the software design phase iii. To improve the designing skills of the developers a. All I, ii and iii are correct. b. Only I and ii are correct. c. Only I and iii are correct. d. None of the given options is correct. Answer: Option (b)
Which of the following statements is true? I. The software design phase comes after the feasibility and resources analysis phase. ii. The quality of the software depends upon the design phase a lot. a. Only I is true. b. Only ii is true. c. Both I and ii are true. d. None of them is true. Answer: Option (c)
What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions? a. Object b. Class c. Super Class d. Sub Class Answer: Option (a)
Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in a class hierarchy to have different methods with the same name? a. Aggregation b. Polymorphism c. Inheritance d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (A)
Which of the following points related to Object-oriented development (OOD) is true? a. OOA is concerned with developing an object model of the application domain. b. OOD is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement requirements. c. All of the mentioned d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process? a. Efficiency b. Cost c. Effort Applied d. All of the above Answer: Option (a)
Function Point Computation is given by the formula a. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi) b. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]c. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) d. FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) Answer: Option (B)
Which of the following does not belong to FURPS? a. Functionality b. Usability c. Reliability d. Speed Efficiency Answer: Option (d)
__ is the first step in the software development life cycle. a. Analysis b. Design c. Problem/Opportunity Identification d. Development and Documentation Answer: Option (c)
__ tool is used for structured designing. a. Program flowchart b. Structure chart c. Data-flow diagram d. Module Answer: Option (b)
A clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project is; in the analysis phase, the development of the ____ occurs. a. documentation b. flowchart c. program specification d. design Answer: Option (c)
__ designs and implement database structures. a. Programmers b. Project managers c. Technical writers d. Database administrators Answer: Option (d)
In the design phase, __ is the primary area of concern. a. Architecture b. Data c. Interface d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
m A single word __ summarize the importance of software design. (a) Efficiency (b) Accuracy (c) Quality (d) Complexity Answer: Option (c)
__ is not an area of concern in the design model. a. Architecture b. Data c. Interfaces d. Project scope Answer: Option (d)
Which of these are characteristics of a good design? a. The design must implement all explicit requirements available in requirement model. b. The design must accommodate all implicit requirements given by stakeholders. c. voice recognition commands d. All of the above options Answer: Option (d)
Which of the following is not a characteristic common to all design methods? a. configuration management b. functional component representation c. quality assessment guidelines d. refinement heuristics Answer: Option (a)
__ is not a characteristic common to all design methods. a. configuration management b. functional component representation c. quality assessment guidelines d. refinement heuristics Answer: Option (a)
Which are the characteristics of good software design? a. The design must implement all explicit requirements available in requirement model. b. The design must accommodate all implicit requirements given by stakeholders. c. The design must be readable & understandable. d. All of the above options Answer: Option (d)
__ transforms class models into design class realization and prepares data structure (data design) required to implement the software. a. Data Design b. Architectural Design c. Interface Design d. Procedural Design Answer: Option (a)
__ defines the relationship between major structural elements of the software. a. Data Design b. Architectural Design c. Interface Design d. Procedural Design Answer: Option (b)
__ defines how software communicates with systems & with humans. An interface implies a flow of information & behavior. a. Data Design b. Architectural Design c. Interface Design d. Procedural Design Answer: Option (c)
__ transforms structural elements of software into procedural description of software components. a. Data Design b. Architectural Design c. Interface Design d. Procedural Design Answer: Option (d)
Which of the following is wrong with reference to Software Design Principles. a. Design process should not suffer from “tunnel vision”. b. Design should be traceable to the analysis model. c. Design should not reinvent the wheel. d. Design should “maximize the intellectual distance” between the software and the real-world problem. Answer: Option (d)
Which of the following is Architectural Styles a. Data-centered architecture style b. Data-flow architectures c. Call and return architecture. d. All of the above options Answer: Option (d)
Filter & Pipes are the concept of which Architectural Style a. Data-centered architecture style b. Data-flow architectures c. Call and return architecture. d. Layered architecture Answer: Option (b)
Main program/subprogram architectures & Remote procedure call architectures are sub styles of __. a. Data-centered architecture style b. Data-flow architectures c. Call and return architecture d. Layered architecture Answer: Option (c)
Which option does not define Function Oriented Software Design? a. It consists of module definitions. b. Modules represent data abstraction. c. Modules support functional abstraction. d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
Structured Analysis is based on, which principles? a. Top-down decomposition approach b. Divide and conquer principle. c. Graphical representation of results using DFDs. d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
Rectangle represents __ DFD notation. a. Transform b. Data Store c. Function d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
Structural decomposition is concerned with function calls. a. TRUE b. FALSE Answer: Option (a)
A function-oriented design focuses on the entities in the system rather than the data processing activities. a. TRUE b. FALSE Answer: Option (b)
The system is denoted by __ in DFD. a. Circle b. Arrow c. Rectangle d. Triangle Answer: Option (a)
Which of the following is not an activity of Structured Analysis (SA)? a. Functional decomposition b. Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model c. All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure. d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
The results of structured analysis can be easily understood by ordinary customers. a. TRUE b. FALSE Answer: Option (a)
Structured Analysis is based on the principle of Bottom-Up Approach. a. TRUE b. FALSE Answer: Option (b)
Which of the following points are true, with reference to the Object-oriented development (OOD)? a. OOA is concerned with developing an object model of the application domain. b. OOD is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement requirements c. All of the mentioned. d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
__ is a disadvantage of OOD. a. Easier maintenance b. Objects may be understood as stand-alone entities. c. Objects are potentially reusable components. d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
A software component a. Implements some functionality. b. Has explicit dependencies through provides and required interfaces. c. Communicates through its interfaces only. d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
Design patterns are not applicable to the design of object-oriented software? a. TRUE b. FALSE Answer: Option (b)
__ is/are the characteristics of a well-formed design class. a. Primitiveness b. High cohesion c. Low coupling d. All of the above Answer: Option (d)
Independence of module is assessed using two qualitative criteria. What are those criteria? a. Cohesion and coupling b. Module and modularity c. Cyclamate complexity and modularity d. None of the above Answer: Option (a)
Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module a. can be written more compactly. b. focuses on just one thing. c. is able to complete its function in a timely manner. d. is connected to other modules and the outside world. Answer: Option (b)
Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module a. can be written more compactly. b. focuses on just one thing. c. is able to complete its function in a timely manner. d. is connected to other modules and the outside world. Answer: Option (d)
Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software modularity? a. Modules are robust. b. Module can use other modules. c. Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library. d. Modules are mostly dependent. Answer: Option (d)
__ is an indication of the relative functional strength of a module. a. Cohesion b. Coupling c. Modularity d. Cohesion and coupling. Answer: Option (a)
Independent modules are easier to maintain and test because of __ . a. Code modification is limited. b. Error propagation is reduced. c. Reusable modules are possible. d. All of the above Answer: Option (d)
__ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules. a. Cohesion b. Coupling c. None of the mentioned d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
A software engineer must design the modules with the goal of high cohesion and low coupling. a. TRUE b. FALSE Answer: Option (a)
