Software engineering MCQ Numerical part-2
1. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues related to professional responsibility
a) Confidentiality
b) Intellectual property rights
c) Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights
d) Managing Client Relationships
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Engineers should normally respect the confidentiality of their employers or clients irrespective
of whether or not a formal confidentiality agreement has been signed.
They should be aware of local laws governing the use of intellectual property such as patents, copyright, etc.
2. “Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.
”Here the term misuse refers to:
a) Unauthorized access to computer material
b) Unauthorized modification of computer material
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the ACM/IEEE Code
of Ethics ?
a) The product should be easy to use
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest professional
standards possible
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications satisfy the client
d) It means that the product designed /created should be easily available
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below:
a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system
b) Refusing to undertake a project
c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior management
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Identify the correct statement: “Software engineers shall
a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his expertise and favor.”
b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a manner that is in the best interests of their client and
employer consistent with the public interest and shall ensure that their products and related modifications
meet the highest professional standards possible. Thus options a & c are ruled out.
6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software engineers should
a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your competence.”
b) not use your technical skills to misuse other people’s computers.”
c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) maintain integrity and independence in their professional judgment.”
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Efficiency in a software product does not include ________
a) responsiveness
b) licensing
c) memory utilization
d) processing time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Licensing of a software product comes under corporate part of the software company.
8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun their cost
estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts". What is the reason for
these statistics ?
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding
c) Management issues in the company
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject, hence option a covers them both.
9. The reason for software bugs and failures is due to
a) Software companies
b) Software Developers
c) Both Software companies and Developers
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software companies are responsible for making policies and providing working atmosphere for the
software development, so in turn these companies become a part of software development process. Bugs from
developers side is no new thing. Thus option c answers the question.
10. Company has latest computers and state-of the- art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry about the quality
of the product.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one of the several factors that determine the quality of the product.
11. Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software Engineering Code of Ethics and
Professional Practice ?
a) PUBLIC
b) PROFESSION
c) PRODUCT
d) ENVIRONMENT
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rest all are clauses for software ethics, environment does not focus on specific clause nor its of
importance related to question.
12. What is a Software ?
a) Software is set of programs
b) Software is documentation and configuration of data
c) Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software is not just set of program but it is also associated documentation and configuration of
data to make program run.
13. Which of these does not account for software failure ?
a) Increasing Demand
b) Low expectation
c) Increasing Supply
d) Less reliable and expensive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to more production and not failure.
14. What are attributes of good software ?
a) Software maintainability
b) Software functionality
c) Software development
d) Software maintainability & functionality
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Good software should deliver the required functionality, maintainability. Software development is
not an attribute but a fundamental.
15. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?
a) Software dependence
b) Software development
c) Software validation
d) Software specification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Software dependence is an attribute and not an engineering activity for process.
16. Which of these is incorrect ?
a) Software engineering belongs to Computer science
b) Software engineering is a part of more general form of System Engineering
c) Computer science belongs to Software engineering
d) Software engineering is concerned with the practicalities of developing and delivering useful software
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software engineering is a vast sub domain which comes under computer science which is main
domain.
17. Which of these is true ?
a) Generic products and customized products are types of software products
b) Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market
c) Customized products are commissioned by particular customer
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All of them are true.
18. Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole?
a) Heterogeneity
b) Flexibility
c) Business and social change
d) Security
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them
both.
19. The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?
a) Software processes
b) Software Security
c) Software reuse
d) Software Validation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Software validation is an activity for software process and not the fundamental for
engineering.
20. Which of these is not true ?
a) Web has led to availability of software services and possibility of developing highly distributed
service
based systems
b) Web based systems have led to degradation of programming languages
c) Web brings concept of software as service
d) Web based system should be developed and delivered incrementally
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Web based systems has led to important advances in programming languages.
21. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
a) 100-200
b) 200-400
c) 400-1000
d) above 1000
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for small projects & programming exercises of 100 or 200 lines.
