Software engineering MCQ Numerical part-3
1. How is brainstorming different from JAD ? Brainstorming sessions
a) last for about 2-3 hours
b) last for about 2-3 days
c) cover the technology used for the development
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Brainstorming is a group or individual creativity technique by which efforts are made to find a conclusion for a specific problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its member(s).The idea is to quickly reach to an approved solution ASAP.
2. How is throwaway prototype different from evolutionary prototype ?
a) It involves successive steps
b) It involves just one task
c) The prototype is built with the idea that it will eventually be converted into final system
d) It has a shorter development time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Except option b all other options represent the characteristics of an evolutionary prototype.
3. Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which of the following is not an example of an Expected Requirement ?
a) Ease of software installation
b) Overall operational correctness and reliability
c) Specific system functions
d) Quality graphical display
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Expected requirements are so fundamental that a customer does not explicitly state them. System functions comes under the category of Normal requirements in QFD which is compulsory to be defined, hence is not an expected requirement.
4. QFD works best if it has management commitment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: QFD involves heavy investment in initial stages, thus bounding the management to provide appropriate funding for the development process .
5. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques is applicable to messy, changing and ill-defined problem situations ?
a) Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
b) Prototyping
c) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM)
d) Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Soft systems methodology (SSM) is a systemic approach for tackling real-world problematic situations. It is a common misunderstanding that SSM is a methodology for dealing solely with ‘soft problems’ (problems which involve psychological, social, and cultural elements). SSM does not differentiate between ‘soft’ and ‘hard’ problems, it merely provides a different way of dealing with situations perceived as problematic.
6. To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster team proposed several criteria that are summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems Methodology (SSM).Which of the following alphabet is representing an entirely different meaning to SSM ?
a) C – Customer
b) A – Actor
c) T – Transformation
d) E – ER Model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘E’ in CATWOE stands for Environmental constraints.
7. Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an elicitation technique.
a) It incorporates human element into design
b) SSM is in its infant stage
c) SSM is suitable for new systems
d) Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, Issue Resolution and Reorganization support SSM
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: SSM is still in its infancy. It is evolving and its industrial usage is low.
8. How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Preparation, Execution and Follow up are the three phases to be achieved for a successful brainstorming session.
9. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Specification Techniques) meeting ?
a) System Analyst
b) Scribe
c) Facilitator
d) Manager
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A Facilitator (a customer/developer/an outsider) controls the FAST meeting. His role is to ensure that the meeting is productive.
.
1. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Use Cases
b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) State Transition Diagram
d) Activity Diagram
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under the design phase of SDLC.
2. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Economic feasibility (cost/benefit analysis), Technical feasibility (hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal feasibility studies are done in Requirement Analysis.
3. How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Problem Recognition, Evaluation and Synthesis (focus is on what not how), Modeling, Specification and Review are the five phases.
4. Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements, hence requirements must be traceable.
5. Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends upon the size of project
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements must be actionable, measurable, testable, related to identified business needs or opportunities, and defined to a level of detail sufficient for system design.
6. _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.
a) Performance, Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Option a and c are the types of requirements and not the issues of requirement analysis..
7. The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three perspectives or views. What is that perspective or view ?
a) Developer
b) User
c) Non-Functional
d) Physical
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The perspectives or views have been described as the Operational, Functional, and Physical views. All three are necessary and must be coordinated to fully understand the customers’ needs and objectives.
8. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements analysis is conducted iteratively with functional analysis to optimize performance requirements for identified functions, and to verify that synthesized solutions can satisfy customer requirements.
9. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection characteristics that should be used as an analyst considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Retained information, Needed services, Multiple attributes, Common attributes, Common operations and Essential requirements are the six criterion mentioned by Coad and Yourdon.
10. Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not ‘how’.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ‘What’ refers to a system’s purpose, while ‘How’ refers to a system’s structure and behavior.
1. Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ?
a) Verifiable
b) Ambiguous
c) Complete
d) Traceable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS should be unambiguous in nature which means each sentence in SRS should have a unique interpretation.
2. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a standard is maintained” ?
a) Correct
b) Complete
c) Consistent
d) Modifiable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS is complete full labeling and referencing of all figures, tables etc. and definition of all terms and units of measure is defined.
3. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if
a) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while retaining the style and structure
b) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet
c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable
d) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Real world object may conflict with each other for example one requirement says that all lights should be red while the other states that all lights should green.
4. Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?
i. SRS is written by customer
ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true
c) All are true
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS acts as a communication media between the Customer, Analyst, system developers, maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract between Purchaser and Supplier. It is essentially written by a developer on the basis of customer’ need but in some cases it may be written by a customer as well.
5. The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification.
a) black-box
b) white-box
c) grey-box
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The system is considered as a black box whose internal details are not known that is, only its visible external (input/output) behavior is documented.
6. Which of the following is included in SRS ?
a) Cost
b) Design Constraints
c) Staffing
d) Delivery Schedule
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Design constraints include standards to be incorporated in the software, implementation language, resource limits, operating environment etc.
7. Which of the following is not included in SRS ?
a) Performance
b) Functionality
c) Design solutions
d) External Interfaces
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS document concentrates on: "what needs to be done” and carefully avoids the solution (“how to do”) aspects.
9. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 sacs of event X 10% of the time. "What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Verifiable
c) Non-verifiable
d) Correct
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable. Here the given condition can be verified during testing phase.
10. Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file character. "What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and only if, every requirement stated therein has only one unique interpretation. The given statement does not answer the question: “which data set will have an end of file character ?”.
11. Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface. "What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-Verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable. The statement can only be answered on completion of the software and customer evaluation but still human interface will vary from person to person.
12. Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the worst types of specification document as it is difficult to change, difficult to be precise, has scope for contradictions, etc.
1. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Enduring requirements are core requirements & are related to main activity of the organization while volatile requirements are likely to change during software development life cycle or after delivery of the product.
2. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library management. What type of management requirement is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
c) Both Enduring & Volatile
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For library management system issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. are core activities and are stable for any system.
3. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes
a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Systems continue to be built as the advancement of new products being launched in the market and so does the market changes, the technology and in turn customer’s expectation.
4. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality makes no sense without reference to requirements, which means quality-oriented development is requirements-driven development, thus requirements management is a prerequisite for quality-oriented development.
5. Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability refers to the ability to describe and follow the life of a requirement in both forwards and backwards direction. Requirements can be traced from its origins, through its development and specification, to its subsequent deployment and use, and through periods of ongoing refinement and iteration in any of these phases.
6. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements Management needs continued funding throughout a project. Project funding is often limited at the onset of a project, restricted to those aspects of the project which are tangible and visible, and subsequently allocated in a phase-by-phase manner.
7. Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rational Suite is an environment tool for requirement management.
8. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are the activities of requirement management.
9. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: DOORS is one such tool that supports Automatic Link Detection.
10. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fundamental to the problem mentioned in the statistical report is poor requirements management. Option a and c are its sub parts.
1. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software modelling-How many different notations does it have ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The different notations of UML includes the nine UML diagrams namely class, object, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart, component, deployment and use case diagrams.
2. Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behavior of the system ?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Behavioral models are used to describe the dynamic behavior of an executing system. This can be modeled from the perspective of the data processed by the system or by the events that stimulate responses from a system.
3. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
a) Behavioral Model
b) Context Model
c) Data Model
d) Structural Model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Structural models show the organization and architecture of a system. These are used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.
4. Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture.
a) Structural perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Structural perspective is used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.
5. Which system model is being depicted by the ATM operations shown below:
software-engg-mcqs-system-modelling-1-q5
a) Structural model
b) Context model
c) Behavioral model
d) Interaction model
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Context models are used to illustrate the operational context of a system. They show what lies outside the system boundaries.
6. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement mentioned is true and each activity represents one process step.
7. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a working/executable code.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is an approach to software development in which a system is represented as a set of models that can be automatically transformed to executable code.
8. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.
a) Deployment
b) Collaboration
c) State chart
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: State diagrams show system states and events that cause transitions from one state to another.
1. Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling ?
a) Activity
b) Data Flow Diagram (DFD)
c) State Chart
d) Component
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: DFDs focus on system functions and do not recognize system objects.
2. _________________ allows us to infer that different members of classes have some common characteristics.
a) Realization
b) Aggregation
c) Generalization
d) dependency
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Generalization is an everyday technique that we use to manage complexity. This means that common information will be maintained in one place only.
3. One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the system architecture.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Structural models of software display the organization of a system in terms of the components that make up that system and their relationships.
4. ______________ & ______________ diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling.
a) Use Case, Sequence
b) Class, Object
c) Activity, State Chart
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Use case modeling is mostly used to model interactions between a system and external actors. Sequence diagrams are used to model interactions between system components, although external agents may also be included.
5. Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 3
d) Level 4
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Level 1 ERD models all data objects (entities) and their “connections” to one another while Level 3 ERD models all entities, relationships, and the attributes that provide further depth. Thus option b is correct.
6. ___________ classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as the software is used.
a) Controller
b) Entity
c) Boundary
d) Business
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.
7. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator (CRC) modeling ?
a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC modelling
b) The review leader reads the use-case deliberately
c) Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: All participants in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards.
8. A data object can encapsulates processes and operation as well.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A data object encapsulates data only. There is no reference within a data object to operations that act on the data.
1. The two dimensions of spiral model are
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular
c) radial, angular
d) diagonal, perpendicular
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The radial dimension depicts the cumulative costs and the angular dimension depicts the progress made in completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral model represents a phase.
2. The Incremental Model is combination of elements of
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a deliverable “increment” of the software system, particularly needed in case of quick delivery of a limited functionality system..
3. Model preferred to create client/server applications is
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In case of client/server applications, the concurrent process model specifies activities in two dimensions: a system dimension and a component dimension. Hence Concurrency is achieved by these two activities occurring simultaneously and can be modeled using the state-oriented approach.
4. Identify the correct statement with respect to Evolutionary development:
a) Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away prototyping
b) Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary development based approach
c) It facilitates easy project management, through the high volume of documentation it generates
d) Sometimes the construction of a throw-away prototype is not followed by a re- implementation of the software system using a more structured approach
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and
throw-away prototyping.