In __ coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another. a. Control Coupling b. Stamp Coupling c. External Coupling d. Content Coupling Answer: Option (b)
If all tasks must be executed in the same timespan, __________type of cohesion is being exhibited. a. Functional Cohesion b. Temporal Cohesion c. Functional Cohesion d. Sequential Cohesion Answer: Option (b)
Which of the following is / are the type of Cohesion? a. Functional b. Coincidental c. Communicational d. All of the above. Answer: Option (d) 96.What is the meaning of Functional Cohesion? a. Operations are part of single functional task and are placed in same procedures. b. All operations that access the same data are defined within one class. c. All operations that access the data from outside the module. d. None of the above. Answer: Option (a)
Which is the worst type of coupling? a. Control coupling b. Data coupling c. Content coupling d. Stamp coupling Answer: Option (c)
Which is the most desirable form of coupling? a. Control coupling b. Data coupling c. Common coupling d. Stamp coupling Answer: Option (b)
Which from the following is the most desirable form of cohesion? a. Logical cohesion b. Functional cohesion c. Procedural cohesion d. Communicational cohesion Answer: Option (b)
Which from the following is the worst form of cohesion? a. Functional cohesion b. Sequential cohesion c. Temporal cohesion d. Coincidental cohesion Answer: Option (a)
“Three statements are given below regarding the User Interface Design, 1. Place the user in control. 2. Reduce the user’s memory load. 3. Make the interface consistent. These rules are called as __________.” a. Golden Rule b. Silver Rule c. User Rule d. Interface rule Answer: Option (a)
Which of the following is golden rule for interface design? a. Place the user in control b. Reduce the user’s memory load c. Make the interface consistent d. All of the given options Answer: Option (d)
__________is not a design principle that allows the user to maintain control. a. Provide for flexible interaction b. Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able c. Show technical internals from the casual user d. design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen Answer: Option (c)
__________is not a user interface design process. a. User, task, and environment analysis and modelling. b. Interface design c. Knowledgeable, frequent users d. Interface validation Answer: Option (c)
When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________can be significant. a. short-term memory b. shortcuts c. objects that appear on the screen d. all of the mentioned Answer: Option (a)
__________is not considered by the Interface design. a. the design of interfaces between software components b. the design of interfaces between the software and human producers and consumers of information c. the design of the interface between two computers d. all of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
What establishes the profile of end-users of the system? a. design model b. user’s model c. mental image d. system image Answer: Option (b)
Unit- II 1. The process to gather the software requirements from client, analyze and document them is known as ______
a. Feasibility Study b. Requirement Gathering c. Requirement Engineering d. System Requirements Specification Answer: Option (c)
2. The goal of requirement engineering is to develop and maintain sophisticated and descriptive _______________document.
a. Feasibility Study b. Requirement Gathering c. Software Requirement Validation d. System Requirements Specification Answer: Option (d)
3. It is the process in which developers discuss with the client and end users and know their expectations from the software.
a. Requirements gathering b. Organizing Requirements c. Negotiation & discussion d. D. Documentation Answer: Option (b)
4. Which of the following is correct software metrics?
a. Complexity Metrics b. Quality Metrics c. Process Metrics d. All of the above Answer: Option (b)
5. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment (QFD)?
a. Known, Unknown, Undreamed b. User, Developer c. Functional, Non-Functional d. Normal, Expected, Exciting Answer: Option (d)
6. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task?
a. Problem of scope b. Problem of understanding c. Problem of volatility d. All of the above Answer: Option (d)
7. How many phases are there in Brainstorming?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 Answer: Option (b)
8. Which type of DFD concentrates on the system process and flow of data in the system?
a. Physical DFD b. Logical DFD c. Flowchart DFD d. System DFD Answer: Option (b)
9. How many levels of DFD is?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 Answer: Option (b)
10. Which of the following is not a component in DFD?
a. Entities b. Attributes c. Process d. Data Flow Answer: Option (b)
11. What is level 2 in DFD means?
a. Highest abstraction level DFD is known as Level 2. b. Level 2 DFD depicts basic modules in the system and flow of data among various modules. c. Level 2 DFD shows how data flows inside the modules mentioned in Level 1. d. All of the above Answer: Option (c)
12. The context diagram is also known as __.
a. Level-0 DFD b. Level-1 DFD c. Level-2 DFD d. All of the above Answer: Option (a)
13. A directed arc or line in DFD represents
a. Data Store b. Data Process c. Data Flow d. All of the above Answer: Option (c)
14. What are the types of requirements?
a. Availability b. Reliability c. Usability d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
15. Select the developer-specific requirement?
a. Portability b. Maintainability c. Availability d. Both Portability and Maintainability Answer: Option (d)
16. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a. Elicitation b. Design c. Analysis d. documentation Answer: Option (b)
17. FAST stands for a. Functional Application Specification Technique b. Fast Application Specification Technique c. Facilitated Application Specification Technique d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
18. The user system requirements are the parts of which document?
a. SDD b. SRS c. DDD d. SRD ` Answer: Option (b)
19. Which is one of the most important stakeholders from the following?
a. Entry-level personnel b. Middle level stakeholder c. Managers d. Users of the software Answer: Option (D)
20. Choose an internal software quality from given below: a. Scalability b. Usability c. Reusability d. reliability Answer: Option (c)
22. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish at the business case for the system?
a. Transition b. Elaboration c. Construction d. Inception Answer: Option (d)
23. The longer a fault exists in software
a. the more tedious its removal becomes b. the more costly it is to detect and correct c. the less likely it is to be properly corrected d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
24. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a. Productivity b. Portability c. Timeliness d. Visibility Answer: Option (b)
25. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.
a. CAD, CAM b. Firmware, Embedded c. Generic, Customized d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (C)
26. Purpose of process is to deliver software
a. in time b. with acceptable quality c. that is cost efficient d. both in time & with acceptable quality Answer: Option (d)
27. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a. Reusability management b. Risk management c. Measurement d. User Reviews Answer: Option (d)
28. Which one of the following is a functional requirement? a. Maintainability b. Portability c. Robustness d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
29. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module?
a. Availability b. Testability c. Usability d. Flexibility Answer: Option (b)
30. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing?
a. Functional b. Non-Functional c. Known Requirement d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (A)
31. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?
a. It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform. b. It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and standardized. c. The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended. d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (a)
32. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement (NFR).
a. Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality b. Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process c. Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes d. Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals Answer: Option (c)
33. What is the first step of requirement elicitation?
a. Identifying Stakeholder b. Listing out Requirements c. Requirements Gathering d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (a)
34. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner.
I. Consolidation ii. Prioritization iii. Requirements Gathering iv. Evaluation a. iii, I, ii, iv b. iii, iv, ii, I c. iii, ii, iv, I d. ii, iii, iv, I Answer: Option (b)
35. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
a. Evaluations to be performed b. amount of technical work c. audits and reviews to be performed d. documents to be produced by the SQA group Answer: Option (b)
36. Who writes the Software Requirement Specifications Document (SRS)?
a. System Developer b. System tester c. System analyst d. None of these above Answer: Option (c)
37. What is the goal of the requirements analysis and specifications phase of the software development life cycle?
a. Understanding the customer requirements and organize them in an informal document. b. Analyzing the cost of development c. Determining scope of the software d. None of these above Answer: Option (a)
38. Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of SRS document?