22. RAD stands for
a) Relative Application Development
b) Rapid Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
23. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Build & Fix Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Waterfall Model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.
24. Which is not one of the types of prototype of Prototyping Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype
b) Vertical Prototype
c) Diagonal Prototype
d) Domain Prototype
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Their is no such thing as Diagonal Prototype whereas other options have their respective
definitions.
25. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a working model of a system.
26. Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) It scales up well to large projects
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for 100-200 LOC
27. RAD Model has
a) 2 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases
d) 6 phases
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases namely: Business modeling, Data modeling, Process
modeling, Application generation and Testing & Turnover.
28. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
b) Increases reusability of components
c) Encourages customer/client feedback
d) Increases reusability of components, Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic product vision leading a team to over or under-develop
functionality. Also, the specialized & skilled developers are not easily available.
29. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
30. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
31. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Incremental Model
c) Concurrent Development Model
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
32. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software and particularly
when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system.
33. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
a) Customer can respond to each increment
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Incremental Model is generally easier to test and debug than other methods of software
development because relatively smaller changes are made during each iteration and is popular particularly
when we have to quickly deliver a limited functionality system. However, option “a” can be seen in other
models as well like RAD model, hence option “d” answers the question.
34. The spiral model was originally proposed by
a) IBM
b) Barry Boehm
c) Pressman
d) Royce
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
35. The spiral model has two dimensions namely _____________ and ____________
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The radial dimension of the model represents the cumulative costs and the angular
dimension represents the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral from
X-axis clockwise through 360o represents one phase.
36. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from Spiral Model?
a) It defines tasks required to define resources, timelines, and other project related information
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at the beginning of each pass around the spiral
c) It defines tasks required to assess both technical and management risks
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, and provide user support
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Except option “b” all other tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as well.
37. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.
a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All other options are the advantages of Spiral Model.
38. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
39. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?
a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
40. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When applied to client/server applications, the concurrent process model
defines activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension.
Thus Concurrency is achieved by system and component activities occurring simultaneously
and can be modeled using the state-oriented approach.
41. Selection of a model is based on
a) Requirements
b) Development team & Users
c) Project type and associated risk
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Each model has to have some requirements, a team of developers, users and the rips
k involved in developing a project.
42. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Prototyping Model starts with a requirements analysis phase including techniques like FAST, QFD,
Brainstorming. In
case of Spiral model the first phase involves activities related to customer communication like determining objectives.
43. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience on similar projects?
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall
c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Relying on risk assessment/analysis provides more flexibility than required for many applications which
overcomes the criteria of less experienced developers.
44. If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a project/product within a stipulated
time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you select?
a) Waterfall
b) Spiral
c) RAD
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: RAD model is inapplicable to develop cheaper products/software/projects as the cost of modeling,
hiring highly skilled developers/designers and automated code generation is very high.
But here the cost is not an issue, so one can select this model as it reduces development time.
45. Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user’s participation is not involved?
a) Waterfall & Spiral
b) RAD & Spiral
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Active Participation of user is involved in all the four phases of RAD model and in case of the Prototyping
model we need user’s presence/involvement every time a new prototype is build or designed.
46. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the market, what model approach
would they prefer ?
a) RAD
b) Iterative Enhancement
c) Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement
d) Spiral
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
47. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project development schedule is tight.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the sequential flow and iterations in this model are handled indirectly.
This changes can cause confusion as the project proceeds thereby delaying the delivery date.
48. Choose the correct option from given below:
a) Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
b) RAD Model Model facilitates reusability of components
c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates reusability of components
d) None
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
49. Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
50. RAD Model has high reliability requirements.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
51. Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below.
a) FORTRAN
b) COBOL
c) Unix shell
d) C++
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rest all are third generation languages(3GL).
52. Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT.
i. Design strategy
ii. Transformation into product
iii. Implementation
iv. Requirement gathering
a) 1, 4, 3, 2
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 1, 3, 2
d) 1, 3, 4, 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned in option c represents the Fourth Generation Techniques(4GT)Model.
