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Data Analytics 13000+ MCQs Question

   

                   Data Analytics MCQ 15000+


Data Analytics 

     Unit 1:  

 

1. Data Analysis is a process of? 

 

A. inspecting data B. cleaning data C. transforming data D. All of the above 

 

 

2. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 

 

A. Data Mining B. Predictive Intelligence C. Business Intelligence D. Text Analytics 

 

 

3. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis? 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 

 

 

4. In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with ? 

 

A. integer descriptors B. floating descriptors C. numerical descriptors D. decimal descriptors View Answer 

 

 

5. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 

 

A. William S. B. Hans Peter Luhn C. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro D. John Tukey 

 

 

6. Which of the following is true about hypothesis testing? 

 

A. answering yes/no questions about the data B. estimating numerical characteristics of the data C. describing associations within the data D. modeling relationships within the data 

 

 

7. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say 

 

 

8. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as 

 

A. industry statistics B. economic statistics C. applied statistics D. applied statistics 


 

 

9. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? 

 

A. answering yes/no questions about the data B. estimating numerical characteristics of the data C. modeling relationships within the data D. describing associations within the data 

 

 

10. Text Analytics, also referred to as Text Mining? 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say 

 

 

11. In an Internet context, this is the practice of tailoring Web pages to individual users’ characteristics or preferences. 1. Web services 2. customer-facing 3. client/server 4. personalization 

 

12. This is the processing of data about customers and their relationship with the enterprise in order to improve the enterprise’s future sales and service and lower cost. 1. clickstream analysis 2. database marketing 3. customer relationship management 4. CRM analytics 

 

 

13. This is a broad category of applications and technologies for gathering, storing, analyzing, and providing access to data to help enterprise users make better business decisions. 1. best practice 2. data mart 

3. business information warehouse 4. business intelligence 

 

 

14. This is a systematic approach to the gathering, consolidation, and processing of consumer data (both for customers and potential customers) that is maintained in a company’s databases 1. database marketing 2. marketing encyclopedia 3. application integration 4. service oriented integration 

 

 

15. This is an arrangement in which a company outsources some or all of its customer relationship management functions to an application service provider (ASP). 1. spend management 2. supplier relationship management 3. hosted CRM 4. Customer Information Control System 

 

16. What are the five V’s of Big Data? 1. Volume 2. velocity 3. Variety 4. All of the above 

 

17. ____ hides the limitations of Java behind a powerful and concise Clojure API for Cascading.” 1. Scalding 2. Cascalog 3. Hcatalog 4. Hcalding 

 

 

18. What are the main components of Big Data? 1. MapReduce 2. HDFS 3. YARN 

4. All of these 

 

19. What are the different features of Big Data Analytics? 1. Open-Source 2. Scalability 3. Data Recovery 4. All the above 

 

 

20. Define the Port Numbers for NameNode, Task Tracker and Job Tracker 1. NameNode 2. Task Tracker 3. Job Tracker 4. All of the above 

 

21. Facebook Tackles Big Data With ____ based on Hadoop 1. Project Prism 2. Prism 3. ProjectData 4. ProjectBid 

 

22. Which of the following is not a phase of Data Analytics Life Cycle? 1. Communication 2. Recall 3. Data Preparation 4. Model Planning 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

UNIT 2: DATA ANALYSIS 

 

 

1. In regression, the equation that describes how the response variable (y) is related to the explanatory variable (x) is:  a. the correlation model  b. the regression model  c. used to compute the correlation coefficient  d. None of these alternatives is correct. 

      2.    The relationship between number of beers consumed (x) and blood alcohol content (y) was               s tu died in 16 male college students by using least squares regression. The following regression equation was obtained from this study: != -0.0127 + 0.0180x The above equation implies that:  

                a. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by 1.27%  

                b. on average it takes 1.8 beers to increase blood alcohol content by 1% 

 c. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by an average of amount of 1.8%  

d. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by exactly 0.018 

  

3      . SSE can never be 

 a. larger than SST  

b. smaller than SST 

 c. equal to 1  

d. equal to zero  

 

4. Regression modeling is a statistical framework for developing a mathematical equation that describes how  

a. one explanatory and one or more response variables are related 

 b. several explanatory and several response variables response are related 

 c. one response and one or more explanatory variables are related 

 d. All of these are correct. 

5. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is the 

 a. response, or dependent, variable 

 b. independent variable 

 c. intervening variable 

 d. is usually x 

 

 6  Regression analysis was applied to return rates of sparrowhawk colonies. Regression analysis was used to study the relationship between return rate (x: % of birds that return to the colony in a given year) and immigration rate (y: % of new adults that join the colony per year). The following regression equation 

was obtained. ! = 31.9 – 0.34x Based on the above estimated regression equation, if the return rate were to decrease by 10% the rate of immigration to the colony would: 

 a. increase by 34%  

b. increase by 3.4% 

 c. decrease by 0.34% 

 d. decrease by 3.4%  

 

7. In least squares regression, which of the following is not a required assumption about the error term ε? 

 a. The expected value of the error term is one.  

b. The variance of the error term is the same for all values of x. 

 c. The values of the error term are independent. 

 d. The error term is normally distributed. 

 

 8. Larger values of r 2 (R2 ) imply that the observations are more closely grouped about the  

a. average value of the independent variables 

 b. average value of the dependent variable 

 c. least squares line  

d. origin  

 

9. In a regression analysis if r 2 = 1, then 

 a. SSE must also be equal to one  

b. SSE must be equal to zero  

c. SSE can be any positive value  

d. SSE must be negative 


 

 

10.Which type of multivariate analysis should be used when a researcher wants to reduce a Set of variables to a smaller set of composite variables by identifying underlying dimensions of the data?  

A)Conjoint analysis 

 B)Cluster analysis 

 C)Multiple regression analysis 

 D)Factor analysis  

 

11. Which type of multivariate analysis should be used when a researcher wants to estimate The utility that consumers associate with different product features?  

A)Conjoint analysis 

 B)Cluster analysis\                                                    A 

 C)Multiple regression analysis  

D)Factor analysis  

 

12. Which type of multivariate analysis should be used when a researcher wants to identify Subgroups of individuals that are homogeneous within subgroups and different from other subgroups? 

 A)Conjoint analysis 

 B)Cluster analysis                                                                    

 C)Multiple regression analysis  

D)Factor analysis  

 

13. Which type of multivariate analysis should be used when a researcher wants predict Group membership on the basis of two or more independent variables? 

 A)Conjoint analysis 

 B)Cluster analysis 

 C)Multiple regression analysis 

 D)Multiple discriminant analysis                                                                 

 

14. Support vector machine (SVM) is a _________ classifier? Discriminative 

Generative 

15. SVM can be used to solve ___________ problems. Classification 

Regression 

Clustering 

Both Classification and Regression 

16. SVM is a ___________ learning algorithm Supervised 

Unsupervised 

17. SVM is termed as ________ classifier Minimum margin 

Maximum margin 

 18. The training examples closest to the separating hyperplane are called as _______ Training vectors 

Test vectors 

 

19. A factor analysis is…, while a principal components analysis is… 

    A broad term, the most commonly used technique for doing factor analysis. 

    B  The most commonly used technique for doing factor analysis, a broad term. 

     C  Both of the above. 

D NONE OF THE ABOVE 

 

20. Dimension Reduction is defined as- 

• A It is a process of converting a data set having vast dimensions into a data set with lesser dimensions. • B It ensures that the converted data set conveys similar information concisely. C  ALL OF ABOVE  

D   NONE OF THE ABOVE 

 

21.. What is the form of Fuzzy logic? a) Two-valued logic b) Crisp set logic c) Many-valued logic d) Binary set logic 

 

22. Traditional set theory is also known as Crisp Set theory. a) True b) False 

 

23. The truth values of traditional set theory is ____________ and that of fuzzy set is __________ a) Either 0 or 1, between 0 & 1 b) Between 0 & 1, either 0 or 1 c) Between 0 & 1, between 0 & 1 d) Either 0 or 1, either 0 or 1 

 

24. Fuzzy logic is extension of Crisp set with an extension of handling the concept of Partial Truth. a) True b) False 

 

25. The room temperature is hot. Here the hot (use of linguistic variable is used) can be represented by _______ a) Fuzzy Set b) Crisp Set c) Fuzzy & Crisp Set 

d) None of the mentioned 

 

26. The values of the set membership is represented by ___________ a) Discrete Set b) Degree of truth c) Probabilities d) Both Degree of truth & Probabilities 

 

27. Japanese were the first to utilize fuzzy logic practically on high-speed trains in Sendai. a) True b) False 

 

28. Fuzzy Set theory defines fuzzy operators. Choose the fuzzy operators from the following. a) AND b) OR c) NOT d) All of the mentioned 

 

29. There are also other operators, more linguistic in nature, called __________ that can be applied to fuzzy set theory. a) Hedges b) Lingual Variable c) Fuzz Variable d) None of the mentioned 

 

30. Fuzzy logic is usually represented as ___________ a) IF-THEN-ELSE rules b) IF-THEN rules c) Both IF-THEN-ELSE rules & IF-THEN rules d) None of the mentioned 

 

31. Like relational databases there does exists fuzzy relational databases. a) True b) False 

 

32. ______________ is/are the way/s to represent uncertainty. a) Fuzzy Logic b) Probability c) Entropy d) All of the mentioned 

 

33. ____________ are algorithms that learn from their more complex environments (hence eco) to generalize, approximate and simplify solution logic. a) Fuzzy Relational DB b) Ecorithms c) Fuzzy Set d) None of the mentioned 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Unit 3: 

 

1 : What do you mean by sampling of stream data? 

1. Sampling reduces the amount of data fed to a subsequent data mining algorithm. 2. Sampling reduces the diversity of the data stream 3. Sampling aims to keep statistical properties of the data intact. 4. Sampling algorithms often doesn't need multiple passes over the data 

  

 

Question 2 : if Distance measure d(x, y)= d(y, x) then it is called 

1. Symmetric 2. identical 3. positiveness 4. triangle inequality 

 

Question 3 : NOSQL is 

1. Not only SQL 2. Not SQL 3. Not Over SQL 4. No SQL 

  

 

Question 4 : Find the L1 and L2 distances between the points (5, 6, 7) and (8, 2, 4). 

1. L1 =10 , L2 = 5.83 2. L1 =10 , L2 = 5 3. L1 =11 , L2 = 4.9 

4. L1 =9 , L2 = 5.83 

   

 

Question 5 : The time between elements of one stream 

1. need not be uniform 2. need to be uniform 3. must be 1ms. 4. must be 1ns 

      

 

Question 6 : A Reduce task receives 

1. one or more keys and their associated value list 2. key value pair 3. list of keys and their associated values 4. list of key value pairs 

 

Question 7 : Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? 

1. Stream data is always unstructured data. 2. Stream data often has a high velocity. 3. Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. 4. Stream data is always structured data. 

       

 

Question 8 : Hadoop is the solution for: 

1. Database software 2. Big Data Software 3. Data Mining software 4. Distribution software 

    

 

Question 9 : ETL stands for ________________ 

1. Extraction transformation and loading 2. Extract Taken Lend 3. Enterprise Transfer Load 4. Entertainment Transference Load 

 

Question 10 : “Sharding” a database across many server instances can be achieved with _______________ 

1. MAN 2. LAN 3. WAN 4. SAN 

 

Question 11 : Neo4j is an example of which of the following NoSQL architectural pattern? 

1. Key-value store 2. Graph Store 3. Document Store 4. Column-based Store 

 

Question 12 : CSV and JSON can be described as 

1. Structured data 2. Unstructured data 3. Semi-structured data 4. Multi-structured data 

      

 

Question 13 : The hardware term used to describe Hadoop hardware requirements is 

1. Commodity firmware 

2. Commodity software 3. Commodity hardware 4. Cluster hardware 

 

Question 14 : Which of the following is not a Hadoop Distributions? 

1. MAPR 2. Cloudera 3. Hortonworks 4. RMAP 

 

Question 15 : Which of the following Operation can be implemented with Combiners? 

1. Selection 2. Projection 3. Natural Join 4. Union 

 

Question 16 : ________ stores are used to store information about networks, such as social connections. 

1. Key-value 2. Wide-column 3. Document 4. graph 

     

 

Question 17 : The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last k bits of a stream window N. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? 

1. The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. 2. The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error 

3. To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. 4. Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. 

 

Question 18 : If size of file is 4 GB and block size is 64 MB then number of mappers required for MapReduce task is 

1. 8 2. 16 3. 32 4. 64 

 

Question 19 : Which of the following is not the default daemon of Hadoop? 

1. Namenode 2. Datanode 3. Job Tracker 4. Job history server 

 

Question 20 : In Bloom filter an array of n bits is initialized with 

1. all 0s 2. all 1s 3. half 0s and half 1s 4. all -1 

  

 

Question 21 : _____________is a batch-based, distributed computing framework modeled after Google’s paper. 