a. Concise b. Ambiguous c. Traceable d. Verifiable Answer: Option (b)
39. What is noise in terms of software development?
a. Writing irrelevant statements to the software development in the SRS document b. Adding contradictory requirements in SRS document c. Writing over-specification d. None of these above Answer: Option (a)
40. Which of the following is not a UML diagram?
a. Activity diagram b. Use case c. State diagram d. DFD Answer: Option (d)
41. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a. Quality Control b. Quality of conformance c. Quality Assurance d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (B)
42. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a. Project manager b. Project team c. SQA group d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
43. What is Six Sigma?
a. It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance b. The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations c. It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance and The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations d. A Formal Technical Review (FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection Answer: Option (c)
44. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as
a. Quality of design b. Quality of conformance c. Quality of testing d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
45. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a. A compliant product b. Good quality output c. Delivery within budget and schedule d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
46. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a. Errors b. Equivalent faults c. Failure cause d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (a)
47. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
a. Testing b. Help line support c. Warranty work d. Complaint resolution Answer: Option (a)
48. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.
a. True b. False Answer: Option (b)
49. Quality of design encompasses requirements and specifications of the system.
a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
50. Which of the following is not the primary objectives in the preliminary investigation of system development?
a. Assess cost and benefit of alternative approves b. Determining the size of the project c. Preparing the SRS to cover all the system specifications d. Report finding to the management with recommendation to accept or reject the proposal Answer: Option (c)
51. If every requirement can be checked by a cost Effective process, then the SRS is _____?
a. Verifiable b. Complete c. Traceable d. Modifiable Answer: Option (a)
52. Information requirements of an organization can be determined by ____?
a. Finding out what similar organizations do b. Interviewing managers and users and arriving at the requirements based on consensus c. Sending a questionnaire to all employees of the organization d. Telling organization what they need based on your experience Answer: Option (b)
53. _____ and _____ are not the subject matter of requirement analysis.
a. Performance, modelling present system b. Functional, non-functional c. Internal controls, present system work load d. Stakeholder knowledge of computers, developer’s staff Answer: Option (d)
54. In which testing strategy requirements established during requirements analysis are validated against developed software?
a. Validation testing b. Regression testing c. Integration testing d. System testing Answer: Option (a)
55. Initial requirements specification is _____?
a. Only a rough indication of the requirement b. Not changed till the end of the project c. Continuously changed during project implementation d. Changed and finalized after feasibility study Answer: Option (a)
56. It is necessary to consult the following while drawing up requirement specification.
a. Only top managers b. Only top and middle management c. Only top, middle and operational managers d. Top, middle and operational managers and also all who will use the system Answer: Option (d)
57. It is necessary to prioritize information requirements of an organization at the requirements determination phase as _____?
a. It is always good to prioritize b. There are conflicting demands from users c. There are constraints on budgets, available time, human resource and requirement d. All good organization do it Answer: Option (c)
58. Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true?
i). SRS is written by customer ii). SRS is written by a developer iii). SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer a. Only i is true b. Both ii and iii are true c. All are true d. None of the above Answer: Option (c)
59. Requirement specification is carried out _____?
a. Simultaneously with requirements determination b. Before requirements are determined c. After requirements are determined d. Independent of requirements determination Answer: Option (c)
60. Which of the following is not included in SRS?
a. Performance b. Functionality c. Design solutions d. External Interfaces Answer: Option (c)
61. The main goal of arriving at a final specification is _____?
a. To compute the cost of implementing the system b. To assist in designing the system c. To tell the organization’s managers how the system will function d. To tell the organization’s managers what the proposed system will achieve in a language understood by them Answer: Option (d) 62. Final specifications are drawn up by _____? a. System designers along with users b. The managers of user organization c. System analyst in consultation with programmers d. System analyst in consultation with the management of the organization Answer: Option (d) 63. The role of a system analyst drawing up a requirements specification is similar to _____? a. Architect designing a building b. A structural engineer designing a building c. A contractor constructing a building d. The workers who construct a building Answer: Option (a) 64. Which one from the following is highly associated activity of project planning? a. Keep track of the project b. Compare actual and planned progress and costs c. Identify the activities, milestones and deliverables produced by a project d. Both B and C Answer: Option (c) 65. The final specifications are arrived at _____? a. During feasibility study b. After feasibility study c. Just before implementation phase d. When the system is being designed Answer: Option (b)
67. Requirement prioritization and negotiation belongs to _____? a. Feasibility study b. Requirement elicitation c. Requirement validation d. Requirements reviews Answer: Option (b)SOFTWARE ENGINEERING 2020-21 22 University Academy 68. System approval criteria are specified _____? a. During feasibility study b. During the requirements specifications stage c. During system study stage d. When the final specifications are drawn up Answer: Option (d) 69. Which of the following is used to determine the specificity of requirements? Where n1 is the number of requirements for which all reviewers have identical interpretations, n2 is number of requirements in a specification. a. n1/n2 b. n2/n1 c. n1+n2 d. n1–n2 Answer: Option (a)
71. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis? a. Two b. Three c. Four d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 72. The statement “Conformity to a standard is maintained” depicts _____________ property of SRS. a. Correct b. Complete c. Consistent d. Modifiable Answer: Option (b) 73. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if a. its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while retaining the style and structure b. every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet c. every requirement stated therein is verifiable d. no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other Answer: Option (d) 74. The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification. a. black-box b. white-box c. grey-box d. none of the mentioned Answer: Option (a)
77. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator (CRC) modeling ? a. All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC modelling b. The review leader reads the use-case deliberately c. Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
78. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as __________.
a. SQA b. SQM c. SQI d. SQA and SQM Answer: Option (a)
79. Quality in software can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a. A compliant product b. Good quality output c. Delivery within budget and schedule d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d)
80. Inspections and testing are __________ kinds of Quality Costs.
a. Prevention b. Internal Failure c. External Failure d. Appraisal Answer- (d)
81. According to Pareto’s principle, __________% of defects can be traced to __________% of all causes.
a. 60, 40 b. 70, 30 c. 80, 20 d. No such principle exists Answer: Option (c)
82. Quality Management includes __________ .
a. Defining procedures and standards b. Checking that procedures are followed c. Collecting and analyzing various quality data d. All of the above mentioned Answer: Option (d)
83. Non-conformance to software requirements is known as __________ .
a. Software availability b. Software reliability c. Software failure d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (c)
84. Software safety is equivalent to software reliability.
a. TRUE b. FALSE Answer: Option (b)
85. Misinterpretation of customer communication is a sample of possible cause defects.
a. TRUE b. FALSE Answer: Option (a)
86. __________ kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment.
a. Prevention b. Internal Failure c. External Failure d. Appraisal Answer: Option (b)
87. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during development is known as
a. Quality of design b. Quality of conformance c. Quality of testing d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b)
88. An informal review may consist of__________.
a. Casual meeting b. Correction c. Inspection d. Pair programming Answer: Option (a)
89. Which of the following are objectives for FTR?
a. Allow senior staff members to correct errors b. Assess programmer productivity c. Determining who introduced an error into a program d. Uncover errors in software work products Answer: Option (d)
90. __________ is not one of the activities recommended to be performed by an independent SQA group.
a. Prepare SQA plan for the project b. Review software engineering activities to verify process compliance c. Report any evidence of noncompliance to senior management d. Serve as the sole test team for any software produced Answer: Option (d)
91. __________ is not a section in the standard for SQA plans recommended by IEEE.
a. Budget b. Documentation c. Reviews and audits d. Test Answer: Option (a)
a. Using sampling in place of exhaustive testing of software b. Surveying customers to find out their opinions about product quality c. Tracing each defect to its underlying cause, isolating the “vital few” causes, and moving to correct them d. Tracing each defect to its underlying causes and using the Pareto principle to correct each problem found Answer: Option (c)
93. Software safety is a quality assurance activity that focuses on hazards that __________.
a. Affect the reliability of a software component b. May cause an entire system to fail c. May result from user input errors d. Prevent profitable marketing of the final product Answer: Option (b)
94. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma? a. Define b. Control c. Measure d. Analyze Answer: Option (b)
95. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility?