5. Spiral model was developed by
a) Victor Busily
b) Berry Boehm
c) Bev Littlewoods
d) Roger Pressman
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Berry Boehm in 1986 in his Article “A spiral model of software development and enhancement”.
6. Software evolution does not comprises:
a) Development activities
b) Negotiating with client
c) Maintenance activities
d) Re-engineering activities
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software evolution refers to the study and management of the process of making changes to software over time. Thus it comprises rest three options.
7. Processes for evolving a software product depend on:
a) Type of software to be maintained
b) Development processes used
c) Skills and experience of the people involved
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution depend on all these factors.
8. Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems ?
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution depend rely on these two techniques.
9. Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of_____________
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering
d) Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reengineering is the examination and alteration of a subject system to reconstitute it in a new form and the subsequent implementation of the new form.
10. Reverse engineering is the last activity in a reengineering project.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Reverse engineering is often the initial activity in a reengineering project.
11. The cost of re-engineering is often significantly less than the costs of developing new software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a high risk in new software development. There may be development problems, staffing problems and specification problems, thereby increasing the cost.
1. A sociotechnical system is a system that includes
a) people
b) software
c) hardware
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A sociotechnical system is a system that includes people, software, and hardware to show that you need to take a systems perspective on security and dependability.
2. Which layer is missing in the sociotechnical system stack as shown below:
software-engg-mcqs-sociotechnical-systems-q2
a) organizational layer
b) application layer
c) physical layer
d) transport layer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The application layer This layer delivers the application-specific functionality
that is required.
3. Consider an example of a system which has a police command and control system that may include a geographical information system to provide details of the location of incidents. What kind of system the example represents?
a) Complex System
b) Technical computer-based system
c) Sociotechnical System
d) Both Complex and Sociotechnical System
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Complex systems are usually hierarchical and so include other systems.
4. Which property of a sociotechnical system varies depending on how the component assemblies are arranged and connected?
a) security
b) usability
c) volume
d) reliability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The volume of a system (the total space occupied) varies depending on how the component assemblies are arranged and connected.
5. Which property of a sociotechnical system depends on the technical system components, its operators, and its operating environment?
a) security
b) usability
c) volume
d) reliability
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Usability reflects how easy it is to use the system.
6. In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from perspectives namely:
a) only software reliability
b) only hardware reliability
c) hardware and software reliability
d) hardware, software and operator reliability
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from all three perspectives.
7. There are ________ overlapping stages in the lifetime of large and complex sociotechnical systems.
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stages are Procurement, Development and Operation.
8. Sociotechnical systems are deterministic.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sociotechnical systems are non-deterministic partly because they include people and partly because changes to the hardware, software, and data in these systems are so frequent
9. What are the two ways to view the human error of a sociotechnical system?
a) hardware and software approach
b) management and users approach
c) person and systems approach
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
10. Human and organizational factors such as organizational structure and politics have a significant effect on the operation of sociotechnical systems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As people are a part of the system, hence they affect the sociotechnical system.
1. A characteristic of a software system that can lead to a system error is known as?
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. An erroneous system state that can lead to system behavior that is unexpected by system users is known as?
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
3. An event that occurs at some point in time when the system does not deliver a service as expected by its users is called _____________
a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
c) System error
d) System failure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. A chemical plant system may detect excessive pressure and open a relief valve to reduce these pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of dependability and security issue the example states?
a) Hazard avoidance
b) Damage limitation
c) Hazard detection
d) Hazard detection and removal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The system is designed so that hazards are detected and removed before they result in an accident.
5. An aircraft engine normally includes automatic fire extinguishers. What kind of dependability and security issue the example states?
a) Hazard avoidance
b) Damage limitation
c) Hazard detection
d) Hazard detection and removal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The system may include protection features that minimize the damage that may result from an accident.
6. An assessment of the worst possible damage that could result from a particular hazard is known as
a) Risk
b) Hazard probability
c) Hazard severity
d) Mishap
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hazard severity can range from catastrophic, where many people are killed, to minor, where only minor damage results. When an individual death is a possibility, a reasonable assessment of hazard severity is ‘very high’.
7. which of the following terms is a measure of the probability that the system will cause an accident?
a) Risk
b) Hazard probability
c) Accident
d) Damage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The risk is assessed by considering the hazard probability, the hazard severity, and the probability that the hazard will lead to an accident.
8. A weakness in a computer-based system that may be exploited to cause loss or harm is known as?
a) Vulnerability
b) Attack
c) Threat
d) Exposure
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. A password checking system that disallows user passwords that are proper names or words that are normally included in a dictionary is an example of ___________ with respect to security systems.
a) risk
b) control
c) attack
b) asset
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A control protective measure that reduces a system’s vulnerability.
10. The safety of a system is a system attribute that reflects the system’s ability to operate, normally or abnormally, without injury to people or damage to the environment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. How many stages are there in Risk-driven requirements specification?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These include Risk identification, Risk analysis, Risk reduction and Risk decomposition
2. Consider a case where the system is unavailable and cannot deliver its services to users. What type of failure is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: One may separate this into loss of critical services and loss of non-critical services, where the consequences of a failure in non-critical services are less than the consequences of critical service failure.