53. 4GL is an example of ______________ processing.
a) White Box
b) Black Box
c) Functional
d) Both Black Box & Functional
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Functional processing/testing is also referred to as black box testing in which contents of the black box are not known. Almost anything might be referred to as a black box: an algorithm or the human mind. Functionality of the black box is understood in terms of its inputs and outputs.
54. The 4GT Model is a package of ______________
a) CASE Tools
b) Software tools
c) Software Programs
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 4GT encompasses a broad array of software tools enabling the software engineer to specify the characteristics at a high level leading to an automatically generated source code based on these specifications.
55. Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL? One originating ______________
a) on Lisp machine
b) on report generators
c) from database query languages
d) from GUI creators
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fifth-generation programming language are built on LISP.
56. In 4GT, we can specify the user requirements in graphic notation or small abbreviated language form.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
57. Productivity of software engineers is reduced in using a 4GT.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: 4GLs are more programmer-friendly and enhance programming efficiency with usage of English-like words and
phrases, thereby increasing the productivity of professionals able to engage in software development.
58. Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as the standard language for
managing structured data?
a) SQL
b) PROLOG
c) C
d) JAVA
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: C & JAVA are third generation languages(3GLs) whereas PROLOG is a 5GL.
59. What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small scale products,
applications or programs ?
a) Improved productivity of software engineers
b) Reduction in software development time
c) 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators offers a credible solution to many software problems
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since automated coding is done using CASE tools & code generators proponents claim a dramatic reduction in
software development time.
60. Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a software life cycle model ?
a) Spiral Model
b) Waterfall Model
c) Rad Model
d) 4GT Model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since coding phase is eliminated in 4GT Model, more expertise is required for analysis, design and testing
activities.
61. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
a) Productivity
b) Portability
c) Timeliness
d) Visibility
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Portability is a software product quality which means software can run on different hardware platforms or software environments.
62. _____________&_____________ are two kinds of software products.
a) CAD, CAM
b) Firmware, Embedded
c) Generic, Customized
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: rest all are sub categories/applications of option c.
63. Software costs more to maintain than it does to develop.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For systems with a long life, maintenance costs may be several times development costs.
64. Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product?
a) keypad control of a security system
b) pattern recognition game playing
c) digital function of dashboard display in a car
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern recognition uses Artificial Intelligence (AI) software.
65. Purpose of process is to deliver software
a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
c) that is cost efficient
d) both in time & with acceptable quality
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cost of a software is a management issue & is not related to process activities.
66. The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic phases, regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the__________ phase which focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses on how and the_________ phase which focuses on change.
i. support
ii. development
iii. definition
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 1, 3
c) 3, 2, 1
d) 3, 1, 2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
67. Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report?
a) Communication
b) Planning
c) Modeling & Construction
d) Deployment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In Deployment the product is delivered to the customer who evaluates the product and provides feedback based on the evaluation.
68. Process adopted for one project is same as the process adopted from another project.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: the overall flow of activities,
69. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Reusability management
b) Risk management
c) Measurement
d) User Reviews
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
70. Four types of change are encountered during the support phase.Which one of the following is not one that falls into such category?
a) Translation
b) Correction
c) Adaptation
d) Prevention
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Translation is done in the development phase.
71. If a software production gets behind schedule, one can add more programmers and catch up.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As new people are added, people who were working must spend time educating the newcomers, thereby reducing the amount of time spent on productive development effort.
72. Choose an internal software quality from given below:
a) scalability
b) usability
c) reusability
d) reliability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: rest all are external qualities which are visible to the user.
73. RUP stands for____________ created by a division of ____________
a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
74. The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice. What does static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted
b) It suggests good practices to be used during the process
c) It shows the phases of the model over time
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
75. The only deliverable work product for a successful project is the working program.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A working program is only one part of a software configuration that includes many elements. Documentation provides a foundation for successful engineering and, more important, guidance for software support.
76. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ?
a) Transition
b) Elaboration
c) Construction
d) Inception
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
77. Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software engineering ?
a) Software Verification
b) Software Validation
c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Software Verification is accounted for in implementation & testing activity.
78. A general statement of objectives is the major cause of failed software efforts.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A formal and detailed description of the information domain, function, behavior, performance, interfaces, design constraints and validation criteria is essential which can be determined only after thorough communication between customer and developer.
79. The longer a fault exists in software
a) the more tedious its removal becomes
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
80. Component-based Software Engineering allows faster delivery.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to using previously tested components they produce more reliable system at a faster rate.
81. Arrange the following steps to form a basic/general Engineering Process Model.
i. Test
ii. Design
iii. Install
iv. Specification
v. Manufacture
vi. Maintain
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
81. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-d
Explanation: None.
82. Agile Software Development is based on
a) Incremental Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Both Incremental and Iterative Development
View Answer
Answer-d
Explanation: The software is developed in increments with the customer specifying the requirements to be included in each increment and the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software. They are iterative because they work on one iteration followed by improvements in next iteration
83. Which on of the following is not an agile method?
a) XP
b) 4GT
c) AUP
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-b
Explanation: The 4GT approach does not incorporate iteration and the continuous feedback, which is the fundamental aspect of an agile method.
84. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team to respond rapidly to a change.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer's-b
Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to reduce overheads in the software process and to be able to respond quickly to changing requirements without excessive rework.
85. How is plan driven development different from agile development ?
a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software development process
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-c
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to software engineering is based around separate development stages with the outputs to be produced at each of these stages planned in advance.
86. How many phases are there in Scrum ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases
View Answer
Answer's-b
Explanation: There are three phases in Scrum. The initial phase is an outline planning phase followed by a series of sprint cycles and project closure phase.
87. Agile methods seem to work best when team members have a relatively high skill level.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
88. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-c
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each software development process which can’t be avoided.
89. Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ?
a) analysis, design, coding
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
c) speculation, collaboration, learning
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-c
Explanation: None.
90. In agile development it is more important to build software that meets the customers’ needs today than worry about features that might be needed in the future.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
91. Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release once every month.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Incremental development is supported through small, frequent system releases.
92. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete, it is integrated into the whole system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows a continuous integration approach. After any such integration, all the unit tests in the system must pass.
93. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every _______ weeks.
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP) takes an ‘extreme’ approach to iterative development. New versions may be built several times per day, hence delivering the increment for approval every 2nd week after testing the new version.
94. User requirements are expressed as __________ in Extreme Programming.
a) implementation tasks
b) functionalities
c) scenarios
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: User requirements are expressed as scenarios or user stories. These are written on cards and the development team break them down into implementation tasks. These tasks are the basis of schedule and cost estimates.
95. Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?
a) Yes
b) No
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The role of the customer in the testing process is to help develop acceptance tests for the stories that are to be implemented in the next release of the system. However, people adopting the customer role have limited time available and so cannot work full-time with the development team. They may feel that providing the requirements was enough of a contribution and so may be reluctant to get involved in the testing process.
96. Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions that may occur.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very difficult to write incrementally. For example, in a complex user interface, it is often difficult to write unit tests for the code that implements the ‘display logic’ and workflow between screens.
97. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Automated test harnesses are used to run all component tests each time that a new release is built.
98. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: XP follows Test-first development approach.
99. Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other developers before forwarding that release to customers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair programming which means developers work in pairs, checking each other’s work and providing the support to always do a good job.
100. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
a) analysis, design, coding, testing
b) planning, analysis, design, coding
c) planning, design, coding, testing
d) planning, analysis, coding, testing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four activities, and in the same in order.
101. What are the types of requirements ?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned traits are beneficial for an effective product to be developed.
102. Select the developer-specific requirement ?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Availability is user specific requirement.
103. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation
b) design
c) analysis
d) documentation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement Analysis, Requirement Documentation and Requirement Review are the four crucial process steps of requirement engineering. Design is in itself a different phase of Software Engineering.
104. FAST stands for
a) Functional Application Specification Technique
b) Fast Application Specification Technique
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
105. QFD stands for
a) quality function design
b) quality function development
c) quality function deployment
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
106. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs to interact with the system, be it a person or another (external) system.
107. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software requirements specification (SRS), is a complete description of the behavior of a system to be developed and may include a set of use cases that describe interactions the users will have with the software.
108. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion.
109. Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the right one.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This situation is seen in every field of work as each professional has his/her way of looking onto things & would argue to get his/her point approved.
110. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
c) Managers
d) Users of the software
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Users are always the most important stakeholders. After all, without users or customers,
what’s the point of being in business?.
111. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?
a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All are non-functional requirements representing quality of the system. Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.
112. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?
a) Availability
b) Testability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A developer needs to test his product before launching it into the market.
113. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ?
a) Functional
b) Non-Functional
c) Known Requirement
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.
114. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?
a) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform
b) It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and standardized
c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Option c is termed as reliability and option e refers to efficiency.
115. Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The behavior of functional requirements may be expressed as services, tasks or functions the system is required to perform.
116. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR).
a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality
b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process
c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes
d) Qualitative Approach – Study various relationships between quality goals
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Quantitative Approaches in NFRs are used to find measurable scales for the quality attributes like efficiency, flexibility, integrity, usability etc.
117. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Software Quality Tree [Boehm 1976], Roman [IEEE Computer 1985], Process-Product-External considerations [Somerville 1992], Mc Call’s NFR list and Dimensions of Quality–Components of FURPS+ are the five classification schemes for NFRs.
.
118. According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ?
a) Testability
b) Speed Efficiency
c) Serviceability
d) Install ability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed Efficiency belong to Performance (P) in FURPS+ .
119. Does software wear & tear by decomposition ?
a) Yes
b) No
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike hardware, software is reliable.
120. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?
a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All the traits of option c sync with dependability.
121. Choose the correct statement on how NFRs integrates with Rational Unified Process ?
a) System responds within 4 seconds on average to local user requests and changes in the environment
b) System responds within 4 seconds on average to remote user requests and changes in the environment
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: System response to a local user is 2 seconds on average.
122. What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?
a) Identifying Stakeholder
b) Listing out Requirements
c) Requirements Gathering
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Stakeholders are the one who will invest in and use the product, so its essential to chalk out stakeholders first.
125. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment(QFD) ?
a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b) User, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Normal, Expected, Exciting
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to QFD, Normal, Expected and Exciting requirements maximizes customer satisfaction from the Software Engineering Process.
126. What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view of the system ?
a) Object Oriented Design (by Brooch)
b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)
c) Fusion (by Coleman)
d) Object Modeling Technique (by Rum Baugh)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Use Case captures who does what with the system, for what purpose, without dealing with system internals.
127. What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Ternary
d) Both Primary and Secondary
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A primary actor is one having a goal requiring the assistance of the system whereas, a secondary actor is one from which system needs assistance. There is no such thing as ternary actor in Software Engineering.
128. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?
a) Problem of scope
b) Problem of understanding
c) Problem of volatility
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Users specify unnecessary technical detail that may confuse, rather than clarify overall system objectives. Also, the customers/users are not completely sure of what is needed, have a poor understanding of the capabilities and limitations of their computing environment and they do not understand that the requirements change over time.
129. What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement elicitation ?
a) JAD
b) Traceability
c) FAST
d) Both JAD and Traceability
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Joint application design (JAD) is a process used to collect business requirements while developing new information systems for a company. Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements.
130. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability provides bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements.
131. How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As-is Scenario, Visionary Scenario, Evaluation Scenario and Training Scenario are the four scenarios in requirement elicitation activities.
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