a. Process control b. Document control c. Control of nonconforming products d. Servicing Answer: Option (a)
Unit-I 1. What is the first step in the software development lifecycle? a. System Design b. Coding c. System Testing d. Preliminary Investigation and Analysis Answer: Option (d) 2. What does the study of an existing system refer to? a. Details of DFD b. Feasibility Study c. System Analysis d. System Planning Answer: Option (c) 3. Which of the following is involved in the system planning and designing phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)? a. Sizing b. Parallel run c. Specification freeze d. All of the above Answer: Option (d) 4. What does RAD stand for? a. Rapid Application Document b. Rapid Application Development c. Relative Application Development d. None of the above Answer: Option (b) 5. Which of the following prototypes does not associated with Prototyping Model? a. Domain Prototype b. Vertical Prototype c. Horizontal Prototype d. Diagonal Prototype Answer: Option (d) 6. The major drawback of RAD model is _ a. It requires highly skilled developers/designers. b. It necessitates customer feedbacks. c. It increases the component reusability. a. Both (a) & (c) Answer: Option (d) 7. Which of the following does not relate to Evolutionary Process Model? a. Incremental Model b. Concurrent Development Model c. WINWIN Spiral Model d. All of the above Answer: Option (d)
11. Which of the following models doesn’t necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in the lifecycle? a. RAD & Waterfall b. Prototyping & Waterfall c. Spiral & Prototyping d. Spiral & RAD Answer: Option (c) 12. When the user participation isn’t involved, which of the following models will not result in the desired output? a. Prototyping & Waterfall b. Prototyping & RAD c. Prototyping & Spiral d. RAD & Spiral Answer: Option (b) 13. Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy an advanced version of the existing software in the market? a. Spiral b. Iterative Enhancement c. RAD d. Both (b) and (c) Answer: Option (D) 14. Software is considered to be collection of a. programming code b. associated libraries c. documentations d. All of the above Answer: Option (d) 15. The process of developing a software product using software engineering principles and methods is referred to as_______. a. Software Engineering b. software Evolution c. System Models d. Software Models Answer: Option (b) 16. Which of the following is the Characteristics of good software? a. Transitional b. Operational c. Maintenance d. All of the above Answer: Option (d) 17. Where there is a need of Software Engineering? a. For Large Software b. To reduce Cost c. Software Quality Management d. All of the above Answer: Option (d) 18. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to____________. a. Software Developers b. Software companies c. Both A and B d. None of the above Answer: Option (d) 19. Efficiency in a software product does not include____ a. Licensing b. processing time c. responsiveness d. memory utilization Answer: Option (a) 20. What are attributes of good software? a. Software functionality b. Software development c. Software maintainability d. Both A and C Answer: Option (d) 21. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ____LOC (Line of Code). a. 100-200 b. 200-400 c. 400-1000 d. above 1000 Answer: Option (a) 22. RAD stands for a. Relative Application Development b. Rapid Application Development c. Rapid Application Document d. None of the mentioned Answer: Option (b) 23. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change? a. Build & Fix Model b. Prototyping Model c. RAD Model d. Waterfall Model Answer: Option (d) 24. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model? a. Horizontal Prototype b. Vertical Prototype c. Diagonal Prototype Answer: Option (c) 25. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model? a. Quick Design b. Coding c. Prototype Refinement d. Engineer Product e. Domain Prototype. Answer: Option (b) 26. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong? a. No room for structured design b. Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable c. Maintenance is practically not possible d. It scales up well to large projects Answer: Option (d) 27. RAD Model has a. 2 phases b. 3 phase c. 5 phases d. 6 phases Answer: Option (c) 28. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC? a. Waterfall Model b. Prototyping Model c. RAD Model d. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model Answer: Option (c) 29. Which of the following are valid step in SDLC framework? a. Requirement Gathering b. System Analysis c. Software Design d. All of the above Answer: Option (d) 30. Which of the following is the first step in SDLC framework? a. Feasibility Study b. Requirement Gathering c. Communication d. System Analysis Answer: Option (c) 31. Which of the following is not correct model in Software Development Paradigm? a. Waterfall Model b. P model c. Spiral Model d. V model Answer: Option (b) 32. Waterfall model is not suitable for: a. Small projects b. Complex projects c. Accommodating changes d. Maintenance Projects Answer: Option (c) 33. Which one of the following is a functional requirement? a. Maintainability b. Portability c. Business needs d. Reliability Answer: Option (c) 34. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model? a. Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required b. Increases reusability of components c. Encourages customer/client feedback d. Increases reusability of components, highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required Answer: Option (d) 35. The process to gather the software requirements from client, analyze and document them is known as _____.. a. Feasibility Study b. Requirement Gathering c. Requirement Engineering d. System Requirements Specification Answer: Option (c) 36. The goal of requirement engineering is to develop and maintain sophisticated and descriptive _________________ document. a. Feasibility Study b. Requirement Gathering c. Software Requirement Validation d. System Requirements Specification Answer: Option (d) 37. It is the process in which developers discuss with the client and end users and know their expectations from the software. a. Requirements gathering b. Organizing Requirements c. Negotiation & discussion d. Documentation Answer: Option (a) 38. Which of the following is correct software metrics? a. Complexity Metrics b. Quality Metrics c. Process Metrics d. All of the above Answer: Option (d) 39. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task? a. Problem of scope b. Problem of understanding c. Problem of volatility d. All of the above Answer: Option (d) 40. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for? A. Software SecurityB. Software reuseC.SOOFT processesD. Software Validation Answer: Option (d) 41. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes? a. Software development b. Software dependence c. Software validation d. Software specification Answer: Option (b) 42. The spiral model was originally proposed by.. a. Barry Boehm b. Pressman c. Royce d. PressmanAnswer: Option (a) 43. Usability can be measured in terms of: a. Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage b. Net increase in productivity c. Intellectual skill to learn the system d. All of the mentioned Answer: Option (d) 44. What are attributes of good software? a. Software functionality b. Software maintainability c. Software development d. Both Software functionality & maintainability Answer: Option (d) 45. Which of the following is also known as Verification and Validation Model? a. V-Model b. Waterfall Model c. Prototype Model d. Evolutionary Model Answer: Option (a) 46. Software deteriorates rather than wears out because a. Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments b. Defects are more likely to arise after the software has been used often c. Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions d. Software spare parts become harder to order Answer: Option (c) 47. Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers? a. Process b. Manufacturing c. Methods d. Tools Answer: Option (b) 48. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities? a. Communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment b. Communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing c. Analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance d. Analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing Answer: Option (c) 49. The incremental model of software development is a. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined b. A good approach when working core product is required. c. The best approach to use when large development team d. A revolutionary model that is not commercially used. Answer: Option (b) 50. The spiral model of software development a. Ends with the software delivery of the product b. Is more chaotic than incremental model c. Calculate risk at each phase d. All the three Answer: Option (c) 51. The prototyping software model is a. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined b. Useful only when customer can not define requirement clearly c. best for large development team d. A risky model for producing meaningful product Answer: Option (b) 52. Which question no longer concerns the modern software engineer? a. Why does computer hardware cost so much? b. Why does software take a long time to finish? c. Why does it cost so much to develop a piece of software? d. Why can’t software errors be removed from products prior to delivery? Answer: Option (a) 53. Software is a product and can be manufactured using the same technologies used for other engineering artifacts a. True b. False Answer: Option (b) 54. Software deteriorates rather than wears out because a. Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments b. Defects are more likely to arise after the software has been used often c. Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions d. Software spare parts become harder to order Answer: Option (c)
56. In its simplest form an external computing device may access cloud data services using a web browser. a. True b. False Answer: Option (a) 57. Product line software developments depends on the reuse of existing software components to provide software engineering leverage. a. True b. False Answer: Option (a) 58. Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers?