1. MapCompute 2. MapReuse 3. MapCluster 

4. MapReduce 

       

 

Question 22 : What is the edit distance between A=father and B=feather ? 

1. 5 2. 1 3. 4 4. 2 

 

Question 23 : Sliding window operations typically fall in the category 

1. OLTP Transactions 2. Big Data Batch Processing 3. Big Data Real Time Processing 4. Small Batch Processing 

 

Question 24 : _________ systems focus on the relationship between users and items for recommendation. 

1. DGIM 2. Collaborative-Filtering 3. Content Based and Collaborative Filtering 4. Content Based 

     

 

Question 25 : Find Hamming Distance for vectors A=100101011 B=100010010 

1. 2 2. 4 3. 3 4. 1 

 

Question 26 : During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. 

1. Datanode 2. Namenode 3. Secondary Namenode 4. Rack awereness policy 

 

Question 27 : What is the finally produced by Hierarchical Agglomerative Clustering? 

1. final estimate of cluster centroids 2. assignment of each point to clusters 3. tree showing how close things are to each other 4. Group of clusters 

 

Question 28 : The Jaccard similarity of two non-binary sets A and B, is defined by__________ 

1. Jaccard Index 2. Primary Index 3. Secondary Index 4. Clustered Index 

  

 

Question 29 : Following is based on grid like street geography of the New York: 

1. Manhattan Distance 2. Edit Distance 3. Hamming distance 4. Lp distance 

    

 

Question 30 : The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: 

1. Estimate the number of distinct elements. 2. Sample data with a time-sensitive window. 3. Estimate the frequent elements. 4. Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. 

 

 31 : Pick a hash function h that maps each of the N elements to at least log2 N bits, Estimated number of distinct elements is 

1. 2^R 2. 2^(-R) 3. 1-(2^R) 4. 1-(2^(-R)) 

    

 

Question 32 : which of the following is not the characterstic of stream data? 

1. Continuous 2. ordered 3. persistant 4. huge 

 

Question 33 : Which of the following is a column-oriented database that runs on top of HDFS 

1. Hive 2. Sqoop 3. Hbase 4. Flume 

     

 

Question 34 : Which of the following decides the number of partitions that are created on the local file system of the worker nodes? 

1. Number of map tasks 2. Number of reduce tasks 3. Number of file input splits 4. Number of distinct keys in the intermediate key-value pairs 

    

 

Question 35 : Which of the following is not the class of points in BFR algorithm 

1. Discard Set (DS) 2. Compression Set (CS) 3. Isolation Set (IS) 4. Retained Set (RS) 

 

Question 36 : Which of the following is not true for 5v? 

1. Volume 2. variable 3. Velocity 4. value 

 

Question 37 : Which algorithm isused to find fully connected subgraph in soial media mining? 

1. CURE 2. CPM 3. SimRank 4. Girvan-Newman Algorithm 

 

Question 38 : A ________________ query Q is a query that is issued once over a database D, and then logically runs continuously over the data in D until Q is terminated. 

1. One-time Query 2. Standing Query 3. Adhoc Query 

4. General Query 

 

Question 39 : Effect of Spider trap on page rank 

1. perticular page get the highest page rank 2. All the pages of web will get 0 page rank 3. no effect on any page 4. affects a perticular set of pages 

 

Question 40 : Which of the following is correct option for MongoDB 

1. MongoDB is column oriented data store 2. MongoDB uses XML more in comparison with JSON 3. MongoDB is a document store database 4. MongoDB is a key-value data store 

 

Question 41 : _________ systems focus on the relationship between users and items for recommendation. 

1. DGIM 2. Collaborative-Filtering 3. Content Based and Collaborative Filtering 4. Content Based 

   

 

Question 42 : The graphical representation of an SNA is made up of links and _____________. 

1. People 2. Networks 3. Nodes 4. Computers 

 

Question 43 : Hadoop is a framework that works with a variety of related tools. Common hadoop ecosystem include ____________ 

1. MapReduce, Hummer and Iguana 2. MapReduce, Hive and HBase 3. MapReduce, MySQL and Google Apps 4. MapReduce, Heron and Trumpet 

 

Question 44 : About data streaming, Which of the following statements is true? 

1. Stream data is always unstructured data. 2. Stream data often has a high velocity. 3. Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. 4. Stream data is always structured data. 

 

Question 45 : Which of the following is a NoSQL Database Type ? 

1. SQL 2. JSON 3. Document databases 4. CSV 

      

 

Question 46 : Techniques for fooling search engines into believing your page is about something it is not, are called _____________. 

1. term spam 2. page rank 3. phishing 4. dead ends 

     

 

Question 47 : The police set up checkpoints at randomly selected road locations, then inspected every driver at those locations. What type of sample is this? 

1. Simple Random Sample 2. Startified Random Sample 3. Cluster Random Sample 4. Uniform sampling 

 

Question 48 : Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? 

1. It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. 2. A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. 3. It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more space. 4. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element. 

  

 

Question 49 : Which of the following is responsible for managing the cluster resources and use them for scheduling users’ applications? 

1. Hadoop Common 2. YARN 3. HDFS 4. MapReduce 

   

 

Question 50 : ___________is related with an inconsistency possessed by data and this in turn hampers the data analization process or creates hurdle in the way for those wish to analyze this form of data. 

1. Variability 2. Variety 3. Volume 4. Complexity 

 

 


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Unit 4: 

 

Question 1 This  clustering algorithm terminates when mean values computed for the current iteration of the algorithm are identical to the computed mean values for the previous iteration Select one:  

a. K-Means clustering 

 b. conceptual clustering 

 c. expectation maximization  

d. agglomerative clustering Show Answer  

 

Question 2 This clustering approach initially assumes that each data instance represents a single cluster. Select one: 

 a. expectation maximization  

b. K-Means clustering 

 c. agglomerative clustering 

 d. conceptual clustering Show Answer  

 

Question 3 The correlation coefficient for two real-valued attributes is – 0.85. What does this value tell you? Select one: 

 a. The attributes are not linearly related. 

 b. As the value of one attribute decreases the value of the second attribute increases.  

c. As the value of one attribute increases the value of the second attribute also increases. 

 d. The attributes show a linear relationship Show Answer  

 

Question 4 Time Complexity of k-means is given by Select one:  

a. O(mn)  

b. O(tkn) 

 c. O(kn)  

d. O(t2kn) Show Answer 

 

 Question 5 Given a rule of the form IF X THEN Y, rule confidence is defined as the conditional probability that Select one: 

 a. Y is false when X is known to be false. 

 b. Y is true when X is known to be true. 

 c. X is true when Y is known to be true 

 d. X is false when Y is known to be false.  

 

 Question 6 Chameleon is Select one: 

 a. Density based clustering algorithm  

b. Partitioning based algorithm  

c. Model based algorithm  

d. Hierarchical clustering algorithm  

 

 Question 7 In _________ clusterings, points may belong to multiple clusters Select one:  

a. Non exclusivce 

 b. Partial 

 c. Fuzzy  

d. Exclusive Show Answer  

 

Question 8 Find odd man out Select one: 

 a. DBSCAN  

b. K mean  

c. PAM  

d. K medoid  

Question 9 Which statement is true about the K-Means algorithm? Select one: 

 a. The output attribute must be cateogrical. 

 b. All attribute values must be categorical. 

 c. All attributes must be numeric 

 d. Attribute values may be either categorical or numeric  

 

 Question 10 This data transformation technique works well when minimum and maximum values for a real-valued attribute are known. Select one: 

 a. z-score normalization  

b. min-max normalization 

 c. logarithmic normalization 

 d. decimal scaling  

 

 Question 11 The number of iterations in apriori ___________ Select one: 

 a. increases with the size of the data 

 b. decreases with the increase in size of the data 

 c. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set  

d. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set Show Answer 

 

 Question 12 Which of the following are interestingness measures for association rules? Select one: 

 a. recall  

b. lift  

c. accuracy 

 d. compactness Show Answer 

 

 Question 13 Which one of the following is not a major strength of the neural network approach? Select one 

: a. Neural network learning algorithms are guaranteed to converge to an optimal solution 

 b. Neural networks work well with datasets containing noisy data.  

c. Neural networks can be used for both supervised learning and unsupervised clustering 

 d. Neural networks can be used for applications that require a time element to be included in the data Show Answer 

 

 Question 14 Find odd man out Select one:  

a. K medoid 

 b. K mean  

c. DBSCAN  

d. PAM  

 

Question 15 Given a frequent itemset L, If |L| = k, then there are Select one:  

a. 2k   – 1 candidate association rules  

b. 2k   candidate association rules  

c. 2k   – 2 candidate association rules 

 d. 2k -2 candidate association rules Show Answer  

 

Question 16 . _________ is an example for case based-learning Select one: 

 a. Decision trees  

b. Neural networks 

 c. Genetic algorithm 

 d. K-nearest neighbor Show Answer 


 

 Question 17 The average positive difference between computed and desired outcome values. Select one:  

a. mean positive error 

 b. mean squared error 

 c. mean absolute error 

 d. root mean squared error Show Answer 

 Question 18 Frequent item sets is Select one: 

 a. Superset of only closed frequent item sets 

 b. Superset of only maximal frequent item sets 

 c. Subset of maximal frequent item sets 

 d. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets Show Answer 

 

 Question 19 1. Assume that we have a dataset containing information about 200 individuals.  A supervised data mining session has discovered the following rule: IF  age < 30 & credit card insurance = yes   THEN life insurance = yes Rule Accuracy:    70%   and  Rule Coverage:   63% How many individuals in the class life insurance= no have credit card insurance and are less than 30 years old? Select one: 

 a. 63 

 b. 30  

c. 38  

d. 70 Show Answer 

 

 Question 20 Use the three-class confusion matrix below to answer percent of the instances were correctly classified? Computed Decision Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 1 10 5 3 Class 2 5 15 3 Class 3 2 2 5 Select one: 

 a. 60  

b. 40 

 c. 50 

 d. 30 Show Answer  

 

Question 21 Which of the following is cluster analysis? Select one: 

 a. Simple segmentation 

 b. Grouping similar objects  

c. Labeled classification  

d. Query results grouping Show Answer 

 

 Question 22 A good clustering method will produce high quality clusters with Select one: 

 a. high inter class similarity 

 b. low intra class similarity  

c. high intra class similarity 

 d. no inter class similarity Show Answer  

 

Question 23 Which two parameters are needed for DBSCAN Select one:  

a. Min threshold 

 b. Min points and eps 

 c. Min sup and min confidence 

 d. Number of centroids Show Answer 

 Question 24 Which statement is true about neural network and linear regression models? Select one:  

a. Both techniques build models whose output  is determined by a  linear sum of weighted input attribute values.  

b. The output of both models is a categorical attribute value.  

c. Both models require numeric attributes to range between 0 and 1. 

 d. Both models require input attributes to be numeric. Show Answer 

 

 Question 25 In Apriori algorithm, if 1 item-sets are 100, then the number of candidate 2 item-sets are Select one:  

a. 100 

 b. 4950 

 c. 200 

 d. 5000  

Show Answer  

 

Question 26 Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is Select one: 

 a. Finding frequent itemsets  

b. Pruning  

c. Candidate generation  

d. Number of iterations Show Answer  

 

Question 27 The concept of core, border and noise points fall into this category? Select one: 

 a. DENCLUE  

b. Subspace clustering 

 c. Grid based  

d. DBSCAN Show Answer  

 

Question 28 The correlation coefficient for two real-valued attributes is –0.85. What does this value tell you? Select one: 

 a. The attributes show a linear relationship  

b. The attributes are not linearly related. 

 c. As the value of one attribute increases the value of the second attribute also increases.  

d. As the value of one attribute decreases the value of the second attribute increases. Show Answer  

 

Question 29 Machine learning techniques differ from statistical techniques in that machine learning methods Select one: 

 a. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data 

 b. typically assume an underlying distribution for the data 

 c. have trouble with large-sized datasets 

 d. are not able to explain their behavior. Show Answer  

 

Question 30 The probability of a hypothesis before the presentation of evidence. Select one:  

a. a priori 

 b. posterior  

c. conditional  

d. subjective Show Answer 

 Question 31 KDD represents extraction of Select one:  

a. data  

b. knowledge 

 c. rules 

 d. model Show Answer 

 

 Question 32 Which statement about outliers is true? Select one 

: a. Outliers should be part of the training dataset but should not be present in the test data. 

 b. Outliers should be identified and removed from a dataset 

. c. The nature of the problem determines how outliers are used 

 d. Outliers should be part of the test dataset but should not be present in the training data. Show Answer  

 

Question 33 The most general form of distance is Select one:  

a. Manhattan  

b. Eucledian  

c. Mean 

 d. Minkowski Show Answer 

 