3. Consider a case where the failure of the system causes damage to the system itself or it data. What type of failure is being described here?
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery
c) System/data corruption
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. POFOD stands for
a) Possibility of failure of data
b) Probability of failure of data
c) Possibility of failure on demand
d) Probability of failure on demand
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. Which reliability metric sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be observed relative to a certain time period?
a) POFOD
b) ROCOF
c) AVAIL
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Rate of occurrence of failures (ROCOF) sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be observed relative to the number of system executions.
6. Which of the following is not a functional reliability requirement for a system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are correct except option d.
7. To specify security requirements, one should identify the risks that are to be dealt with.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: To specify security requirements, one should identify the assets that are to be dealt with.
8. The aim of preliminary risk analysis and assessment process is to derive security requirements for the system as a whole.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In preliminary risk analysis stage, decisions on the detailed system requirements, the system design, or the implementation technology have not been made.
9. At which stage of risk analysis specification, the additional security requirements take account of the technologies used in building the system and system design and implementation decisions?
a) Preliminary risk analysis
b) Life-cycle risk analysis
c) Operational risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This risk assessment takes place during the system development life cycle after design choices have been made..
10. Which reliability requirements are concerned with maintaining copies of the system?
a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements
d) Ambiguous requirements
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These requirements are geared to helping the system recover after a failure has occurred.
1. Which of the following examples does not involve dependability engineering ?
a) Medical Systems
b) Power Systems
c) Library Management
d) Telecommunications
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software customers expect all software to be dependable. However, for non-critical applications such as certain management systems, they may be willing to accept some system failures.
2. What is the term for development process organized such that faults in the system are detected and repaired before delivery to the customer ?
a) Fault Avoidance
b) Fault detection
c) Fault tolerance
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Fault Avoidance, the system is developed in such a way that human error is avoided and thus system faults are minimized.
3. What is the term for a system that is designed such that the faults in the delivered software do not result in system failure ?
a) Fault Avoidance
b) Fault detection
c) Fault tolerance
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
4. Which process characteristic with respect to Dependability Engineering is mentioned by the statement: “The process should be understandable by people apart from process participants”?
a) Diverse
b) Documentable
c) Auditable
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It means that process standards are being followed and make suggestions for process improvement.
5. Which of the following is not a Protection system ?
a) System to stop a train if it passes a red light
b) System to indicate not returning of the library book
c) System to shut down a reactor if temperature/pressure are too high
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Protection system is a specialized system that is associated with some other control system, which can take emergency action if a failure occurs.
6. The use of a well-defined, repeatable process is essential if faults in a system are to be minimized.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
7. Which of the following is a Strategy to achieve Software diversity ?
a) Different programming languages
b) Different design methods and tools
c) Explicit specification of different algorithms
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Diversity means to provide the same functionality in different ways so that critical components of a dependable system will not fail in the same way.
8. Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault avoidance.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault tolerance.
9. Which of the following is a bad practice of Dependable programming ?
a) Limit the visibility of information in a program
b) Check array bounds
c) Check all inputs for validity
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are good practices to achieve Dependability Engineering.
10. What is a Range check?
a) Check that the input does not exceed some maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a name
b) Check that the input falls within a known range
c) Use information about the input to check if it is reasonable rather than an extreme value
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. Which of the following is a layer of protection for Security ?
a) Platform-level protection
b) Application-level protection
c) Record-level protection
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-d
Explanation: None.
2. Security engineering is only concerned with maintenance of systems such that they can resist malicious attacks.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: Security engineering is concerned with maintenance as well as development of such systems.
3. What are security controls ?
a) Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful
b) Controls that are intended to detect and repel attacks
c) Controls that are intended to support recovery from problems
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-d
Explanation: All the options define a security control property.
4. Controls that are intended to repel attacks is analogous to ____________ in dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: Here the system is designed so that faults in the delivered software do not result in system failure.
5. Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful is analogous to ____________ in dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
b) Fault tolerance
c) Fault detection
d) Fault Recovery
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Fault avoidance the system is developed in such a way that human error is avoided and thus system faults are minimized.
6. What is Life cycle risk assessment ?
a) Risk assessment before the system has been deployed
b) Risk assessment while the system is being developed
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-c
Explanation: None.
7. A system resource that has a value and has to be protected is known as
a) Asset
b) Control
c) Vulnerability
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
8. An impersonation of an authorized user is an example of a security threat.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: It is a security attack.
9. The records of each patient that is receiving or has received treatment resembles which security concept ?
a) Asset
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Control
View Answer
Answer-a
Explanation: Asset is a system resource that has a value and has to be protected.
10. Circumstances that have potential to cause loss or harm is known as
a) Attack
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Control
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
1. Static Analysis involves executing a program.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Static analysis techniques are system verification techniques that don’t involve executing a program.
2. Which of the following is a technique covered in Static Analysis ?
a) Formal verification
b) Model checking
c) Automated program analysis
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. Select the disadvantage of using Formal methods
a) Concurrent systems can be analyzed to discover race conditions that might lead to deadlock
b) Producing a mathematical specification requires a detailed analysis of the requirements
c) They require the use of specialized notations that cannot be understood by domain experts
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Formal methods are the ultimate static verification technique that may be used at different stages in the development process.
4. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Model Checking?
a) Model checking is particularly valuable for verifying concurrent systems
b) Model checking is computationally very inexpensive
c) The model checker explores all possible paths through the model
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Model checking is very expensive. It is only practical to use it in the verification of small to medium sized critical systems.
5. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: "Variables declared but never used”.
a) Control Faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/output Faults
d) Interface faults
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
6. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: “Unreachable code”.
a) Control Faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/output Faults
d) Interface faults
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: ”Non-usage of the results of functions”.
a) Storage management faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/output Faults
d) Interface faults
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. Static analysis is now routinely used in the development of many safety and security critical systems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The static analyzer can discover areas of vulnerability such as buffer overflows or unchecked inputs
9. Which level of Static Analysis allows specific rules that apply to a program to be checked ?
a) Characteristic error checking
b) User-defined error checking
c) Assertion checking
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Users of a programming language define error patterns, thus extending the types of error that can be detected.
10. Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall: "Pointer Arithmetic”.
a) Storage management faults
b) Data Faults
c) Input/Output Faults
d) Interface faults
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
d) Development and Documentation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. Which tool is use for structured designing ?
a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data-flow diagram
d) Module
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software engineering and organizational theory, is a chart which shows the breakdown of a system to its lowest manageable levels.
3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as
a) Sequential structure
b) A List
c) A plan
d) An Algorithm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification
d) design
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Program specification is the definition of what a computer program is expected to do.
5. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The developer has to find in the technical documentation enough information to start coding.
6. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The role of database administrators includes the development and design of database strategies, system monitoring and improving database performance and capacity, and planning for future expansion requirements.
7. ____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will use to perform that task.
a) Project design
b) Installation
c) Systems analysis
d) Programming
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. Debugging is:
a) creating program code
b) finding and correcting errors in the program code
c) identifying the task to be computerized
d) creating the algorithm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, in a computer program or a piece of electronic hardware, thus making it behave as expected.
9. In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create structural and behavioral models of the system which is covered by architecture, data and the interface of the product.
10. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency
b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Software functional quality reflects how well it complies with or conforms to a given design, based on functional requirements or specifications.
11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cohesion of a single module/component is the degree to which its responsibilities form a meaningful unit.
12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Coupling between modules/components is their degree of mutual interdependence.
1. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of__________
a) Functions
b) Modules
c) Classes
d) Sub procedures
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A modular system consist of well defined manageable units with well defined interfaces among the units.
2. Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software modularity?
a) Modules are robust
b) Module can use other modules
c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
d) Modules are mostly dependent
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Modularity cannot bring benefits unless the modules are autonomous or independent.
3. _______________ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules.
a) Cohesion
b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coupling or dependency is the degree to which each program module relies on each one of the other modules.
4. Which of the following is the best type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) Data Coupling
d) Content Coupling
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The dependency between module A and B is said to be data coupled if their dependency is based on the fact they communicate by only passing of data.
5. Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Content coupling occurs when module A changes data of module B or when control is passed from one module to the middle of another.
6. Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?
a) Logical Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Coincidental Cohesion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Coincidental cohesion exists in modules that contain instructions that have little or no relationship to one another.
7. Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Functional Cohesion is a type of cohesion in which the tasks performed by a software module all contribute to the performance of a single function.
8. A software engineer must design the modules with the goal of high cohesion and low coupling.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If the software is not properly modularized, a host of seemingly trivial enhancement or changes will result into death of the project.
9. In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another?
a) Control Coupling
b) Stamp Coupling
c) External Coupling
d) Content Coupling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited?
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion
c) Functional Cohesion
d) Sequential Cohesion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Module exhibits temporal cohesion when it contains tasks that are related by the fact that all tasks must be executed in the same time-span.
1. Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design.
a) It consists of module definitions
b) Modules represent data abstraction
c) Modules support functional abstraction
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: Option b defines an Object Oriented Design.
2. Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ?
a) Object oriented analysis
b) Object oriented design
c) Structured approach
d) Both Object oriented analysis and design
View Answer
Answer-d
Explanation: None.
3. Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements specified in
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer-b
Explanation: None.
4. Structured Analysis is based on the principles of
a) Top-down decomposition approach
b) Divide and conquer principle
c) Graphical representation of results using DFDs
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answere-d
Explanation: None.
5. Which of the following is/are true with respect to functions ?
a) A function such as “search-book” is represented using a circle
b) Functions represent some activity
c) Function symbol is known as a process symbol or a bubble in DFD
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-d
Explanation: All the options are correct with respect to Function Oriented Software Design.
6. Which of the following is not a use of a CASE tool ?
a) Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
b) Maintains the data dictionary
c) Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not
d) It complies with the available system
View Answer
Answer's-d
Explanation: It takes long time to establish the system in order to comply with the available system.
7. What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle?
a) Transform
b) Data Store
c) Function
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer's-b
Explanation: None.
8. Structural decomposition is concerned with function calls.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Structural decomposition is concerned with developing a model of the design which shows the dynamic structure.
9. A function-oriented design focuses on the entities in the system rather than the data processing activities.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer:b
Explanation: It is an object oriented design which focus on entities.