Process
Manufacturing
Methods
Tools
Answer: Option (b)
59. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities?
a. communication, planning, modeling, construction, deployment b. communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing c. analysis, designing, programming, debugging, maintenance d. analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing Answer: Option (a)
60. Most software continues to be custom-built because
a. Component reuse is common in the software world. b. Reusable components are too expensive to use. c. Software is easier to build without using someone else’s components. d. Off-the-shelf software components are unavailable in many application domains. Answer: Option (d)
61. The nature of software applications can be characterized by their information
a. Complexity b. Content c. Determinacy d. both b and c Answer: Option (d)
62. Process models are described as agile because they
a. Eliminate the need for cumbersome documentation b. Emphasize maneuverability and adaptability c. Do not waste development time on planning activities d. Make extensive use of prototype creation Answer: Option (b)
63. Which of these terms are level names in the Capability Maturity Model?
a. Performed b. Repeated c. Optimized d. both a and c Answer: Option (d)
64. The best software process model is one that has been created by the people who will actually be doing the work.
a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
65. Which of the following are recognized process flow types?
a. Concurrent process flow b. Iterative process flow c. Linear process flow d. both b and c Answer: Option (d)
66. Which of these are standards for assessing software processes?
a. SPICE b. ISO 9000 c. ISO 9001 d. both a and c Answer: Option (d)
67. The rapid application development model is
a. Another name for component-based development b. A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly. c. A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model. d. All of the above. Answer: Option (c)
68. In the Unified Process model requirements are determined iteratively and may span more than one phase of the process. a. True b. False Answer: Option (a)
69. The waterfall model of software development is
a. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined. b. A good approach when a working program is required quickly. c. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams d. An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more Answer: Option (a)
70. The incremental model of software development is
a. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined. b. A good approach when a working core product is required quickly. c. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams d. A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products. Answer: Option (b)
71. Evolutionary software process models
Are iterative in nature
Can easily accommodate product requirements changes
Do not generally produce throwaway systems
All of the above.
Answer: Option (d)
72. The prototyping model of software development is
A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
Answer: Option (b)
73. The spiral model of software development
a. Ends with the delivery of the software product. b. Is more chaotic than the incremental model. c. Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration d. All of the above Answer: Option (c)
74. The concurrent development model is
a. Another name for concurrent engineering. b. Defines events that trigger engineering activity state transitions. c. Only used for development of parallel or distributed systems. d. Both a and b Answer: Option (c)
75. The component-based development model is
a. Only appropriate for computer hardware design b. Not able to support the development of reusable components. c. Dependent on object technologies for support. d. Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics Answer: Option (c)
76. The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods to
a. Define the specification for computer based systems b. Develop defect free computer-based systems. c. Verify the correctness of computer-based systems. d. All of the above. Answer: Option (d)
77. Which of these is not one of the phase names defined by the Unified Process model for software development?
a. Inception phase b. Elaboration phase c. Construction phase d. Validation phase Answer: Option (d)
78. Which of these is not a characteristic of the Personal Software Process?
a. Emphasizes personal measurement of work product. b. Practitioner requires careful supervision by the project manager. c. Individual practitioner is responsible for estimating and scheduling. d. Practitioner is empowered to control quality of software work products. Answer: Option (b)
79. Which of these are objectives of the Team software process? a. Accelerate software process improvement b. Allow better time management by highly trained professionals c. Build self-directed software teams d. Both b and c Answer: Option (d)
80. SDLC stands for
a. Software Development Life Cycle b. System Development Life cycle c. Software Design Life Cycle d. System Design Life Cycle Answer: Option (a)
81. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a. Waterfall Model b. Prototyping Model c. RAD Model d. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
1. “Software engineers shall -
act consistently with the public interest.”
act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and FAVOUR.”
ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned
all of the mentioned
View Answer
2. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s ..COMPU.TERSS.”Here1... the term misuse refers to:
Unauthorized modification of computer material
Unauthorized access to computer material
Dissemination of viruses or other malware
All of the above
View Answer
All of the above
“Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s COMPUTERS HEAR.”HereE1 the term misuse refers to the Unauthorized modification of computer material, Unauthorized access to computer material & Dissemination of viruses or other malware.
3. What is a Software ?
Software is documentation and configuration of data
Software is set of programs
Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
None of the mentioned
View Answer
Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data.
4. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?
Software development
Software dependence
Software validation
Software specification
View Answer
Software dependence is not a part of software processes .
5. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?
Software Security
Software reuse
Software processes
Software Validation
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View Answer
The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for Software Validation .
6. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
Prototyping Model
RAD Model
Build & Fix Model
Waterfall Model
View Answer
Waterfall Model is not suitable for accommodating any change.
7. SDLC stands for
System Development Life cycle
Software Design Life Cycle
Software Development Life Cycle
System Design Life Cycle
View Answer
SDLC stands for Software Development Life Cycle .
8. The spiral model was originally proposed by -
Barry Boehm
Pressman
Royce
Pressman
View Answer
The spiral model was originally proposed by Barry Boehm
9. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
Infrastructure software are covered under Generic Products.
11. Build and Fix model has?
1 Phases
2 Phases
3 Phases
4 Phases
View Answer
Build and Fix model has 2 Phases
12. White box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes called ?
Graph Testing
Basic path
Glass box testing
Dataflow
View Answer
White box testing, a software testing technique is sometimes called Glass box testing.
13. Structured programming codes includes ?
alteration & iteration
multiple exit from loops
sequencing
only 1 and 3
View Answer
Structured programming codes includes sequencing, alteration & iteration.
14. The document listing all procedures and regulations that generally govern an organization is the ?
Organizing manual
Personal poling bank
Administration policy manual
Procedure log
View Answer
The document listing all procedures and regulations that generally govern an organization is the Organizing manual .
15. Which one of the following is NOT desired in a good Software Requirement Specifications (SRS) document?
Non-Functional Requirements
Goals of Implementation
Functional Requirements
Algorithms for Software Implementation
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View Answer
Algorithms for Software Implementation is not desired in a good Software Requirement Specifications (SRS) document.
16. COCOMO stands for ______ .
constructive cost Model
common control Model
composition cost Model
consumed cost Model
View Answer
COCOMO stands for constructive cost Model .
17. What is the most common measure for correctness?
Errors per KLOC
Defects per KLOC
$ per KLOC
Pages of documentation per KLOC
View Answer
Defects per KLOC is the most common measure for correctness.
18. Line of code(LOC) of the product comes under which type of measures?
Direct measures
Coding
Indirect measures
None of the above
View Answer
Line of code(LOC) of the product comes under Direct measures.
19. How many numbers of maturity levels in CMM are available?
6
5
4
3
View Answer
maturity levels in CMM are available of 5 numbers.
20. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
track potential risk
help in assessment of status of ongoing project.
both 1 and 2
none of the mentioned
View Answer
both 1 and 2
21. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?