 Question 34 Arbitrary shaped clusters can be found by using Select one:  

a. Density methods 

 b. Partitional methods  

c. Hierarchical methods 

 d. Agglomerative Show Answer 

 

 Question 35 Which Association Rule would you prefer Select one 

: a. High support and medium confidence  

b. High support and low confidence  

c. Low support and high confidence  

d. Low support and low confidence Show Answer  

 

Question 36 With Bayes theorem the probability of hypothesis H¾ specified by P(H) ¾ is referred to as Select one:  

a. a conditional probability 

 b. an a priori probability 

 c. a bidirectional probability 

 d. a posterior probability Show Answer  

 

Question 37 In a Rule based classifier, If there is a rule for each combination of attribute values, what do you called that rule set R Select one: 

 a. Exhaustive 

 b. Inclusive  

c. Comprehensive 

 d. Mutually exclusive Show Answer  

 

Question 38 The apriori property means Select one 

: a. If a set cannot pass a test, its supersets will also fail the same test 

 b. To decrease the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets  

c. To improve the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets 

 d. If a set can pass a test, its supersets will fail the same test Show Answer 

 

 Question 39 If  an item set ‘XYZ’ is a frequent item set, then all subsets of that frequent item set are Select one: 

 a. Undefined 

 b. Not frequent 

 c. Frequent  

d. Can not say Show Answer 

 

 Question 40 Clustering is ___________ and is example of ____________learning Select one:  

a. Predictive and supervised  

b. Predictive and unsupervised  

c. Descriptive and supervised  

d. Descriptive and unsupervised Show Answer 

 Question 41 The probability that a person owns a sports car given that they subscribe to automotive magazine is 40%.  We also know that 3% of the adult population subscribes to automotive magazine. The probability of a person owning a sports car given that they don’t subscribe to automotive magazine is 30%.  Use this information to compute the probability that a person subscribes to automotive magazine given that they own a sports car Select one 

: a. 0.0368 

 b. 0.0396  

c. 0.0389  

d. 0.0398 Show Answer  

 

Question 42 Simple regression assumes a __________ relationship between the input  attribute and output attribute. Select one:  

a. quadratic  

b. inverse  

c. linear  

d. reciprocal Show Answer 

 

 Question 43 Which of the following algorithm comes under the classification Select one:  

a. Apriori  

b. Brute force 

 c. DBSCAN  

d. K-nearest neighbor Show Answer  

Question 44 Hierarchical agglomerative clustering is typically visualized as? Select one:  

a. Dendrogram 

 b. Binary trees 

 c. Block diagram  

d. Graph Show Answer Question 

 

 45 The _______ step eliminates the extensions of (k-1)-itemsets which are not found to be frequent,from being considered for counting support Select one:  

a. Partitioning 

 b. Candidate generation 

 c. Itemset eliminations  

d. Pruning Show Answer  

 

Question 46 To determine association rules from frequent item sets Select one: 

 a. Only minimum confidence needed 

 b. Neither support not confidence needed 

 c. Both minimum support and confidence are needed 

 d. Minimum support is needed Show Answer  

 

Question 47 What is the final resultant cluster size in Divisive algorithm, which is one of the hierarchical clustering approaches? Select one: 

 a. Zero  

b. Three  

c. singleton 

 d. Two Show Answer 

 

 Question 48 If {A,B,C,D} is a frequent itemset, candidate rules which is not possible is Select one:  

a. C –> A  

b. D –>ABCD  

c. A –> BC  

d. B –> ADC Show Answer 

 

 Question 49 Which Association Rule would you prefer Select one:  

a. High support and low confidence 

 b. Low support and high confidence 

 c. Low support and low confidence 

 d. High support and medium confidence Show Answer  

 

Question 50 The probability that a person owns a sports car given that they subscribe to automotive magazine is 40%.  We also know that 3% of the adult population subscribes to automotive magazine. The probability of a person owning a sports car given that they don’t subscribe to automotive magazine is 30%.  Use this information to compute the probability that a person subscribes to automotive magazine given that they own a sports car 

 Select one:  

a. 0.0398 

 b. 0.0389  

c. 0.0368 

 d. 0.0396 Show Answer 

 

 

 


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Unit 5: 

 

1. What is true about Data Visualization? 

 

A. Data Visualization is used to communicate information clearly and efficiently to users by the usage of information graphics such as tables and charts. B. Data Visualization helps users in analyzing a large amount of data in a simpler way. C. Data Visualization makes complex data more accessible, understandable, and usable. D. All of the above 

 

 

2. Data can be visualized using? 

 

A. graphs B. charts C. maps D. All of the above 

 


 

 

3. Data visualization is also an element of the broader _____________. 

 

A. deliver presentation architecture B. data presentation architecture C. dataset presentation architecture D. data process architecture 

 

 

4. Which method shows hierarchical data in a nested format? 

 

A. Treemaps B. Scatter plots C. Population pyramids D. Area charts 

 

 

5. Which is used to inference for 1 proportion using normal approx? 

 

A. fisher.test() B. chisq.test() C. Lm.test() D. prop.test() 

 

 

6. Which is used to find the factor congruence coefficients? 

 

A. factor.mosaicplot B. factor.xyplot C. factor.congruence D. factor.cumsum 

 

 

7. Which of the following is tool for checking normality? 

 

A. qqline() B. qline() C. anova() D. lm() 


 

 

8. Which of the following is false? 

 

A. data visualization include the ability to absorb information quickly B. Data visualization is another form of visual art C. Data visualization decrease the insights and take solwer decisions D. None Of the above 

 

 

9. Common use cases for data visualization include? 

 

A. Politics B. Sales and marketing C. Healthcare D. All of the above 

 

 

10. Which of the following plots are often used for checking randomness in time series? 

 

A. Autocausation B. Autorank C. Autocorrelation D. None of the above 

 

 

11. Which are pros of data visualization? 

 

A. It can be accessed quickly by a wider audience. B. It can misrepresent information C. It can be distracting D. None Of the above 

 

 

12. Which are cons of data visualization? 

 

A. It conveys a lot of information in a small space. B. It makes your report more visually appealing. 

C. visual data is distorted or excessively used. D. None Of the above 

 

 

13. Which of the intricate techniques is not used for data visualization? 

 

A. Bullet Graphs B. Bubble Clouds C. Fever Maps D. Heat Maps 

 

 

14. Which one of the following is most basic and commonly used techniques? 

 

A. Line charts B. Scatter plots C. Population pyramids D. Area charts 

 

 

15. Which is used to query and edit graphical settings? 

 

A. anova() B. par() C. plot() D. cum() 

 

 

16. Which of the following method make vector of repeated values? 

 

A. rep() B. data() C. view() D. read() 

 

 

17. Who calls the lower level functions lm.fit? 

 

A. lm() B. col.max 

C. par D. histo 

 

 

18. Which of the following lists names of variables in a data.frame? 

 

A. par() B. names() C. barchart() D. quantile() 

 

 

19. Which of the folllowing statement is true? 

 

A. Scientific visualization, sometimes referred to in shorthand as SciVis B. Healthcare professionals frequently use choropleth maps to visualize important health data. C. Candlestick charts are used as trading tools and help finance professionals analyze price movements over time D. All of the above 

 

20. ________is used for density plots? 

 

A. par B. lm C. kde D. C 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Answer key: 

 


 Unit :1 

 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Data Analysis is a process of inspecting, cleaning, transforming and modelling data with the goal of discovering useful information, suggesting conclusions and supporting decision-making. 

 

 

2.  Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Predictive Analytics is major data analysis approaches not Predictive Intelligence. 

 

 

3.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: In data analysis, two main statistical methodologies are used Descriptive statistics and Inferential statistics. 

 

 

4.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with numerical descriptors. 

 

 

5.  Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Data Analysis is defined by the statistician John Tukey in 1961 as "Procedures for analyzing data. 

 

 

6.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: answering yes/no questions about the data (hypothesis testing) 

 

 

7.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 

 

 

8. Ans : D 

 

Explanation: The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as applied statistics. 

 

 

9.  

 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: modeling relationships within the data (E.g. regression analysis). 

 

 

10 Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Text Data Mining is the process of deriving high-quality information from text. 

 

11 personalization 

12.  

 

CRM analytics 

13.  

Advertisement 

business intelligence 

14.  database marketing 

15.  hosted CRM 

16.  All of the above 

17.  Cascalog 

18.  All of these 

19.  All the above 

20.  All of the above 

21. 

 

Project Prism 

22. 

Recall 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

UNIT 2: 

 

1. b  

2. c  

3. A  

4. c  

5. a  

6. b  

 7. a  

 8. c 

9. B 

10. D 

11. A 

12. B 

13. D 

14.A 

15. D 

16. A  

17. B  

18. C 

19. A broad term, the most commonly used technique for doing factor analysis. 

20. C 

21. Answer: c Explanation: With fuzzy logic set membership is defined by certain value. Hence it could have many values to be in the set. 

22. Answer: a Explanation: Traditional set theory set membership is fixed or exact either the member is in the set or not. There is only two crisp values true or false. In case of fuzzy logic there are many values. With weight say x the member is in the set. 23. Answer: a Explanation: Refer the definition of Fuzzy set and Crisp set. 24. Answer: a Explanation: None. 25. Answer: a Explanation: Fuzzy logic deals with linguistic variables. 26. Answer: b Explanation: Both Probabilities and degree of truth ranges between 0 – 1. 27. Answer: a Explanation: None. 28. Answer: d Explanation: The AND, OR, and NOT operators of Boolean logic exist in fuzzy logic, usually defined as the minimum, maximum, and complement; 29. Answer: a Explanation: None. 

30. Answer: b Explanation: Fuzzy set theory defines fuzzy operators on fuzzy sets. The problem in applying this is that the appropriate fuzzy operator may not be known. For this reason, fuzzy logic usually uses IF-THEN rules, or constructs that are equivalent, such as fuzzy associative matrices. Rules are usually expressed in the form: IF variable IS property THEN action 31. Answer: a Explanation: Once fuzzy relations are defined, it is possible to develop fuzzy relational databases. The first fuzzy relational database, FRDB, appeared in Maria Zemankova dissertation. 32. Answer: d Explanation: Entropy is amount of uncertainty involved in data. Represented by H(data). 33. Answer: c Explanation: Local structure is usually associated with linear rather than exponential growth in complexity. 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Unit 4:  

1. Feedback: K-Means clustering  2. Feedback: 3. As the value of one attribute decreases the value of the second attribute increases. 4.  O(tkn)  5. Y is true when X is known to be true 6. Hierarchical clustering algorithm  

7.  Fuzzy 8. dbscan  9. All attributes must be numeric  10. : min-max normalization  11.  increases with the size of the maximum frequent set  12. : lift  13.  Neural network learning algorithms are guaranteed to converge to an optimal solution  14. DBSCAN  15. 2k -2 candidate association rules  16. : K-nearest neighbor  17. mean absolute error  18. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets  19. 38  20. 60  21. Grouping similar objects  22. high intra class similarity  23. Min points and eps  24.  Both models require input attributes to be numeric.  25. 4950  26. Candidate generation  27. DBSCAN  28. As the value of one attribute decreases the value of the second attribute increases.  29. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data  30. a priori  31. knowledge  32. The nature of the problem determines how outliers are used  33. Minkowski  34.  Density methods  35. Low support and high confidence 36. an a priori probability  37.  Exhaustive  38. If a set cannot pass a test, its supersets will also fail the same test  39.  Frequent  40.  Descriptive and unsupervised  41. 0.0396  42. linear  43. K-nearest neighbor  44.  Dendrogram  45.  Pruning  46. Both minimum support and confidence are needed  47.  singleton  48. D –>ABCD  49. Low support and high confidence  50. Answer Feedback: 0.0396 

 

 

 

 


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Unit 5: 

 

1.  Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Data Visualization is used to communicate information clearly and efficiently to users by the usage of information graphics such as tables and charts. It helps users in analyzing a large amount of data in a simpler way. It makes complex data more accessible, understandable, and usable. 


 

 

2.  

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Data visualization is a graphical representation of quantitative information and data by using visual elements like graphs, charts, and maps. 

 

 

3.  Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Data visualization is also an element of the broader data presentation architecture (DPA) discipline, which aims to identify, locate, manipulate, format and deliver data in the most efficient way possible. 

 

 

4.  

 

Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Treemaps are best used when multiple categories are present, and the goal is to compare different parts of a whole. 

 

 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: prop.test() is used to inference for 1 proportion using normal approx. 

 

 

6.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: factor.congruence is used to find the factor congruence coefficients. 

 

 

7.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: qqnorm is another tool for checking normality. 

 

 

8.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Data visualization decrease the insights andtake solwer decisions is false statement. 

 

 

9.  Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All option are Common use cases for data visualization. 


 

 

10.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: If the time series is random, such autocorrelations should be near zero for any and all timelag separations. 

 

11.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Pros of data visualization : it can be accessed quickly by a wider audience. 