10. In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by
a) Circle
b) Arrow
c) Rectangle
d) Triangle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. SA/SD features are obtained from which of the methodologies?
a) Constantine and Yourdon methodology
b) DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
c) Gene and Sarsen methodology
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following is not an activity of Structured Analysis (SA) ?
a) Functional decomposition
b) Transformation of a textual problem description into a graphic model
c) All the functions represented in the DFD are mapped to a module structure
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The module structure is the software architecture.
3. To arrive at a form which is suitable for implementation in some programming language is the purpose of
a) Structured Analysis (SA)
b) Structured Design (SD)
c) Detailed Design (DD)
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
4. The results of structured analysis can be easily understood by ordinary customers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The results of structured analysis directly represents customer’s perception of the problem and uses customer’s terminology for naming different functions and data.
5. Structured Analysis is based on the principle of Bottom-Up Approach.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Structured Analysis follows uses decomposition approach.
6. The context diagram is also known as
a) Level-0 DFD
b) Level-1 DFD
c) Level-2 DFD
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Context diagram captures the various entities external to the system interacting with it and data flow occurring between the system and the external entities.
7. A directed arc or line in DFD represents
a) Data Store
b) Data Process
c) Data Flow
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: It resembles data flow in the direction of the arrow.
8. A DFD is always accompanied by a data dictionary.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A data dictionary lists all data items appearing in a DFD including definition and data names.
9. Which of the following is a function of CASE Tool?
a) Supporting Structured analysis and design (SA/SD)
b) Maintaining the data dictionary
c) Checking whether DFDs are balanced or not
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a
a) Physical file
b) Data Structure
c) Logical file
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A logical file can be a data structure or a physical file on disk.
1. Choose the incorrect statement in terms of Objects.
a) Objects are abstractions of real-world
b) Objects can’t manage themselves
c) Objects encapsulate state and representation information
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Objects are independent.
2. What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions ?
a) Object
b) Class
c) Super Class
d) Sub Class
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
3. Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in an class hierarchy to have different methods with the same name?
a) Aggregation
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In polymorphism instances of each subclass will be free to respond to messages by calling their own version of the method.
4. Inherited object classes are self-contained.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Inherited object classes are not self-contained. They cannot be understood without reference to their super-classes.
5. Which of the following points related to Object-oriented development (OOD) is true?
a) OOA is concerned with developing an object model of the application domain
b) OOD is concerned with developing an object-oriented system model to implement requirements
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is in support with the OOD.
6. How is generalization implemented in Object Oriented programming languages?
a) Inheritance
b) Polymorphism
c) Encapsulation
d) Abstract Classes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD ?
a) Easier maintenance
b) Objects may be understood as stand-alone entities
c) Objects are potentially reusable components
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options define the characteristics of OOD.
8. Which of the following describes "Is-a-Relationship” ?
a) Aggregation
b) Inheritance
c) Dependency
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. Object that collects data on request rather than autonomously is known as
a) Active Object
b) Passive Object
c) Multiple instance
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A passive object holds data, but does not initiate control.
10. Objects are executed
a) sequentially
b) in Parallel
c) sequentially & Parallel
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Objects may be distributed and may execute sequentially or in parallel.
1. How many layers are present in the OO design pyramid?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) one
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The four layers are: Subsystem layer, class and object layer, message layer and responsibilities layer
2. Which of the following early OOD methods incorporates both a “micro development process” and a “macro development process.” ?
a) Brooch method
b) Rum Baugh method
c) Wires-Brock method
d) Coad and Yourdon method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The macro development process includes the architectural planning and micro developments process defines rules that govern the use of operations and attributes and the domain-specific
policies for memory management, error handling, and other infrastructure
functions.
3. Grady Brooch, James Rum Baugh, and Ivar Jacobson combined the best features of their individual object-oriented analysis into a new method for object oriented design known as
a) HTML
b) XML
c) UML
d) SGML
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become
widely used throughout the industry as the standard approach to OOD.
4. A design description of an object is known as a class
a) instance
b) object
c) case
d) both instance and object
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
5. Which of the following is conceptually similar to objects?
a) PACKAGE
b) PROC
c) PRIVATE
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A package is a namespace that organizes a set of related classes and interfaces.
6. A design description in OOD includes
a) Protocol Description
b) Implementation Description
c) Type Description
d) both Protocol and Implementation Description
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
7. Which of the following is not an operation as per OOD algorithms and data structures?
a) operations that manipulate data in some way
b) operations that perform a computation
c) operations that check for syntax errors
d) operations that monitor an object for the occurrence of a controlling event
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Operations that check for syntax errors is concerned with the programming language used, so it will be handled by the compiler.
8. Throughout the OOD process, a software engineer should look for every opportunity for creating new design process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A software engineer should look for every opportunity to reuse existing design patterns whenever they meet the needs of the design rather than creating new ones.
1. Which of the following is the task of project indicators:
a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project
b) track potential risk
c) help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?
a) Market
b) Product
c) Technology
d) People
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Market is a collection of competitors, stakeholders, users each having different views on the product. So it does not affect the software quality.
3. The intent of project metrics is:
a) minimization of development schedule
b) for strategic purposes
c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
d) minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on ongoing basis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A project metric is a quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component or process possesses an attribute.