Effort Applied
Efficiency
Effort Applied
All of the mentioned
View Answer
Efficiency is not a direct measure of SE process.
22. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___
number of user inputs
number of lines of code
number of Functions
amount of memory usage
View Answer
In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the number of lines of code.
23. Usability can be measured in terms of:
Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
Net increase in productivity
Intellectual skill to learn the system
All of the mentioned
View Answer
All of the mentioned
Usability can be measured in terms of Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage, Net increase in productivity & Intellectual skill to learn the system.
24. What are attributes of good software?
Software functionality
Software maintainability
Software development
Both Software functionality & maintainability
View Answer
Both Software functionality & maintainability
Exp: Both Software functionality & maintainability are attributes of good software.
25. which of the following is a fundamental of the rad methodology?
Actively involve system users in the analysis, design, and development phases
Focus initially on creating a prototype that looks and acts like the desired system
Accelerate collecting the business requirements through an interactive and iterative construction approach
All of the above
View Answer
All of the above
26. Which Of The Following Is Not A Key Issue Stressed By An Agile Philosophy Of Software Engineering?
The importance of self-organizing teams as well as communication and collaboration between team members and customers.
Recognition that change represents opportunity.
Emphasis on rapid delivery of software that satisfies the customer.
Having a separate testing phase after a build phase.
View Answer
27. A Good Specification Should Be
Unambiguous
Distinctly specified
Functional
All of these
View Answer
All of these
28. Many Causes Of The Software Crisis Can Be Traced To Mythology Based On
Management Myths
Customer Myths
Practitioner Myths
All of the above
View Answer
All of the above
29. Which Of The Following Is Not One Of The Principles Of Agile Software Development Method?
Customer involvement
Embrace change
Incremental delivery
Following the plan
View Answer
Following the plan
30. Which Of The Following Is Not A Software Process Model?
Prototyping
Iterative
TIMEBOXING
GLASSBOXING
View Answer
GLASSBOXING
31. Which One Of The Following Statements Is Incorrect ?
Pareto analysis is a statistical method used for analyzing causes, and is one of the primary tools for quality management.
Reliability of a software specifies the probability of failure-free operation of that software for a given time duration.
The reliability of a system can also be specified as the Mean Time To Failure (MTTF).
In white-box testing, the test cases are decided from the specifications or the requirements.
View Answer
In white-box testing, the test cases are decided from the specifications or the requirements.
32. What Is True About UML Stereotypes ?
Stereotype is used for extending the UML language
Stereotyped class must be abstract
The stereotype indicates that the UML element cannot be changed
UML profiles can be stereotyped for backward compatibility
View Answer
UML profiles can be stereotyped for backward compatibility
33. Which Of The Following Is Not One Of Three Software Product Aspects Addressed By McCall's Software Quality Factors?
Ability to undergo change
Adaptability to new environments
Operational characteristics
Production costs and scheduling
View Answer
Production costs and scheduling
Q.34. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
100-200
200-400
400-1000
above 1000
Answer:- (1)
Q.35. RAD stands for
Relative Application Development
Rapid Application Development
Rapid Application Document
None of the mentioned
Answer:- (3)
Q.36 Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?
Software dependence
Software development
Software validation
Software specification
Answer:- (1)
Q.37. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?
Heterogeneity
Flexibility
Business and social change
Security
Answer:- (2)
Q.38. RAD Model has
a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
Answer:- (3)
Q.39. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
Waterfall Model
Prototyping Model
RAD Model
both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Answer:- (3)
Q.40. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
Linear Model & RAD Model
Linear Model & Prototyping Model
Waterfall Model & RAD Model
Answer:- (3)
Q.41. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
Customer can respond to each increment
Easier to test and debug
It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
Answer:- (4)
Q.42. The spiral model was originally proposed by
IBM
Barry Boehm
Pressman
Royce
Answer:- (2)
Q.43. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________
diagonal, angular
radial, perpendicular
radial, angular
diagonal, perpendicular
Answer:- (3)
Q.44. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?
Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
All of the mentioned
Answer:- (1)
Q.45. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select?
Waterfall
Spiral
RAD
Incremental
Answer:- (3)
Q.46. RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________
Rational Unified Program, IBM
Rational Unified Process, Infosys
Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
Rational Unified Process, IBM
Answer:- (4)
Q.47. Agile Software Development is based on
Incremental Development
Iterative Development
Linear Development
Both Incremental and Iterative Development
Answer:- (4)
Q.48. How many phases are there in Scrum ?
Two
Three
Four
Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases
Answer:- (2)
Q.49. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
True
False
Answer:- (1)
Q.50. Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release once every month.
True
False
Answer:- (2)
Q.51. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every _______ weeks.
One
Two
Three
Four
Answer:- (2)
Q.52. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
analysis, design, coding, testing
planning, analysis, design, coding
planning, design, coding, testing
planning, analysis, coding, testing
Answer:- (3)
Q.53. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented.
True
False
Answer:- (1)
Q.54.Efficiency in a software product does not include ____________________?
A. responsiveness B. licensing C. memory utilization D. processing time
Q.55.Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below ?
A. Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system B. Refusing to undertake a project C. Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management D. All of the mentioned
Q.56.In terms of Issues related to professional responsibility____________________?
A. Confidentiality B. Intellectual property rights C. Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights D. Managing Client Relationships
Q.57.Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should:
A. not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.” B. not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.” C. be dependent on their colleagues.” D. maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”
Q.58.Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software Engineering Code of Ethics and Professional Practice ?
A. PUBLIC B. PROFESSION C. PRODUCT D. ENVIRONMENT
Q.59.What are attributes of good software ?
A. Software maintainability B. Software functionality C. Software development D. Software maintainability & functionality
Q.53.Which of these is true ?
A. Generic products and customized products are types of software products B. Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market C. Customized products are commissioned by particular customer D. All of the mentioned
Q.60.What is a Software ____________________ ?
A. Software is set of programs B. Software is documentation and configuration of data C. Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data D. None of the mentioned
Q.61.Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s Computer here the term misuse refers to ___________________?
A. Unauthorized access to computer material B. Unauthorized modification of computer material C. Dissemination of viruses or other malware D. All of the mentioned
Q.62.Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
A. The product should be easy to use B. Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional standards possible C. Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client D. It means that the product designed /created should be easily available
1) What is the first step in the software development lifecycle? System Design Coding System Testing Preliminary Investigation and Analysis Answer: d) Preliminary Investigation and Analysis
Explanation: The first phase of the software development life cycle is the requirement analysis, in which the software engineer analyzes the software requirement based on the user's outlook.
2) What does the study of an existing system refer to? Details of DFD Feasibility Study System Analysis System Planning Answer: c) System Analysis
Explanation: The study of an existing system refers to system analyss.
3) Which of the following is involved in the system planning and designing phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)? Sizing Parallel run Specification freeze All of the above Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: None.
4) What does RAD stand for? Rapid Application Document Rapid Application Development Relative Application Development None of the above Answer: b) Rapid Application Development
Explanation: RAD stands for Rapid Application Development is categorized as an agile development method, which is meant to accomplish a quick turnaround and high-end outcomes.
5) Which of the following prototypes does not associated with Prototyping Model? Domain Prototype Vertical Prototype Horizontal Prototype Diagonal Prototype Answer: d) Diagonal Prototype
Explanation: There is nothing as such called Diagonal Prototype; however, the rest other options do make sense.