 

 

12.  

 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: It can be distracting : if the visual data is distorted or excessively used. 

 

 

13.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Fever Maps is not is not used for data visualization instead of that Fever charts is used. 

 

 

14.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Line charts. This is one of the most basic and common techniques used. Line charts display how variables can change over time. 

 

 

15.  Ans : B 

 

Explanation: par() is used to query and edit graphical settings. 

 

 

16 Ans : B 

 

Explanation: data() load (often into a data.frame) built-in dataset. 

 

 

17.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: lm calls the lower level functions lm.fit. 

 

 

18.  

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: names function is used to associate name with the value in the vector. 

 

 

19.  

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All option are correct. 

 

 

20.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: kde is used for density plots. 

 

 

MCQ for UNIT 5 

  

1. Point out the correct statement. a) Hadoop is an ideal environment for extracting and transforming small volumes of data b) Hadoop stores data in HDFS and supports data compression/decompression c) The Giraph framework is less useful than a MapReduce job to solve graph and machine learning d) None of the mentioned 

2. Which of the following genres does Hadoop produce? a) Distributed file system b) JAX-RS c) Java Message Service d) Relational Database Management System 

3. Which of the following platforms does Hadoop run on? a) Bare metal b) Debian c) Cross-platform d) Unix-like 

4. Hadoop achieves reliability by replicating the data across multiple hosts and hence does not require ________ storage on hosts. a) RAID b) Standard RAID levels c) ZFS d) Operating system 

5. The Hadoop list includes the HBase database, the Apache Mahout ________ system, and matrix operations. a) Machine learning b) Pattern recognition c) Statistical classification d) Artificial intelligence 

6. As companies move past the experimental phase with Hadoop, many cite the need for additional capabilities, including _______________ a) Improved data storage and information retrieval b) Improved extract, transform and load features for data integration c) Improved data warehousing functionality d) Improved security, workload management, and SQL support 

7. Point out the correct statement. a) Hadoop do need specialized hardware to process the data b) Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real-time data c) In the Hadoop programming framework output files are divided into lines or records d) None of the mentioned 

8. According to analysts, for what can traditional IT systems provide a foundation when they’re integrated with big data technologies like Hadoop? a) Big data management and data mining b) Data warehousing and business intelligence c) Management of Hadoop clusters d) Collecting and storing unstructured data 

9. Hadoop is a framework that works with a variety of related tools. Common cohorts include ____________ a) MapReduce, Hive and HBase b) MapReduce, MySQL and Google Apps c) MapReduce, Hummer and Iguana d) MapReduce, Heron and Trumpet 

10. Point out the wrong statement. a) Hardtop processing capabilities are huge and its real advantage lies in the ability to process terabytes & petabytes of data b) Hadoop uses a programming model called “MapReduce”, all the programs should conform to this model in order to work on the Hadoop platform c) The programming model, MapReduce, used by Hadoop is difficult to write and test d) All of the mentioned 

11. What was Hadoop named after? a) Creator Doug Cutting’s favorite circus act b) Cutting’s high school rock band c) The toy elephant of Cutting’s son d) A sound Cutting’s laptop made during Hadoop development 

12. All of the following accurately describe Hadoop, EXCEPT ____________ a) Open-source b) Real-time c) Java-based d) Distributed computing approach 

13. __________ can best be described as a programming model used to develop Hadoopbased applications that can process massive amounts of data. a) MapReduce b) Mahout 

c) Oozie d) All of the mentioned 

14. __________ has the world’s largest Hadoop cluster. a) Apple b) Datamatics c) Facebook d) None of the mentioned 

15. Facebook Tackles Big Data With _______ based on Hadoop. a) ‘Project Prism’ b) ‘Prism’ c) ‘Project Big’ d) ‘Project Data’ 

16. ________ is a platform for constructing data flows for extract, transform, and load (ETL) processing and analysis of large datasets. a) Pig Latin b) Oozie c) Pig d) Hive 

17. Point out the correct statement. a) Hive is not a relational database, but a query engine that supports the parts of SQL specific to querying data b) Hive is a relational database with SQL support c) Pig is a relational database with SQL support d) All of the mentioned 

18. Hive also support custom extensions written in ____________ a) C# b) Java c) C d) C++ 

19. Point out the wrong statement. a) Elastic MapReduce (EMR) is Facebook’s packaged Hadoop offering b) Amazon Web Service Elastic MapReduce (EMR) is Amazon’s packaged Hadoop offering c) Scalding is a Scala API on top of Cascading that removes most Java boilerplate d) All of the mentioned 

20. ___________ is general-purpose computing model and runtime system for distributed data analytics. a) Mapreduce b) Drill 

c) Oozie d) None of the mentioned 

21. The Pig Latin scripting language is not only a higher-level data flow language but also has operators similar to ____________ a) SQL b) JSON c) XML d) All of the mentioned 

22. _______ jobs are optimized for scalability but not latency. a) Mapreduce b) Drill c) Oozie d) Hive 

23. A ________ node acts as the Slave and is responsible for executing a Task assigned to it by the JobTracker. a) MapReduce b) Mapper c) TaskTracker d) JobTracker 

24. Point out the correct statement. a) MapReduce tries to place the data and the compute as close as possible b) Map Task in MapReduce is performed using the Mapper() function c) Reduce Task in MapReduce is performed using the Map() function d) All of the mentioned 

25. ___________ part of the MapReduce is responsible for processing one or more chunks of data and producing the output results. a) Maptask b) Mapper c) Task execution d) All of the mentioned 

26. _________ function is responsible for consolidating the results produced by each of the Map() functions/tasks. a) Reduce b) Map c) Reducer d) All of the mentioned 

27. ________ is a utility which allows users to create and run jobs with any executables as the mapper and/or the reducer. 

a) Hadoop Strdata b) Hadoop Streaming c) Hadoop Stream d) None of the mentioned 

28. __________ maps input key/value pairs to a set of intermediate key/value pairs. a) Mapper b) Reducer c) Both Mapper and Reducer d) None of the mentioned 

29. The number of maps is usually driven by the total size of ____________ a) inputs b) outputs c) tasks d) None of the mentioned 

30. Running a ___________ program involves running mapping tasks on many or all of the nodes in our cluster. a) MapReduce b) Map c) Reducer d) All of the mentioned 

31. A ________ serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster. a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication 

32. Point out the correct statement. a) DataNode is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks b) Each incoming file is broken into 32 MB by default c) Data blocks are replicated across different nodes in the cluster to ensure a low degree of fault tolerance d) None of the mentioned 

33. HDFS works in a __________ fashion. a) master-worker b) master-slave c) worker/slave d) all of the mentioned 

34. Point out the wrong statement. a) Replication Factor can be configured at a cluster level (Default is set to 3) and also at a file level b) Block Report from each DataNode contains a list of all the blocks that are stored on that DataNode c) User data is stored on the local file system of DataNodes d) DataNode is aware of the files to which the blocks stored on it belong to 

35. Which of the following scenario may not be a good fit for HDFS? a) HDFS is not suitable for scenarios requiring multiple/simultaneous writes to the same file b) HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access c) HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access d) None of the mentioned 

36. The need for data replication can arise in various scenarios like ____________ a) Replication Factor is changed b) DataNode goes down c) Data Blocks get corrupted d) All of the mentioned 

37. ________ is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks. a) DataNode b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication 

38. HDFS provides a command line interface called __________ used to interact with HDFS. a) “HDFS Shell” b) “FS Shell” c) “DFS Shell” d) None of the mentioned 

39. HDFS is implemented in _____________ programming language. a) C++ b) Java c) Scala d) None of the mentioned 

40. For YARN, the ___________ Manager UI provides host and port information. a) Data Node b) NameNode 

c) Resource d) Replication 

41. During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. a) DataNode b) NameNode c) ActionNode d) None of the mentioned 

42. Point out the correct statement. a) A Hadoop archive maps to a file system directory b) Hadoop archives are special format archives c) A Hadoop archive always has a *.har extension d) All of the mentioned 

43. Using Hadoop Archives in __________ is as easy as specifying a different input filesystem than the default file system. a) Hive b) Pig c) MapReduce d) All of the mentioned 

44. Pig operates in mainly how many nodes? a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five 

45. Point out the correct statement. a) You can run Pig in either mode using the “pig” command b) You can run Pig in batch mode using the Grunt shell c) You can run Pig in interactive mode using the FS shell d) None of the mentioned 

46. You can run Pig in batch mode using __________ a) Pig shell command b) Pig scripts c) Pig options d) All of the mentioned 

47. Pig Latin statements are generally organized in one of the following ways? a) A LOAD statement to read data from the file system b) A series of “transformation” statements to process the data 

c) A DUMP statement to view results or a STORE statement to save the results d) All of the mentioned 

48. Point out the wrong statement. a) To run Pig in local mode, you need access to a single machine b) The DISPLAY operator will display the results to your terminal screen c) To run Pig in mapreduce mode, you need access to a Hadoop cluster and HDFS installation d) All of the mentioned 

49. Which of the following function is used to read data in PIG? a) WRITE b) READ c) LOAD d) None of the mentioned 

50. You can run Pig in interactive mode using the ______ shell. a) Grunt b) FS c) HDFS d) None of the mentioned 

51. HBase is a distributed ________ database built on top of the Hadoop file system. a) Column-oriented b) Row-oriented c) Tuple-oriented d) None of the mentioned 

52. Point out the correct statement. a) HDFS provides low latency access to single rows from billions of records (Random access) b) HBase sits on top of the Hadoop File System and provides read and write access c) HBase is a distributed file system suitable for storing large files d) None of the mentioned 

53. HBase is ________ defines only column families. a) Row Oriented b) Schema-less c) Fixed Schema d) All of the mentioned 

54. Apache HBase is a non-relational database modeled after Google’s _________ a) BigTop b) Bigtable 

c) Scanner d) FoundationDB 

55. Point out the wrong statement. a) HBase provides only sequential access to data b) HBase provides high latency batch processing c) HBase internally provides serialized access d) All of the mentioned 

56. The _________ Server assigns regions to the region servers and takes the help of Apache ZooKeeper for this task. a) Region b) Master c) Zookeeper d) All of the mentioned 

57. Which of the following command provides information about the user? a) status b) version c) whoami d) user 

58. Which of the following command does not operate on tables? a) enabled b) disabled c) drop d) all of the mentioned 

59. _________ command fetches the contents of a row or a cell. a) select b) get c) put d) none of the mentioned 

60. HBaseAdmin and ____________ are the two important classes in this package that provide DDL functionalities. a) HTableDescriptor b) HDescriptor c) HTable d) HTabDescriptor 

61. Which of the following is not a NoSQL database? a) SQL Server b) MongoDB 

c) Cassandra d) None of the mentioned 

62. Point out the correct statement. a) Documents can contain many different key-value pairs, or key-array pairs, or even nested documents b) MongoDB has official drivers for a variety of popular programming languages and development environments c) When compared to relational databases, NoSQL databases are more scalable and provide superior performance d) All of the mentioned 

63. Which of the following is a NoSQL Database Type? a) SQL b) Document databases c) JSON d) All of the mentioned 

64. Which of the following is a wide-column store? a) Cassandra b) Riak c) MongoDB d) Redis 

65. Point out the wrong statement. a) Non Relational databases require that schemas be defined before you can add data b) NoSQL databases are built to allow the insertion of data without a predefined schema c) NewSQL databases are built to allow the insertion of data without a predefined schema d) All of the mentioned 

66. Most NoSQL databases support automatic __________ meaning that you get high availability and disaster recovery. a) processing b) scalability c) replication d) all of the mentioned 

67. Which of the following are the simplest NoSQL databases? a) Key-value b) Wide-column c) Document d) All of the mentioned 

68. ________ stores are used to store information about networks, such as social connections. a) Key-value b) Wide-column c) Document d) Graph 

69. NoSQL databases is used mainly for handling large volumes of ______________ data. a) unstructured b) structured c) semi-structured d) all of the mentioned 

70. Point out the wrong statement? a) Key feature of R was that its syntax is very similar to S b) R runs only on Windows computing platform and operating system c) R has been reported to be running on modern tablets, phones, PDAs, and game consoles d) R functionality is divided into a number of Packages 

71. R functionality is divided into a number of ________ a) Packages b) Functions c) Domains d) Classes 

72. Which Package contains most fundamental functions to run R? a) root b) child c) base d) parent 

73. Point out the wrong statement? a) One nice feature that R shares with many popular open source projects is frequent releases b) R has sophisticated graphics capabilities c) S’s base graphics system allows for very fine control over essentially every aspect of a plot or graph d) All of the mentioned 

74. Which of the following is a base package for R language? a) util b) lang 

c) tools d) spatial 

75. Which of the following is “Recommended” package in R? a) util b) lang c) stats d) spatial 

76. What is the output of getOption(“defaultPackages”) in R studio? a) Installs a new package b) Shows default packages in R c) Error d) Nothing will prin 