4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?
a) Efficiency
b) Cost
c) Effort Applied
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Efficiency is an indirect measure.
5. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?
a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Reliability
d) All of the Mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are indirect measures of a product.
6. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ___________________
a) number of Functions
b) number of user inputs
c) number of lines of code
d) amount of memory usage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA ?
a) Number of user Input
b) Number of user Inquiries
c) Number of external Interfaces
d) Number of errors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: FPA includes five domains namely input, output, inquiries, interface and logical files.
8. Usability can be measured in terms of:
a) Intellectual skill to learn the system
b) Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
c) Net increase in productivity
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as
a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
b) Function points analysis
c) Control Chart
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Others options are formulas.
10. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
a) E – errors found before software delivery
b) D – defects found after delivery to user
c) Both E and D
d) Varies with project
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: DRE = E / (E + d).
1. The user has no control over the contents of a static web page.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Static web pages are just for information purposes.
2. Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?
a) Word Token
b) Word Count
c) Word Size
d) Word Length
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The word count metric gives the total number of words on a web page.
3. How is the complexity of a web page related to link count ?
a) Directly
b) Indirectly
c) No relation
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: If link count is more, complexity will be more.
4. It is expected to have less number of connections for a good web application.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: More the link count, more the complexity and the web page dependence factor will increase.
5. Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about________ for a web page that is to be built.
a) size
b) complexity
c) effort
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between two or more web pages ?
a) Number of Static Content Objects
b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
c) Web Page Similarity
d) Number of Internal Page Links
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page Similarity ?
a) Content based
b) Link based
c) Usage based
d) Traffic based
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Similarity between two web pages is not judged upon its traffic activity.
8. The static content objects are dependent on the actions of the user.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dynamic Objects are user dependent
9. Link based measures rely on ___________ structure of a web graph to obtain related pages.
a) Embedded
b) Hyperlink
c) Dynamic
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Only option b answers the blank, rest are not in accordance to the question.
10. Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?
a) Number of Static Content Objects
b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
c) Number of Inherited Objects
d) Word Count
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There is no such metric as an inherited object’s count.
1. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
a) Interface design metrics
b) Component-level metrics
c) Architectural metrics
d) Complexity metrics
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Complexity metrics measure the logical complexity of source code.
2. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of
a) Analysis Model
b) Testing
c) Design Model
d) Source Code
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These metrics lead to the design of test cases that provide program coverage.
3. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by
a) Booch
b) Boehm
c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in 1979, hundreds of books and papers have been written on functions points since then.
4. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
a) three
b) four
c) five
d) six
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The five values are: External Inputs, External Outputs, External Inquiries, Internal Logical Files and External Interface Files.
5. Function Point Computation is given by the formula
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)].
c) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula for Function Point Computation.
6. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.
a) Black Box
b) White Box
c) Gray Box
d) Green Box
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They are “black box” in that they do not require any knowledge of the inner workings of a particular software component.
7. Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here?
a) “fan check-out” of module i
b) “fan check-in” of module i
c) “fan in” of module i
d) “fan out” of module i
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fan out is number of modules directly invoked by module i.
8. SMI stands for
a) Software Mature Indicator
b) Software Maturity Index
c) Software Mature Index
d) Software Maturity Indicator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
9. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product starts becoming unstable
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product begins to stabilize.
10. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules
a) in the current release
b) in the current release that have been changed
c) from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
11. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
a) Reliability
b) Usability
c) Efficiency
d) Functionality
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
12. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software
a) stated needs
b) is easy to use
c) makes optimal use of system resources
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
1. Size and Complexity are a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Product Metrics describe the characteristics of product.
2. Cost and schedule are a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Project Metrics describe the project characteristics and execution.
3. Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a
a) measurement
b) measure
c) metric
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Metric is a quantitative measure of the degree to which a system, component, or process possesses a given attribute.
4. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality Factors?
a) Flexibility
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) Integrity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flexibility is a part of Product revision as per McCall’s Software Quality Factors.
5. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does ‘a’ represent in the ratio?
a) maximum number of nodes at any level
b) longest path from the root to a leaf
c) number of modules
d) lines of control
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘a’ represents the arcs or the lines of control.
6. Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics?
a) Complexity Metrics
b) Cohesion Metrics
c) Morphology Metrics
d) Coupling Metrics
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Morphology metrics are a part of High level design metrics.
7. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of
a) Product Metrics
b) Process Metrics
c) Project Metrics
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
8. Metric is the act of obtaining a measure.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Measurement is the act of obtaining a measure.
9. MTTC falls the the category of
a) correctness
b) integrity
c) maintainability
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mean time to change (MTTC) is the time it takes to analyze the change request, design an appropriate modification, implement the change, test it, and distribute the change to all users.
10. Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics.
a) Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)
b) Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
c) Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)].
d) Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)].
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
1. Which of the following is not project management goal?
a) Keeping overall costs within budget
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team
d) Avoiding customer complaints
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Projects need to be managed because professional software engineering is always subject to organizational budget and schedule constraints.
2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management involves anticipating risks that might affect the project schedule or the quality of the software being developed, and then taking action to avoid these risks.