6) The major drawback of RAD model is __________. It requires highly skilled developers/designers. It necessitates customer feedbacks. It increases the component reusability. Both (a) & (c) Answer: d) Both (a) & (c)
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision, which may result in a team over or under-develop functionality. Besides, it is not easy to hire highly specialized & skilled developers/designers.
7) Which of the following does not relate to Evolutionary Process Model? Incremental Model Concurrent Development Model WINWIN Spiral Model All of the above Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: The evolutionary process model is designed for rapid software development, which starts from scratch with raw specifications and modifies as per the user requirement.
8) What is the major drawback of the Spiral Model? Higher amount of risk analysis Doesn't work well for smaller projects Additional functionalities are added later on Strong approval and documentation control Answer: b) Doesn't work well for smaller projects
Explanation: A spiral model is an incremental approach, which is formed as a combination of the waterfall model and prototyping model. The major drawbacks of the Spiral model are as follows: Expensive Doesn't work well for smaller projects Risk analysis requires highly skilled experts.
9) Model selection is based on __________. Requirements Development team & users Project type & associated risk All of the above Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Model selection is based on requirements, a team of developers, users as well as the risk involved in developing a project.
10) Which of the following option is correct? The prototyping model facilitates the reusability of components. RAD Model facilitates reusability of components Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components None
Answer: c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
Explanation: None.
11) Which of the following models doesn't necessitate defining requirements at the earliest in the lifecycle? RAD & Waterfall Prototyping & Waterfall Spiral & Prototyping Spiral & RAD Answer: c) Spiral & Prototyping
Explanation: In the Prototyping model, the first phase is the requirement analysis phase, which involves Brainstorming, QFD, and FAST, whereas the Spiral model encompasses customer communication activities such as defining objectives.
12) When the user participation isn't involved, which of the following models will not result in the desired output? Prototyping & Waterfall Prototyping & RAD Prototyping & Spiral RAD & Spiral Answer: b) Prototyping & RAD
Explanation: The Prototyping model necessitates user participation as when a prototype is created or designed, whereas, in the case of RAD, user participation is required in all four phases. 13) Which of the following model will be preferred by a company that is planning to deploy an advanced version of the existing software in the market? Spiral Iterative Enhancement RAD Both (b) and (c) Answer: d) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation: None.
14) Arrange the following activities for making a software product by utilizing 4GT. I. Design strategy II. Transformation into product III. Implementation IV. Requirement gathering 4, 1, 3, 2 4, 3, 2, 1 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 4, 2, 3 Answer: a) 4, 1, 3, 2
Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned in option c represents the Fourth Generation Techniques(4GT) Model.
15) Which of the following is an example of Black Box and Functional Processing? First Generation Language Second Generation Language Third Generation Language Fourth Generation Language Answer: d) Fourth Generation Language
Explanation: Functional processing or testing is commonly known as black-box testing, where the existing contents are almost unknown, so anything could be demonstrated as a black box. Hence the functionality of a black box can be defined in terms of inputs and outputs.
16) __________ is identified as fourth generation language. Unix shell C++ COBOL FORTRAN Answer: a) Unix shell
Explanation: Fourth-generation language is an advancement of third-generation programming language.
17) The productivity of a software engineer can be reduced by using a 4GT. True False Answer: b) False
Explanation: The fourth-generation programming languages are more programmer-friendly and helpful in augmenting the program's efficiency as it uses English words and phrases. It increases the programmer's productivity by enabling them to engage in the software development life cycle.
18) Which of the following is the main advantage of deploying a 4GT model for producing small-scale products, programs, and applications? The productivity of software engineers is improved. The time required for developing software is reduced. CASE tools and code generators help the 4GT model by providing a credible solution to their problems. None of the above. Answer: b) Time required for developing software is reduced. Explanation: Since automated coding is done using CASE tools & code generators, proponents claim a dramatic reduction in software development time.
19) Which of the following model has a major downfall to a software development life cycle in terms of the coding phase? 4GT Model Waterfall Model RAD Model Spiral Model Answer: a) 4GT Model Explanation: Much more expertise is needed in the 4GT model for analyzing, designing, and testing activities as it eliminates the coding phase.
20) Which of the following falls under the category of software products? Firmware, CAD Embedded, CAM Customized, Generic CAD, Embedded Answer: c) Customized, Generic Explanation: Customized and Generic are two kinds of software products.
21) Software maintenance costs are expensive in contrast to software development. True False Answer: a) True Explanation: For systems with long life, software maintenance cost is higher than that of the software development cost.
22) Which of the following activities of the generic process framework delivers a feedback report? Deployment Planning Modeling Construction Answer: a) Deployment Explanation: The deployment phase is the last phase of the software development life cycle in which the software product is delivered to its end-user, who further assesses its performance and revert back with the feedback if anything is required or missing as per the formulated evaluation.
23) Which of the following refers to internal software equality? Scalability Reusability Reliability Usability Answer: b) Reusability Explanation: None.
24) RUP is abbreviated as __________, invented by a division of __________. Rational Unified Process, IBM Rational Unified Program, IBM Rational Unified Process, Infosys Rational Unified Program, Infosys Answer: a) Rational Unified Process, IBM Explanation: None.
25) The RUP can be defined based on three main perspectives, i.e., static, dynamic & practice. What is the purpose of static perspective? It recommends some good practices that be included while carrying out the process. It displays all the enacted process activities. It portrays the phases that the model has entered over a specific time. All of the above.
Answer: b) It displays all the enacted process activities. Explanation: None.
26) Which one of the following activities is not recommended for software processes in software engineering? Software Evolution Software Verification Software Testing & Validation Software designing
Answer: b) Software Verification Explanation: Software verification is mainly considered for implementing and testing activities.
27) Arrange the following activities to form a general software engineering process model. I. Manufacture II. Maintain III. Test IV. Install V. Design VI. Specification 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5 6, 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 1, 6, 5, 2, 3, 4
Answer: a) 6, 5, 1, 3, 4, 2 Explanation: None.
28) The agile software development model is built based on __________. Linear Development Incremental Development Iterative Development Both Incremental and Iterative Development
Answer: d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development Explanation: In agile software development, the software is usually developed in increments with the customer specifying necessary requirements in each increment. Here the main aim of a developer is to meet customer satisfaction at the earliest by providing a valuable software product. It is known as iterative because it chooses to work on one particular increment and make the improvement in other iteration.
29) On what basis is plan-driven development different from that of the software development process? Based on the iterations that occurred within the activities. Based on the output, which is derived after negotiating in the software development process. Based on the interleaved specification, design, testing, and implementation activities. All of the above
30) Which of the following activities is not applicable to agile software development? Producing only the essential work products. Utilizing the strategy of incremental product delivery. Abolishing the project planning and testing. All of the above
Answer: c) Abolishing the project planning and testing. Explanation: Testing can never be avoided as it plays a significant role in the software development life cycle. 31) Which of the following framework activities are carried out in Adaptive Software Development (ASD)? Assumption, Association, Learning The investigation, Strategy, Coding Requirements gathering, Adaptive cycle planning, Iterative development All of the above
Answer: a) Assumption, Association, Learning Explanation: An Adaptive Software Development approach is an empirical process control model, which is based on observations. It continuously adjusts the design of the solution and the process involved to create the solution based on observation throughout the project.
32) The __________ model helps in representing the system's dynamic behavior. Object Model Context Model Behavioral Model Data Model
Answer: c) Behavioral Model Explanation: To represent the system's dynamic behavior, Behavioral models are used. The behavioral model is modeled from the perspective of the system's processed data or the events that stimulate responses from a system.