77. Which of the following is used for Statistical analysis in R language? a) RStudio b) Studio c) Heck d) KStudio 

78. In R language, a vector is defined that it can only contain objects of the ________ a) Same class b) Different class c) Similar class d) Any class 

79. A list is represented as a vector but can contain objects of ___________ a) Same class b) Different class c) Similar class d) Any class 

80. How can we define ‘undefined value’ in R language? a) Inf b) Sup c) Und d) NaN 

81. What is NaN called? a) Not a Number b) Not a Numeric c) Number and Number d) Number a Numeric 

82. How can we define ‘infinity’ in R language? a) Inf b) Sup c) Und d) NaN 

83. Which one of the following is not a basic datatype? a) Numeric b) Character c) Data frame d) Integer 

84. Matrices can be created by row-binding with the help of the following function. a) rjoin() b) rbind() c) rowbind() d) rbinding() 

85. What is the function used to test objects (returns a logical operator) if they are NA? a) is.na() b) is.nan() c) as.na() d) as.nan() 

86. What is the function used to test objects (returns a logical operator) if they are NaN? a) as.nan() b) is.na() c) as.na() d) is.nan() 

87. What is the function to set column names for a matrix? a) names() b) colnames() c) col.names() d) column name cannot be set for a matrix 

88. The most convenient way to use R is at a graphics workstation running a ________ system. a) windowing b) running c) interfacing d) matrix 

89. Point out the wrong statement? a) Setting up a workstation to take full advantage of the customizable features of R is a 

straightforward thing b) q() is used to quit the R program c) R has an inbuilt help facility similar to the man facility of UNIX d) Windows versions of R have other optional help systems also 

90. Point out the wrong statement? a) Windows versions of R have other optional help system also b) The help.search command (alternatively ??) allows searching for help in various ways c) R is case insensitive as are most UNIX based packages, so A and a are different symbols and would refer to different variables d) $ R is used to start the R program 

91. Elementary commands in R consist of either _______ or assignments. a) utilstats b) language c) expressions d) packages 

92. How to install for a package and all of the other packages on which for depends? a) install.packages (for, depends = TRUE) b) R.install.packages (“for”, depends = TRUE) c) install.packages (“for”, depends = TRUE) d) install (“for”, depends = FALSE) 

93. __________ function is used to watch for all available packages in library. a) lib() b) fun.lib() c) libr() d) library() 

94. Attributes of an object (if any) can be accessed using the ______ function. a) objects() b) attrib() c) attributes() d) obj() 

95. R objects can have attributes, which are like ________ for the object. a) metadata b) features c) expression d) dimensions 

96. ________ generate random Normal variates with a given mean and standard deviation. a) dnorm b) rnorm 

c) pnorm d) rpois 

97. Point out the correct statement? a) R comes with a set of pseudo-random number generators b) Random number generators cannot be used to model random inputs c) Statistical procedure does not require random number generation d) For each probability distribution there are typically three functions 

98. ______ evaluate the cumulative distribution function for a Normal distribution. a) dnorm b) rnorm c) pnorm d) rpois 

99. _______ generate random Poisson variates with a given rate. a) dnorm b) rnorm c) pnorm d) rpois 

100. Point out the wrong statement? a) For each probability distribution there are typically three functions b) For each probability distribution there are typically four functions c) r function is sufficient for simulating random numbers d) R comes with a set of pseudo-random number generators 

101. _________ is the most common probability distribution to work with. a) Gaussian b) Parametric c) Paradox d) Simulation 

102. Point out the correct statement? a) When simulating any random numbers it is not essential to set the random number seed b) It is not possible to generate random numbers from other probability distributions like the Poisson c) You should always set the random number seed when conducting a simulation d) Statistical procedure does not require random number generation 

103. _______ function is used to simulate binary random variables. a) dnorm b) rbinom() c) binom() d) rpois 

104. Point out the wrong statement? a) Drawing samples from specific probability distributions can be done with “s” functions b) The sample() function draws randomly from a specified set of (scalar) objects allowing you to sample from arbitrary distributions of numbers c) The sampling() function draws randomly from a specified set of objects d) You should always set the random number seed when conducting a simulation 

105. _______ grammar makes a clear distinction between your data and what gets displayed on the screen or page. a) ggplot1 b) ggplot2 c) d3.js d) ggplot3 

106. Point out the wrong statement? a) mean_se is used to calculate mean and standard errors on either side b) hmisc wraps up a selection of summary functions from Hmisc to make it easy to use c) plot is used to create a scatterplot matrix (experimental) d) translate_qplot_base is used for translating between qplot and base graphics 

107. Which of the following cuts numeric vector into intervals of equal length? a) cut_interval b) cut_time c) cut_number d) cut_date 

108. Which of the following is a plot to investigate the order in which observations were recorded? a) ggplot b) ggsave c) ggpcp d) ggorder 

109. ________ is used for translating between qplot and base graphics. a) translate_qplot_base b) translate_qplot_gpl c) translate_qplot_lattice d) translate_qplot_ggplot 

110. Which of the following is discrete state calculator? a) discrete_scale b) ggpcp c) ggfluctuation d) ggmissing 

111. Which of the following creates fluctuation plot? a) ggmissplot b) ggmissing c) ggfluctuation d) ggpcp 

112. __________ create a complete ggplot appropriate to a particular data type. a) autoplot b) is.ggplot c) printplot d) qplot_ggplot 

113. Which of the following creates a new ggplot plot from a data frame? a) qplot_ggplot b) ggplot.data.frame c) ggfluctuation d) ggmissplot 

 

 

 

 

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DATA ANALYTICS – KIT601 – Question Bank 

 

UNIT-1 

1. Data originally collected in the process of investigation are known as a) Foreign data b) Primary data c) Third data d) Secondary data e) None of these 

 

2. Statistical enquiry means 1. It is science for knowledge 2. Search for knowledge 3. Collection of anything 4. Search for knowledge with the help of statistical methods. e) None of these 

 

3. Cluster sampling means a) Sample is divided into number of sub-groups b) Sample are selected at regular interval c) Sample is obtained by conscious selection d) Universe is divided into groups e) None of these 

 

4. What is Secondary data? a) Data collected in the process of investigation b) Data collected from some other agency c) Data collected from questionnaire of a person d) Both A & B e) None of these 

 

5. What is information? a) Raw facts b) Processed data c) Understanding facts d) Knowing action on data e) None of these 

 

6. Data about rocks is an example of a) Time dependent data b) Time Independent data c) Location dependent data d) Location independent data e) None of these 

 

7. Range on temperature scale is termed as  a) Nominal data b) Ordinal data 

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c) Interval data d) Ratio data e) None of these 

 

8. Data in XML and CSV format is an example of a) Structure data b) Un-structure data c) Semi-structure data d) Both A & B e) None of these 

 

9. Which is not the characteristic of data a) Accuracy b) Consistency c) Granularity d) Redundant e) None of these 

 

10. Hadoop is a framework that works with a variety of related tools. Common cohorts include: a) MapReduce, Hive and HBase b) MapReduce, MySQL and Google Apps c) MapReduce, Hummer and Iguana d) MapReduce, Heron and Trumpet e) None of these 

 

11. Which is not the V in BIG data a) Volume b) Veracity c) Vigor d) Velocity e) None of these 

 

12. Which is not true about Traditional decision making? a) Does not require human intervention b) Takes a long time to come to decision c) Lacks systematic linkage in planning d) Provides limited scope of data analytics e) None of these 

 

13. Cloudera is a product of  a) Microsoft b) Apache c) Google d) Facebook e) None of these 

 

14. What is not true about MPP architecture a) Tightly coupled nodes b) High speed connection among nodes c) Disk are not shared 

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d) Uses lot of processors e) None of these 

 

15. The process of organizing and summarizing data in an easily readable format to communicate important information is known as a) Analysis b) Reporting c) Clustering d) Mining e) None of these 

 

16. Out of the following which is not a type of report a) Canned b) Dashboard c) Ad hoc response d) Alerts e) None of these 

 

17. Data Analysis is a process of? a) inspecting data b) cleaning data c) transforming data d) All of above e) None of these 

 

18. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? a) Data Mining b) Predictive Intelligence c) Business Intelligence d) Text Analytics e) None of these 

 

19. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e)  None of these 

 

20. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? a) answering yes/no questions about the data b) estimating numerical characteristics of the data c) modeling relationships within the data d) describing associations within the data e) None of these 

 

21. __________ may be defined as the data objects that do not comply with the general behavior or model of the data available. a) Outlier Analysis b) Evolution Analysis 

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c) Prediction d) Classification e) None of these 

 

22. What is the use of data cleaning? a) to remove the noisy data b) correct the inconsistencies in data c) transformations to correct the wrong data. d) All of the above e) None of these 

 

23. In data mining, this is a technique used to predict future behavior and anticipate the consequences of change. a) predictive technology b) disaster recovery c) phase change d) predictive modeling e) None of these 

 

24. What are the main components of Big Data? a) MapReduce b) HDFS c) HBASE d) All of these e) None of these 

 

25. ———- data that depends on data model and resides in a fixed field within a record. a) Structured data b) Un-Structured data c) Semi-Structured data d) Scattere e) None of these 

 

26. —————- is about developing code to enable the machine to learn to perform tasks and its basic principle is the automatic modeling of underlying that have generated the collected data. a) Data Science b) Data Analytics c) Data Mining d) Data Warehousing e) None of these 

 

27. —————– is an example of human generated unstructured data. a) YouTube data b) Satellite data c) Sensor data d) Seismic imagery data e) None of these 

 

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28. Height is an example of which type of attribute a) Nominal b) Binary c) Ordinal d) Numeric e) None of these 

 

29. ————-type of analytics describes what happened in past a) Descriptive b) Prescriptive c) Predictive d) Probability e) None of these 

 

30.   ————– data does not fits into a data model due to variations in contents a) Structured data b) Un - Structured data c) Semi Structured data d) Both B & C e) None of these 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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UNIT-2 

 

31. A and B are two events. If P(A, B) decreases while P(A) increases, which of the following is true? a) P(A|B) decreases b) P(B|A) decreases c) P(B) decreases d) All of above e) None of these 

 

32. Suppose we like to calculate P(H|E, F) and we have no conditional independence information. Which of the following sets of numbers are sufficient for the calculation? a) P(E, F), P(H), P(E|H), P(F|H) b) P(E, F), P(H), P(E, F|H) c) P(H), P(E|H), P(F|H) d) P(E, F), P(E|H), P(F|H) e) None of these 

 

33. Suppose you are given an EM algorithm that finds maximum likelihood estimates for a model with latent variables. You are asked to modify the algorithm so that it finds MAP estimates instead. Which step or steps do you need to modify? a) Expectation b) Maximization c) No modification necessary d) Both A & B e) None of these 

 

34. Compared to the variance of the Maximum Likelihood Estimate (MLE), the variance of the Maximum A Posteriori (MAP) estimate is ________ a) higher b) same c) lower d) it could be any of the above e) None of these 

 

35. Bayesian methods are important to our study of machine learning is that they provide a useful perspective for understanding many learning algorithms that do not ............................ manipulate probabilities. a) explicitly b) implicitly c) both a & b d) approximately e) None of these 

 

36. The results that we get after we apply Bayesian Theorem to a problem are, a) 100% accurate b) Estimated values c) Wrong values d) Only positive values e) None of these 

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37. The previous probabilities in Bayes theorem that are changed with the help of new available information are classified as a) independent probabilities b) posterior probabilities c) interior probabilities d) dependent probabilities e) None of these 

 

38. In contrast to the naive Bayes classifier, Bayesian belief networks allow stating conditional independence assumptions that apply to ............................... of the variables. a) subsets b) super sets c) empty set d) All of above e) None of these 

 

39. The naive Bayes classifier applies to learning tasks where each instance x is described by a conjunction of attribute values and where the target function f ( x ) can take on ................. value from some................... set V. a) one, finite b) any, infinite c) one, infinite d) any, finite e) None of these 

 

40. Bayes rule can be used to........................conditioned on one piece of evidence. a) solve queries b) increase complexity of a query c) decrease complexity of a query d) answer probabilistic queries e) None of these 

 

41.  Among which of the following mentioned statements can the Bayesian probability be applied? (i) In the cases, where we have one event (ii) In the cases, where we have two events (iii) In the cases, where we have three events (iv) In the cases, where we have more than three events 

 

Options: 

 

a) Only iv. b) All i., ii., iii. and iv. c) ii. and iv. d) Only ii. e) None of these 

 

42. How the Bayesian network can be used to answer any query? a) Full distribution b) Joint distribution 

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c) Partial distribution d) All of the mentioned above e) None of these 

 