3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?
a) Specification delays
b) Product competition
c) Testing
d) Staff turnover
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be categorized as risk.
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as
a) Project Management
b) Manager life cycle
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A proven methodical life cycle is necessary to repeatedly implement and manage projects successfully.
5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low
b) low
c) moderate
d) high
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of the risk might be assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a software development project?
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation involves working out how much effort is required to complete each activity and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities.
7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
a) team
b) project
c) customers
d) project manager
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired software qualities and describe how these are to be assessed.
8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software system?
a) Internship management
b) Change management
c) Version management
d) System management
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration management policies and processes define how to record and process proposed system changes, how to decide what system components to change, how to manage different versions of the system and its components, and how to distribute changes to customers.
9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
a) Process introduction
b) Process analysis
c) De-processification
d) Process distribution
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The current process is assessed, and process weaknesses and bottlenecks are identified.
10. An independent relationship must exist between the attribute that can be measured and the external quality attribute.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of the quality attribute must be related, in some way, to the value of the attribute than can be measured.
1. Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size
b) Planning process
c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As size increases, the interdependence among various elements of the software grows rapidly.
2. What describes the data and control to be processed?
a) Planning process
b) Software scope
c) External hardware
d) Project complexity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Functions described in the statement of scope are evaluated and in some cases refined to provide more detail prior to the beginning of estimation.
3. A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called
a) JAD
b) CLASS
c) FAST
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Facilitated application specification techniques
(FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a joint team of customers
and developers who work together to identify the problem, propose elements
of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and specify a preliminary set of
requirements.
4. CLSS stands for
a) conveyor line sorting system
b) conveyor line sorting software
c) conveyor line sorting speed
d) conveyor line sorting specification
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The conveyor line sorting system (CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a conveyor line. Each box is identified by a barcode that contains a part number and is sorted into one of six bins at the end of the line.
5. The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software functions which is known as
a) Association
b) Decomposition
c) Planning process
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None
6. The environment that supports the software project is called
a) CLSS
b) SEE
c) FAST
d) CBSE
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Software engineering environment (SEE), incorporates hardware and software.
7. Which of the following is not an option to achieve reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already been completed
b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost and effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to generate project cost and effort estimates
d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human effort, calendar time, and dollars
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation approach in their own right?
a) Automated estimation tools
b) Empirical estimation models
c) Decomposition techniques
d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An estimation model for computer software uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP.
9. Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools?
a) Predicting staffing levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules
d) Predicting clients demands
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Demands can vary from client to client.
10. Software project estimation can never be an exact science, but a combination of good historical data and systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
1. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project?
a) Hardware and software costs
b) Effort costs
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All these are accounted for in estimating a software development cost.
2. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
c) Costs of lunch time food
d) Costs of support staff
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is a incurred by the employees.
3. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
a) Function-related metrics
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Productivity is expressed in terms of the amount of useful functionality produced in some given time. Function points and object points
are the best-known metrics of this type.
4. A _________ is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost.
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The model uses a basic regression formula with parameters that are derived from historical project data and current as well as future project characteristics.
5. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is available
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Function-point and object-point estimates are easier to produce than estimates of code size but are often still inaccurate.
6. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling
b) Expert judgement
c) Estimation by analogy
d) Parkinson’s Law
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost of a new project is estimated by analogy with these completed projects.
7. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database programming?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is designed to make estimates of prototype development.
8. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win
c) Parkinson’s Law
d) Expert judgement
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cost is determined by available resources rather than by objective assessment. If the software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people are available, the effort required is estimated to be 60 person-months.
9. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimates are based on function points, which are then converted to number of lines of source code. The formula follows the standard form discussed above with a simplified set of seven multipliers.
10. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
11. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO 2 incorporates a range of sub-models that produce increasingly detailed software estimates.
1. Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP?
a) FP-Based Estimation
b) Process-Based Estimation
c) COCOMO
d) Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Function points and COCOMO are used to evaluate effort.
2. The empirical data that support most estimation models are derived from a vast sample of projects.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Empirical data is derived from a limited sample of projects. For this reason, no estimation model is appropriate for all classes of software and in all development environments.
3. COCOMO stands for
a) Constructive cost model
b) Comprehensive cost model
c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic software architecture has been established?
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance, and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.
a) Early design stage model
b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on
a) Cost
b) Time
c) Schedule
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Estimation depends on factors such as Function points and LOC.
9. COCOMO-II was developed at
a) University of Texas
b) University of Southern California
c) MIT
d) IIT-Kanpur
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
10. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II?
a) Early design estimation model
b) Application Composition estimation model
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
d) Post architecture estimation model
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It was a part of COCOMO.
1. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Risk identification states what could cause a potential loss.
2. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Risk management activities would never want a new risk to be generated.
3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Technical risks identify potential design, implementation, interface, verification, and maintenance problems.
5. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Business risks often jeopardize the project or the product.
6. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people
c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This is not considered as a business risk.
7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By identifying known and predictable risks, the project manager takes a first step toward avoiding them when possible and controlling them when necessary.
8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: "the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”?
a) Performance risk
b) Cost risk
c) Support risk
d) Schedule risk
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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