33) Model-driven engineering is nothing but a theoretical concept. It can never be transmuted into a working/executable code. True False
Answer: b) False
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is a software development approach that represents the system as a set model, which can be easily altered into an executable code.
34) The __________ and __________ are the two major dimensions encompassed in the Spiral model. Diagonal, Perpendicular Perpendicular, Radial Angular, diagonal Radial, Angular
Answer: d) Radial, Angular Explanation: The cumulative cost is represented by the radial dimension, whereas the angular dimension represents the progress made in the completion of each consecutive cycle. Each loop in the spiral model depicts the phase.
35) Which of the following technique is involved in certifying the sustained development of legacy systems? Reengineering Forward engineering Reverse engineering Reverse engineering and Reengineering
Answer: d) Reverse engineering and Reengineering Explanation: The process involved in certifying the sustained development of legacy systems relies on Reverse engineering and Reengineering.
36) An erroneous system state that results in an unexpected system behavior is acknowledged as?
System failure Human error or mistake System error System fault
Answer: c) System error Explanation: None.
37) What is the name of the approach that follows step-by-step instructions for solving a problem? An Algorithm A Plan A List Sequential Structure
Answer: a) An Algorithm Explanation: An algorithm is a precise step-by-step technique that takes an input instance (of the given problem) as input(s) and produces output for the problem instance.
38) Which of the following word correctly summarized the importance of software design? Quality Complexity Efficiency Accuracy
Answer: a) Quality Explanation: The quality of a functional software functional depicts how well it can conform with or adapts to a given design based on functional requirements or specifications.
39) Which of the following methodology results in SA/SD features? GANE and SARSON methodology DeMarco and Yourdon methodology Constantine and Yourdon methodology All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above Explanation: None.
40) __________ is not considered as an activity of Structured Analysis (SA). Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model Functional decomposition All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure Explanation: The module structure depicts the architecture of the software. 41) What does a directed arc or line signify? Data Flow Data Process Data Stores None of the above
Answer: a) Data Flow Explanation: In the business information system, the data flow diagram is used to epitomize the flow of the data. 42) What does a data store symbol in the Data Flow Diagram signify? Logical File Physical File Data Structure All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above Explanation: A logical file can be a data structure or physical file on the disk or vice versa. 43) __________ is not a direct measure of SE process. Effort Cost Efficiency All of the above
Answer: c) Efficiency Explanation: Efficiency can never be measured as it is an indirect measure of the SE process. 44) What is the main task of project indicators? To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks. To evaluate the ongoing project's status. To track potential risks. None of the above
Answer: a) To evaluate the ongoing project's status and track possible risks. Explanation: None. 45) What is the main intent of project metrics? For strategic purposes To minimize the development schedule. To evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis
Answer: d) To minimize the development schedule and evaluate the ongoing project's quality on a daily basis Explanation: A project metric refers to a quantifiable measure of the degree to which a system, component, or process owns a certain trait. 46) Name the graphical practice that depicts the meaningful changes that occurred in metrics data. Function point analysis Control Chart DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency) None of the above
Answer: c) Control Chart Explanation: A control chart is a method used to keep track of the variability of traits of interest. 47) Which parameters are essentially used while computing the software development cost? Hardware and Software Costs Effort Costs Travel and Training Costs All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above Explanation: Estimation cost works out on assessing the amount of effort required to complete each activity, followed by calculating the total cost of activities. 48) Which of the following is an incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system? Change management System management Internship management Version management
Answer: c) Internship management Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record, and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.
49) The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all-important software functions, which is known as Planning process Decomposition Association All of the mentioned
Answer: b) Decomposition Explanation: None. 50) Which of the following Is not considered as an option for achieving reliable cost and effort estimation? The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates. Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
Answer: a) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars Explanation: None.
51) Which of the following does not complement the decomposition techniques but offers a potential estimation approach for their impersonal growth? Empirical estimation models Decomposition techniques Automated estimation tools Both empirical estimation models and automated estimation tools
Answer: a) Empirical estimation models Explanation: In computer software, the estimation model uses empirically derived formulas for guessing the effort as a function of LOC or FP.
52) Which of the following is not included in the total effort cost? Costs of lunch time food Costs of support staff Costs of networking and communications Costs of air conditioning and lighting in the office space
Answer: a) Costs of lunch time food Explanation: Employees incur it in the office.
53) What is developed by utilizing the historical cost function? Parkinson's Law Expert judgment Algorithmic cost modeling Estimation by analogy
Answer: c) Algorithmic cost modeling Explanation: The algorithmic cost modeling utilizes the basic regression formula with such parameters that have been derived from the data of a historical project and current as well as characteristics of a future project.
54) Which of the following model has a misconception that systems are built by utilizing reusable components, scripts, and database programs? The reuse model An early designed model An application-composition model A post architecture model
Answer: c) An application-composition model Explanation: An application-composition model evaluates the development of a prototype.
55) Which of the following is used to predict the effort as a function of LOC or FP? COCOMO FP-based estimation Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation Process-based estimation
Answer: c) Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation Explanation: Both COCOMO and FP-based estimation is used to calculate the effort by utilizing the empirically derived formulas.
56) Once the requirements are stabilized, the basic architecture of the software can be established. Which of the following version of the COCOMO model conforms to the given statement? Application composition model Post-architecture-stage model Early design stage model All of the above
Answer: a) Application composition model Explanation: None.
57) Which of the following threatens the quality and timeliness of the produced software? Business risks Potential risks Technical risks Known risks
Answer: c) Technical risks Explanation: Technical risks detect the possible design, enactment, interface, authentication, and preservation problems.
58) Which of the following refers to the systematic attempt, which is implemented to ascertain the threats to any project plan? Performance risk Risk identification Risk projection Support risk
Answer: c) Risk projection Explanation: Once the risks are identified, the project manager takes his first step to avoid them when required and control them. 59) Which of the following standards is used by the aviation industry? CTRADO-172B RTCADO-178B RTRADO-178B CTCADO-178B
Answer: b) RTCADO-178B Explanation: RTCADO-178B is the most popular aviation standard, which has been altered to a DEFACTO standard. 60) Third-Party Certification for software standards is based on __________. U1 1996, Second Edition U1 1998, Second Edition U1 1992, Second Edition UT 1998, Second Edition
Answer: b) U1 1998, Second Edition Explanation: None.
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C LANGUAGE - OVERVIEW Advertisements C is a general-purpose, high-level language that was originally developed by Dennis M. Ritchie to develop the UNIX operating system at Bell Labs. C was originally first implemented on the DEC PDP-11 computer in 1972. In 1978, Brian Kernighan and Dennis Ritchie produced the first publicly available description of C, now known as the K&R standard. The UNIX operating system, the C compiler, and essentially all UNIX application programs have been written in C. C has now become a widely used professional language for various reasons − Easy to learn Structured language It produces efficient programs It can handle low-level activities It can be compiled on a variety of computer platforms Facts about C C was invented to write an operating system called UNIX. C is a successor of B language which was introduced around the early 1970s. The language was formalized in 1988 by the American National Standard Institute A N S I A N S ...
It looks like you meant "environment." The environment refers to the surroundings or conditions in which a person, animal, or plant lives or operates. It encompasses various elements, including natural resources, ecosystems, climate, and human-made structures. Protecting and preserving the environment is crucial for the well-being of all living organisms on Earth. Is there anything specific you'd like to discuss or learn about regarding the environment?
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