43.  Which of the following methods do we use to find the best fit line for data in Linear Regression? a) Least Square Error b) Maximum Likelihood c) Logarithmic Loss d) Both A and B e) None of these 

 

44.  Linear Regression is a ..................... machine learning algorithm. a) supervised b) unsupervised c) reinforcement d) Both A & B e) None of these 

 

45. Which of the following statement is true about outliers in Linear regression? a) Linear regression is not sensitive to outliers b) Linear regression is sensitive to outliers c) Can’t say d) There are no outliers e) None of these 

 

46. Which of the following sentence is FALSE regarding regression? a) It relates inputs to outputs. b) It is used for prediction. c) It may be used for interpretation. d) It discovers causal relationships. e) None of these 

 

47. Which of the following methods do we use to best fit the data in Logistic Regression? a) Least Square Error b) Maximum Likelihood c) Jaccard distance d) Both A & B e) None of these 

 

48. Which of the following option is true? a) Linear Regression errors values has to be normally distributed but in case of Logistic Regression it is not the case b) Logistic Regression errors values has to be normally distributed but in case of Linear Regression it is not the case c) Both Linear Regression and Logistic Regression error values have to be normally distributed d) Both Linear Regression and Logistic Regression error values have not to be normally distributed e) None of these 

 

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49. A decision tree is also known as a) general tree b) binary tree c) prediction tree d) fuzzy tree e) None of these 

 

50. The confusion matrix is a useful tool for analyzing a) Regression b) Classification c) Sampling d) Cross Validation e) None of these 

 

51. In regression the independent variable is also called as ———– a) Regressor b) Continuous c) Regressand d) Estimated e) None of these 

 

52. ————— searches for the linear optimal separating hyperplane for separation of the data using essential training tuples called support vectors a) Decision tree b) Association Rule Mining c) Clustering d) Support vector machines e) None of these 

 

53. Which of the following is used as attribute selection measure in decision tree algorithms? a) Information Gain b) Posterior probability c) Prior probability d) Support e) None of these 

 

54. ———- is unsupervised technique aiming to divide a multivariate dataset into clusters or groups. a) KNN b) SVM c) Regression d) Cluster Analysis e) None of these 

 

55. A perfect negative correlation is signified by ————- a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) 2 

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e) None of these 

 

56. ———— rule mining is a technique to identify underlying relations between different items. a) Classification b) Regression c) Clustering d) Association e) None of these 

 

57. ———– is supervised machine learning algorithm outputs an optimal hyperplane for given labeled training data a) KNN b) SVM c) Regression d) Decision Tree e) None of these 

 

58. Which of the following is measure used in decision trees while selecting splitting criteria that partitions data into the best possible manner. a) Probability b) Gini Index c) Regression d) Confusion matrix e) None of these 

 

59. Which of the following is not a type of clustering algorithm? a) Density clustering b) K-Means clustering c)  Centroid clustering d) Simple clustering e) None of these 

 

60.  —— answers the questions like ” How can we make it happen?” a) Descriptive b) Prescriptive c) Predictive d) Probability e) None of these 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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UNIT-3 

 

61. Some company wants to divide their customers into distinct groups to send offers this is an example of a) Data Extraction b) Data Classification c) Data Discrimination d) Data Selection e) None of these 

 

62. When do we use Manhattan distance in data mining? a) Dimension of the data decreases b) Dimension of the data increases c) Under fitting d) Moderate size of the dimensions e) None of these 

 

63. When there is no impact on one variable when increase or decrease on other variable then it is ———— a) Perfect correlation b) Positive correlation c) Negative correlation d) No correlation e) None of these 

 

64. Apriori algorithm uses breadth first search and ————structure to count candidate item sets efficiently. a) Decision tree b) Hash Tree c) Red-Black Tree d) AVL Tree e) None of these 

 

65. To determine basic salary of an employee when his qualification is given is a ———– problem a) Correlation b) Regression c) Association d) Qualitative e) None of these 

 

66. ————the step is performed by data scientist after acquiring the data. a) Data Cleansing b) Data Integration c) Data Replication d) Data loading e) None of these 

 

67. ———– is an indication of how often the rule has been found to be true in association rule mining. a) Confidence 

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b) Support c) Lift d) Accuracy e) None of these 

 

68. Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? a) Stream data is always unstructured data. b) Stream data often has a high velocity. c) Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. d) Stream data is always structured data. e) None of these 

 

69. A Bloom filter guarantees no a) false positives b) false negatives c) false positives and false negatives d) false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type e) None of these 

 

70. The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: a) Estimate the number of distinct elements. b) Sample data with a time-sensitive window. c) Estimate the frequent elements. d) Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. e) None of these 

 

71 The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last k bits of a stream window N. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? a) The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. b) The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. c) To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. d) Only 1’s can be estimated not 0’s e) None of these 

 

72. What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? a) DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% b) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% c) DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% d) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% e) None of these 

 

73. Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? a) Misra-Gries b) Alon-Matias-Szegedy c) DGIM d) Apriori e) None of these 

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74. Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? a) It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. b) A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. c) It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more space. d) A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element. e) None of these 

 

75. ETL stands for ________________ a) Extraction transformation and loading b) Extract Taken Lend c) Enterprise Transfer Load d) Entertainment Transference Load e) None of these 

 

76. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches?  a) Data Mining b) Predictive Intelligence c).Business Intelligence  d) Text Analytics e) None of these 

 

77. What do you mean by Real Time ANALYTICS  platform. a) Manages and process data and helps timely decision making b helps to develop dynamic analysis application c) leads to evolution of  non business intelligence d) hadoop e)None of these 

 

78. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician?  a)  William S. b)Hans Peter Luhn c) Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro d) John Tukey e)None of these 

79 Which of the following is a wrong statement. a). The big volume actually represents Big Data b). Big Data is just about tons of data c). The data growth and social media explosion have improved that how we look at the data d). All of these e). None of these 

 

80 Which of the following emphases on the discovery of earlier properties that are not known on the data? a) Machine Learning b). Big Data c). Data wrangling d). Data mining e)None of these 

 

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81 What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? a)DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% b)DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% c)DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% d)DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% e)None of these 

82 A Bloom filter guarantees no a)false positives b)false negatives c)false positives and false negatives d)false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter e)None of these 

 

83. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a) DGIM operates on a time-based window.  b) In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  c) The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand.  d) The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream.  e)None of these 

 

84  What are two differences between large-scale computing and big data processing? a)hardware b) Data is more suitable for finding new patterns in data than Large Scale Computing c) amount of processing time available d) amount of data processed e)None of these 

 

85 In Flajolet-Martin algorithm if the stream contains n elements with m of them unique, this algorithm runs in a) O(n) time  b) constant time c) O(2n) time d) O(3n)time e)None of these 

 

86 What are two differences between large-scale computing and big data processing? a) hardware  b) Data is more suitable for finding new patterns in data than Large Scale Computing  c) amount of processing time available  d) number of passes made over the data  e)None of these 

 

87 what does it mean when an algorithm is said to 'scale well'? a) The running time does not increase exponentially when data becomes longer.  b)The result quality goes up when the data becomes larger.  c) The memory usage does not increase exponentially when data becomes larger.  d) The result quality remains the same when the data becomes larger.  e)None of these 

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89The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: a)Estimate the number of distinct elements. b)Sample data with a time-sensitive window. c)Estimate the frequent elements. d)Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. e)None of these 

 

90Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming? a)Limited amount of memory b)Limited amount of processing time c)Limited amount of input data d)Limited amount of processing power e)None of these 

 

UNIT 4 

 

91 Which of the following clustering type has characteristic shown in the below figure? 

 

a) Exploratory b) Inferential c) Causal d) Hierarchical Clustering e)None of these 

 

92 Which of the following dimension type graph is shown in the below figure? 

 

 

a) one-dimensional b) two-dimensional c) three-dimensional d) four-dimensional e)None of these 

 

93 Which of the following gave rise to need of graphs in data analysis? a)Data visualization b) Communicating results 

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c) Decision making d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 

 

94Which of the following is characteristic of exploratory graph? a) Made slowly b) Axes are not cleaned up c) Color is used for personal information d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 

 

95Color and shape are used to add dimensions to graph data. a)True b) False c)Dilemma d)Incorrect Statement e)None of these 

 

96.Which of the following information is not given by five-number summary? a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 

 

97.Which of the following is also referred to as overlayed 1D plot? a)lattice b) barplot c) gplot d) all of the mentioned e)None of these 

 

98.Spinning plots can be used for two dimensional data. a)True b) False c)Incorrect d)Not Sure e)None of these 

 

99 Point out the correct statement. a) coplots are one dimensional data graph b) Exploratory graphs are made quickly c) Exploratory graphs are made relatively less in number d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 

 

100 Which of the following clustering technique is used by K- Means Algorithm a)HierarchicalTechnique b)Partitional technique  c)Divisive 

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d) Agglomerative  e)None of these 

 

101.SON algorithm is also known as  a)PCY Algorithm b MultistageAlgorithm c)Multihash Algorithm d)Partition Algorithm D e)None of these 

 

102. Which technique is used to filter unnecessary itemset in PCY algorithm a )Association Rule  b)Hashing Technique  c)Data Mining  d)Market basket B e)None of these 

 

103 In association rule, which of the following indicates the measure of how frequently the items occur in a dataset ? a)Support  b)Confidence  c)Basket  d)Itemset e)None of these 

 

104.Which term indicated the degree of corelation in dataset between X and Y, if the given association rule given is X-->Y a)Confidence  b)Monotonicity  c)Distinct  d)Hashing e)None of these 

 

105.During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. a) DataNode b) NameNode c) ActionNode d) Data Action Node e)None of these 

 

106 Which of the following scenario may not be a good fit for HDFS?  a) HDFS is not suitable for scenarios requiring multiple/simultaneous writes to thesame file b) HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access c) HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access d) HDFS is suitable for scenarios requiring multiple/simultaneous writes to thesame file e)None of these 

 

Department of Information Technology 

 

107________ is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks. a) DataNode b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e)None of these 

 

108.HDFS provides a command line interface called __________ used to interact with HDFS. a) “HDFS Shell” b) “FS Shell” c) “DFS Shell” d) None of the mentioned e)None of these   109 What is CLIQUE ? a)CLIQUE is a grid based method for finding density based clusters in subspaces. b)CLIQUE is a click method c)used to prune non- promising cells and to improve efficiency d)used to measure distance e)None of these 

 

110 CLIQUE stands for ?  a) Clustering in QUEst b) Common in Quest c)Calculate in Quest d)Click in Quest e)None of these 

 

111What is approaches for high dimensional data clustering  a)Subspace clustering b)Projected clustering and Biclustering. c) Data Clustering d)Space Clustering e)None of these 

 

112Applications of frequent itemset analysis  a) Related concepts ,Plagiarism , Biomarkers b)CLUSTERING c)Design d)Operation e)None of these 

 

113. k-means is a ………..based algorithm or distance based algorithm where we calculate the distances to assign a point to a cluster a) centroid b)Distance c)Neuron d)Dendron e) None of these 

 

Department of Information Technology 

114--------is an algorithm for frequent item set mining and association rule learning       over relational databases a)Confidence b) Apriori c)Disadvantage d)Market basket e) None of these 

 

115 The HBase database includes the Hadoop list, the Apache Mahout ________ system, and matrix operations. A.  Statistical classification B. Pattern recognition C. Machine learning D. Artificial intelligence E. All of these 

 

116 To discover interesting relations between objects in larger databases is a objective of ---- a) Freqent Set Mining b)Market basket Mining c) association rules mining d) Confidence Gain e) None of these 

 

117 Different methods for storing itemset count in  main memory. a)The triangular matrix method  b)The triples method c)Angular method d)Square Method e) None of these 

 

118 ------used to prune non- promising cells and to improve efficiency. a)market basket b)frequent itemset c)Support d) aprioriproperty e) None of these 

 

119 dentify the algorithm in which, on the first pass we count the item themselves and then determine which items are frequent. On the second pass we count only the pairs of item both of which are found frequent on first pass  a)DGIM  b)CURE  c)Pagerank  d)Apriori  e)None of these 120 A resource used for sharing data globally by all nodes is a)Distributed b) Cache Centralised Cache  c)secondry memory d)primarymemory e) None of these 

Department of Information Technology 

 

Unit 5 121.Input to the                is the sorted output of the mappers.  a) Reducer b) Mapper c) Shuffle  d) All of the above e)None of these 

 

122. Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? a)Stream data is always unstructured data. b)Stream data often has a high velocity. c)Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. d)Stream data is always structured data. e)None of these 

 

123 The output of the                is not sorted in the Mapreduce framework for Hadoop.  (A) Mapper (B) Cascader (C) Scalding (D) None of the above e) None of these 

 

124: Which of the following phases occur simultaneously?  (A) Reduce and Sort (B) Shuffle and Sort (C) Shuffle and Map d)sort and ruduce  e) None of these 

 

125.A ________ serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster. a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e) None of these 

 

126.HDFS works in a __________ fashion. a) master-worker b) master-slave c) worker/slave d) all of the mentioned e) None of these 

 

127.________ NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down. a) Rack b) Data c) Secondary d) None of the mentioned e) None of these 

 

Department of Information Technology 

128 Point out the wrong statement. a) Replication Factor can be configured at a cluster level (Default is set to 3) and also at a file level b) Block Report from each DataNode contains a list of all the blocks that are stored on that DataNode c) User data is stored on the local file system of DataNodes d) DataNode is aware of the files to which the blocks stored on it belong to e) None of these 

 

129 The need for data replication can arise in various scenarios like ____________ a) Replication Factor is changed b) DataNode goes down c) Data Blocks get corrupted d) All of the mentioned e) None of these 

 

130.For YARN, the ___________ Manager UI provides host and port information. a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Resource d) Replication e) None of these   131 HDFS works in a __________ fashion.  a)worker-master fashion  b)master-slave fashion  c)master-worker fashion  d)slave-master e)None of these 

 

132HDFS is implemented in _____________ language. a) C  b)Perl  c)Python  d)Java  e)none of these 

 

133 The default block size in hadoop is ______.  a)16MB b) 32MB  c)64MB  d)128MB e) none of these 

 

134. ____ can best be described as a programming model used to develop Hadoop-based applications that can process massive amounts of data.  a)MapReduce  b)Mahout  c)Oozie  d)Hbase  e)None of these 

 

Department of Information Technology 

135 Mapper and Reducer implementations can use the                   to report progress or just indicate that they are alive. (A) Partitioner (B) OutputCollector (C) Reporter (D) All of the above e) None of these 

 

136                      is a generalization of the facility provided by the MapReduce framework to collect data output by the Mapper or the Reducer. (A) Partitioner (B) OutputCollector (C) Reporter (D) All of the above e) None of these 

 

137 A                  serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster.  a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e) None of these 

 

138 HDFS works in a                       fashion. (A)a)masterworker   b) master-slave c) worker/slave d) All of the above e) None of these 

 

139                   NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down.  a) Rack b) Data c) Secondary d) None e)none of these 

 

140 HDFS is implemented in                             programming language. ( a) C++ b) Java c) Scala d) None e) None of these 

 

141 Hadoop developed by _______________  a)Larry Page  b)Doug Cutting  c)Mark  d)Bill Gates  e) None of these 

 

Department of Information Technology 

142.The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely __________.  a)mapped, reduce  b)mapping, Reduction c) Map, Reduction d) Map, Reduce e)None of these 

 

143.mapper and reducer classes extends classes from the package a) org.apache.hadd  op.mapreduce  b)apache.hadoop  c)org.mapreduce  d)hadoop.mapreduce e) None of these 

 

144.HDFS inherited from ------------- file system.  a)Yahoo b) FTFS  c)Google  d)Rediff  e) none of these 

 

145                NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down.  a) Rack b) Data c) Secondary d) Primary e) None of these 

 

146 HDFS works in a                      fashion. a) master-worker  b) master-slave  c) worker/slave d) All of the above e) None of these 

 

147: A                  serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster.  a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e) None of these 

 

148 HDFS provides a command line interface called                       used to interact with HDFS. a) HDFS Shell b) FS Shell c) DFSA Shell d) NO shell e) None of these 

 

 

Department of Information Technology 

149                 is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks. a) DataNode  b) NameNode  c) Data lock  d) Replication e) None of these 

 

150.                    is the primary interface for a user to describe a MapReduce job to the Hadoop framework for execution.  a) Map Parameters b) JobConf c) MemoryConf d) All of the above e) None of these 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Department of Information Technology 

Data Analytics KIT-601 Answer key UNIT-1 UNIT-2 UNIT-3 UNIT-4 UNIT-5 1-b 31-b 61-b 91-d 121-a 2-d 32-b 62-b 92-b 122-b 3-d 33-b 63-d 93-d 123-d 4-b 34-c 64-b 94-c 124-a 5-b 35-a 65-d 95-a 125-b 6-c 36-b 66-a 96-c 126-a 7-c 37-b 67-a 97-a 127-c 8-c 38-a 68-b 98-a 128-a 9-d 39-d 69-b 99-a 129-d 10-a 40-d 70-a 100-b 130-c 11-c 41-d 71-b 101-d 131-b 12-a 42-b 72-b 102-b 132-d 13-b 43-a 73-e 103-a 133-c 14-a 44-a 74-d 104-a 134-a 15-b 45-b 75-a 105-b 135-c 16-c 46-d 76-b 106-a,d 136-b 17-d 47-b 77-a,b 107-a 137-b 18-b 48-a 78-d 108-b 138-a 19-a 49-c 79-b 109-a 139-c 20-c 50-b 80-d 110-a 140-b 21-a 51-a 81-b 111-a,b 141-b 22-d 52-d 82-b 112-a 142-d 23-d 53-a 83-c,d 113-a 143-a 24-d 54-d 84-a,b 114-b 144-c 25-a 55-c 85-a 115-c,d 145-c 26-b 56-d 86-b 116-c 146-b 27-a 57-b 87-a,b 117-a,b 147-b 28-d 58-b 88-c 118-b 148-b 29-a 59-d 89-a,d 119-d 149-a 30-b 60-b 90-c 120-a 150-b 

***************Data Analytics MCQs Set - 1*************** 

 

1. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods 

is classified as 

 

1. industry statistics 

2. economic statistics 

3. applied statistics 

4. applied statistics 

 

Answer: applied statistics 

 

2. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? 

 

1. answering yes/no questions about the data 

2. estimating numerical characteristics of the data 

3. modeling relationships within the data 

4. describing associations within the data 

 

Answer: modeling relationships within the data 

 

3. Text Analytics, also referred to as Text Mining? 

 

1. True Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. False 

3. Can be true or False 

4. Can not say 

 

Answer: True 

 

4. What is a hypothesis? 

 

1. A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study. 

2. A research question the results will answer. 

3. A theory that underpins the study. 

4. A statistical method for calculating the extent to which the results could have happened by 

chance. 

 

Answer: A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study. 

 

5. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analysing data during a single research 

study called? 

 

1. Interim Analysis 

2. Inter analysis 

3. inter item analysis 

4. constant analysis 

 

Answer: Interim Analysis 

 

6. The process of quantifying data is referred to as ____ Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

1. Topology 

2. Digramming 

3. Enumeration 

4. coding 

 

Answer: Enumeration 

 

7. An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they _ 

 

1. Can reduce time required to analyse data (i.e., after the data are transcribed) 

2. Help in storing and organising data 

3. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time constraints 

4. All of the above 

 

Answer: All of the Above 

 

8. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: True 

 

9. ______ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data. 

 

1. Categories Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. Units 

3. Individuals 

4. None of the above 

 

Answer: Categories 

 

10. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written interviews or field notes into typed text. 

 

1. Segmenting 

2. Coding 

3. Transcription 

4. Mnemoning 

 

Answer: Transcription 

 

11. A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that are unwieldy and complex; it is a major challenge to make sense of the large pool of data. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: True 

 

12. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics. 

 

1. True 

2. False Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: False 

 

13. A set of data organised in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns) format is known as a “data set.” 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: True 

 

14. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ___ 

 

1. Line graph 

2. Bar graph 

3. Scatterplot 

4. Vertical graph 

 

Answer: Bar graph 

 

15. ____ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two 

quantitative variables. 

 

1. Bar graph 

2. pie graph 

3. line graph 

4. Scatterplot Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: Scatterplot 

 

16. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is 

 

1. The standard deviation 

2. The difference between a score and the mean 

3. The range 

4. The mean 

 

Answer: The standard deviation 

 

17. Which of these distributions is used for a testing hypothesis? 

 

1. Normal Distribution 

2. Chi-Squared Distribution 

3. Gamma Distribution 

4. Poisson Distribution 

 

Answer: Chi-Squared Distribution 

 

18. A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called? 

 

1. Statistic 

2. Hypothesis 

3. Level of Significance 

4. Test-Statistic Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: Hypothesis 

 

19. If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is called? 

 

1. Null Hypothesis 

2. Statistical Hypothesis 

3. Simple Hypothesis 

4. Composite Hypothesis 

 

Answer: Null Hypothesis 

 

20. If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted? 

 

1. Null Hypothesis 

2. Positive Hypothesis 

3. Negative Hypothesis 

4. Alternative Hypothesis. 

 

Answer: Alternative Hypothesis. 

 

21. Alternative Hypothesis is also called as? 

 

1. Composite hypothesis 

2. Research Hypothesis 

3. Simple Hypothesis 

4. Null Hypothesis Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: Research Hypothesis 

*************** Data Analytics MCQs Set – 2 *************** 

 

 

1. What is the minimum no. of variables/ features required to perform clustering? 

 

1.0 

2.1 

3.2 

4.3 

 

Answer: 1 

 

2. For two runs of K-Mean clustering is it expected to get same clustering results? 

 

1. Yes 

2. No 

 

Answer: No 

 

3. Which of the following algorithm is most sensitive to outliers? Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

1. K-means clustering algorithm 

2. K-medians clustering algorithm 

3. K-modes clustering algorithm 

4. K-medoids clustering algorithm 

 

Answer: K-means clustering algorithm 

 

4. The discrete variables and continuous variables are two types of 

 

1. Open end classification 

2. Time series classification 

3. Qualitative classification 

4. Quantitative classification 

 

Answer: Quantitative classification 

 

5. Bayesian classifiers is 

 

1. A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory. 

2. Any mechanism employed by a learning system to constrain the search space of a hypothesis 

3. An approach to the design of learning algorithms that is inspired by the fact that when people encounter new situations, they often explain them by reference to familiar experiences, adapting the explanations to fit the new situation. 

4. None of these 

 Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

Answer: A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory. 

 

6. Classification accuracy is 

 

1. A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes 

2. Measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory 

3. The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples 

4. None of these 

 

 

Answer: Measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory 

 

7. Euclidean distance measure is 

 

1. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection. 

2. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some pre-defined order and then testing them 

3. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem 

4. none of above 

 

Answer: The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem 

 

8. Hybrid is 

 

1. Combining different types of method or information Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. Approach to the design of learning algorithms that is structured along the lines of the theory of evolution. 

3. Decision support systems that contain an information base filled with the knowledge of an expert formulated in terms of if-then rules. 

4. none of above 

 

Answer: Combining different types of method or information 

 

9. Decision trees use , in that they always choose the option that seems the best available at that moment. 

 

1. Greedy Algorithms 

2. divide and conquer 

3. Backtracking 

4. Shortest path algorithm 

 

Answer: Greedy Algorithms 

 

10. Discovery is 

 

1. It is hidden within a database and can only be recovered if one is given certain clues (an example IS encrypted information). 

2. The process of executing implicit previously unknown and potentially useful information from data 

3. An extremely complex molecule that occurs in human chromosomes and that carries genetic 

information in the form of genes. 

4. None of these 

 Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

Answer: The process of executing implicit previously unknown and potentially useful information from data 

 

11. Hidden knowledge referred to 

 

1. A set of databases from different vendors, possibly using different database paradigms 

2. An approach to a problem that is not guaranteed to work but performs well in most cases 

3. Information that is hidden in a database and that cannot be recovered by a simple SQL query. 

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Information that is hidden in a database and that cannot be recovered by a simple SQL query. 

 

12. Decision trees cannot handle categorical attributes with many distinct values, such as country codes for telephone numbers. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: False 

 

15. CNMICHMENT IS 

 

1. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection 

2. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some pre-defined order and then testing them 

3. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem. 

4. None of these Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection 

 

14. are easy to implement and can execute efficiently even without prior knowledge of the data, they are among the most popular algorithms for classifying text documents. 

 

1. 1D3 

2. Naive Bayes classifiers 

3. CART 

4. None of above 

 

Answer: Naive Bayes classifiers 

 

15. High entropy means that the partitions in classification are 

 

1. Pure 

2. Not Pure 

3. Usefull 

4. useless 

 

Answer: Uses a single processor or computer 

 

16. Which of the following statements about Naive Bayes is incorrect? 

 

1. Attributes are equally important. 

2. Attributes are statistically dependent of one another given the class value. 

3. Attributes are statistically independent of one another given the class value. Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

4. Attributes can be nominal or numeric 

 

Answer: Attributes are statistically dependent of one another given the class value. 

 

17. The maximum value for entropy depends on the number of classes so if we have 8 Classes what will be the max entropy. 

 

1. Max Entropy is 1 

2. Max Entropy is 2 

3. Max Entropy is 3 

4. Max Entropy is 4 

 

Answer: Max Entropy is 3 

 

18. Point out the wrong statement. 

 

1. k-nearest neighbor is same as k-means 

2. k-means clustering is a method of vector quantization 

3. k-means clustering aims to partition n observations into k clusters 

4. none of the mentioned 

 

Answer: k-nearest neighbor is same as k-means 

 

19. Consider the following example “How we can divide set of articles such that those articles have the same theme (we do not know the theme of the articles ahead of time) ” is this: 

 

1. Clustering 

2. Classification Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

3. Regression 

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Clustering 

 

20. Can we use K Mean Clustering to identify the objects in video? 

 

1. Yes 

2. No 

 

Answer: Yes 

 

21. Clustering techniques are in the sense that the data scientist does not determine, in advance, the labels to apply to the clusters. 

 

1. Unsupervised 

2. supervised 

3. Reinforcement 

4, Neural network 

 

Answer: Unsupervised 

 

22. metric is examined to determine a reasonably optimal value of k. 

 

1. Mean Square Error 

2. Within Sum of Squares (WSS) 

3. Speed Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Within Sum of Squares (WSS) 

 

23. If an itemset is considered frequent, then any subset of the frequent itemset must also be frequent. 

 

1. Apriori Property 

2. Downward Closure Property 

3. Either 1 or 2 

4. Both 1 and 2 

 

Answer: Both 1 and 2Z 

 

24. if {bread,eggs,milk} has a support of 0.15 and {bread,eggs} also has a support of 0.15, the confidence of rule {bread,eggs} = {milk} is 

 

1.0 

2.1 

3.2 

4.3 

 

Answer: 1 

 

25. Confidence is a measure of how X and Y are really related rather than coincidentally happeningtogether. 

 

1. True Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. False 

 

Answer: False 

 

26. recommend items based on similarity measures between users and/or items. 

 

1. Content Based Systems 

2. Hybrid System 

3. Collaborative Filtering Systems 

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Collaborative Filtering Systems 

 

27. There are major Classification of Collaborative Filtering Mechanisms 

 

1.1 

2.2 

3.3 

4. none of above 

 

Answer: 2 

 

28. Movie Recommendation to people is an example of 

 

1. User Based Recommendation 

2. Item Based Recommendation 

3. Knowledge Based Recommendation Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

4. content based recommendation 

 

Answer: Item Based Recommendation 

 

29. recommenders rely on an explicitely defined set of recommendation rules 

 

1. Constraint Based 

2. Case Based 

3. Content Based 

4. User Based 

 

Answer: Case Based 

 

30. Parallelized hybrid recommender systems operate dependently of one another and produce separate recommendation lists. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: False

COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 1 DataAnalytics(KIT601)

1. The data with no pre-defined organizational form or specific format is  

a. Semi-structured data b. Unstructured data c. Structured data d. None of these 

Ans. b 

 

a. Categorical data  b. Interval data c. Ordinal data  d. Ratio data  

 

Ans. c 

 

Ans. c 

 

2. The data which can be ordered or ranked according to some relationship to one another is  

 

3. Predict the future by examining historical data, detecting patterns or relationships in these data, and then extrapolating these relationships forward in time. a. Prescriptive model b. Descriptive model      c. Predictive model d. None of these 

 

Ans. b 

 

Ans. a 

 

Ans. c 

Ans. d 

4. Person responsible for the genesis of the project,  providing the impetus for the project and core business  problem, generally provides the funding and will gauge  the degree of value from the final outputs of the working  team is a. Business User b. Project Sponsor c. Business  Intelligence  Analyst d. Data Engineer 

 

5. Deep technical skills to assist with tuning SQL queries for  data management, extraction and support data ingest to  analytic sandbox is handled by ___________.  a. Data Engineer b. Business User c. Project Sponsor d. Business  Intelligence  Analyst 

 

6. Business domain expertise with deep understanding of the data, KPIs, key metrics and business intelligence from a reporting perspective is key role of ____________. 

 

a. Business User b. Project Sponsor c. Business  Intelligence  Analyst d. Data Engineer 

 

7. _____________ is concerned with uncertainty or inaccuracy of the data. 

 

a.  Volume b. Velocity c. Variety  d. Veracity 

 

Ans. d 

 

Ans. d 

Ans. True 

11. The process of exploring data and reports in order to extract meaningful insights, which can be used to better understand and improve business performance. 

a. Reporting  b. Analysis  c. Summarizing d. None of these  

 

Ans. b 

Ans. a 

8. What are the V’s in the characteristics of Big data? a. Volume b. Velocity c. Variety  d. All of these 

 

9. What are the types of reporting in data analytics? 

a. Canned reports  b. Dashboard reports c. Alert reports     d. All of above 

 

10.Massive Parallel Processing (MPP) database breaks the data into independent chunks with independent disk and CPU resources. 

a. True  b. False 

 

12. The key components of an analytical sandbox are:  (i) Business analytics (ii) Analytical sandbox platform  (iii) Data access and delivery  (iv) Data sources  

 

a. True  b. False 

 


 

Ans. b 

 

14. Which phase Prepare an analytic sandbox, in which you can work for the duration of the project. Perform ELT and ETL to get data into the sandbox, and begin transforming the data so you can work with it and analyze it. Familiarize yourself with the data thoroughly and take steps to condition the data.  

a. Data preparation  b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building  Ans. a 

 

Ans.b 

Ans. a 

13. The ____________phase learn the business domain, including relevant history, such as whether the organization or business unit has attempted similar projects in the past, from which you can learn. Assess the resources you will have to support the project, in terms of people, technology, time, and data. Frame the business problem as an analytic challenge that can be addressed in subsequent phases. Formulate initial hypotheses (IH) to test and begin learning the data.  a. Data preparation b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 

 

15. Which phase uses SQL, Python, R, or excel to perform various data modifications and transformations.  

 

a. Data preparation  b. Data cleaning c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 

 

16. By definition, Database Administrator is a person who ___________ 

 

a. Provisions and configures database environment to support the analytical needs of the working team. b. Ensure key milestones and objectives are met on time and at expected quality. c. Deep technical skills to assist with tuning SQL queries for data management, extraction and support data ingest to analytic sandbox. d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

Ans. c 

Ans. b 

Ans .b 

17. ETL stands for  

 

a. Extract, Load, Transform b. Evaluate, Transform ,Load c. Extract , Loss , Transform d. None of the above 

 

18. The phase Develop data sets for testing, training, and production purposes. Get the best environment you can for executing models and workflows, including fast hardware and parallel processing is referred to as  

 

a. Data preparation  b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 

 

19. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 

a. Data Mining  b. Predictive Intelligence c. Business Intelligence d. Text Analytics 

 

20. User rating given to a movie in a scale 1-10, can be considered as an attribute of type? 

a. Nominal  b. Ordinal  c. Interval  d. Ratio 

 

Ans. d 

22. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 

a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Can be true or false  d. Cannot say 

 

Ans. a 

Ans. b 

Ans.b 

 

25. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 

a. Analytics b. Data mining c. Big Data d. Data Warehouse 

21. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 

a. William S.  b. Hans Peter Luhn  c. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro  d.  John Tukey 

 

23. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 

a. Data Mining  b. Predictive Intelligence c. Business Intelligence d. Text Analytics 

 

24. Which of the following step is performed by data scientist after acquiring the data? 

a. Data Cleansing b. Data Integration c. Data Replication d. All of the mentioned 

 


 

Ans. c 

 

26. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data. Is this true or False. a. TRUE b. FALSE 

 

Ans. a 

27. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 

a. TRUE b. FALSE 

 

Ans. b 

28. _____________ have a structure but cannot be stored in a database. 

 

a. Structured b. Semi-Structured c. Unstructured d. None of these 

 

Ans. b 

29. ____________refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business. 

 

a. Velocity b. Variety c. Value d. Volume 

 

Ans. c 

30. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy. 

 

a. TRUE b. FALSE 

 

Ans.b 

NPTEL Questions 

31. Analysing the data to answer why some phenomenon related to learning happened is a type of  

a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics 

c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 

Ans. B 

32. Analysing the data to answer what will happen next is a type of  

a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 

Ans. D 

33. Learning analytics at institutions/University, regional or national level is termed as  

a. Educational data mining  b. Business intelligence  c. Academic analytics d. None of the above 

Ans. C 

34. Which of the following questions is not a type of Predictive Analytics? 

a. What is the average score of all students in the CBSE 10th Maths Exam? b. What will be the performance of a students in next questions? c. Which courses will the student take in the next semester? d. What is the average attendance of the class over the semester 

Ans A,D 

35. A courses instructor has data about students attendance in her course in the past semester. Based on this data, she constructs a line graph type of analytics is she doing? 

a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 

Ans. A 

36. she then correlates the attendance with their final exam scores. She realizes that students who score 90% and above also have an attandence of more then 75%. What type of analytics is she doing? 

a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 

Ans. B 

38. Why one should not go for sampling?  

a. Less costly to administer than a census.  b. The person authorizing the study is comfortable with the sample.  c. Because the research process is sometimes destructive  d. None of the above 

Ans. d 

39. Stratified random sampling is a method of selecting a sample in which:  

a. the sample is first divided into strata, and then random samples are taken from each stratum  b. various strata are selected from the sample  c. the population is first divided into strata, and then random samples are drawn from each stratum  d. None of these alternatives is correct. 

Ans. c 

SET II 

1. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 

e. William S.  f. Hans Peter Luhn  g. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro  h.  John Tukey 

Ans D 

2. What is classification? 

 

a) deciding what features to use in a pattern recognition problem b) deciding what class an input pattern belongs to c) deciding what type of neural network to use d) none of the mentioned 

Ans. B 

 

3. Data in ___________ bytes size is called Big Data. 

 

A. Tera B. Giga C. Peta D. Meta 

 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: data in Peta bytes i.e. 10^15 byte size is called Big Data. 4. How many V's of Big Data 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Big Data was defined by the “3Vs” but now there are “5Vs” of Big Data which are Volume, Velocity, Variety, Veracity, Value 

 

5. Transaction data of the bank is? 

 

A. structured data B. unstructured datat C. Both A and B D. None of the above 

 

Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Data which can be saved in tables are structured data like the transaction data of the bank. 6. In how many forms BigData could be found? 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 

 

Ans : B 

 

Explanation: BigData could be found in three forms: Structured, Unstructured and Semistructured. 7. Which of the following are Benefits of Big Data Processing? 

 

A. Businesses can utilize outside intelligence while taking decisions B. Improved customer service C. Better operational efficiency D. All of the above 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All of the above are Benefits of Big Data Processing. 

 

8. Which of the following are incorrect Big Data Technologies? 

 

A. Apache Hadoop B. Apache Spark C. Apache Kafka D. Apache Pytarch 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Apache Pytarch is incorrect Big Data Technologies. 9. The overall percentage of the world’s total data has been created just within the past two years is ? 

 

A. 80% B. 85% C. 90% D. 95% 

 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The overall percentage of the world’s total data has been created just within the past two years is 90%. 10. Apache Kafka is an open-source platform that was created by? 

 

A. LinkedIn B. Facebook 

C. Google D. IBM 

 

Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Apache Kafka is an open-source platform that was created by LinkedIn in the year 2011. 

 

11. What was Hadoop named after? 

 

A. Creator Doug Cutting’s favorite circus act B. Cuttings high school rock band C. The toy elephant of Cutting’s son D. A sound Cutting’s laptop made during Hadoop development 

 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Doug Cutting, Hadoop creator, named the framework after his child’s stuffed toy elephant. 12. What are the main components of Big Data? 

 

A. MapReduce B. HDFS C. YARN D. All of the above 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All of the above are the main components of Big Data. 

 

13. Point out the correct statement. 

 

A. Hadoop do need specialized hardware to process the data B. Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data C. In Hadoop programming framework output files are divided into lines or records D. None of the above 

 

Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Hadoop batch processes data distributed over a number of computers ranging in 100s and 1000s. 14. Which of the following fields come under the umbrella of Big Data? 

 

A. Black Box Data B. Power Grid Data 

C. Search Engine Data D. All of the above 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All options are the fields come under the umbrella of Big Data. 

 

15. Which of the following is not an example of Social Media? 1. Twitter 2. Google 3. Instagram 4. Youtube 

 

ANs: 2 (Google) 

16. By 2025, the volume of digital data will increase to 1. TB 2. YB 3. ZB 4. EB Ans: 3  ZB 

17. Data Analysis is a process of 1. inspecting data 2. cleaning data 3. transforming data 4. All of Above 

 

Ans. 4 All of above 

18. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 1. Data Mining 2. Predictive Intelligence 3. Business Intelligence 4. Text Analytics 

 

Ans. 2 Predictive Intelligence 

19. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 1. Analytics 2. Data mining 3. Big data 4. Data warehouse 

 

Ans. 3 Big data 

20. In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with ? 

1. Integer descriptor 2. floating descriptor 3. numerical descriptor 4. decimal descriptor 

 

Ans. 3 numerical descriptor 

21. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 

 

TRUE 

22. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 1. True 2. False 

 

False 

23. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 

 

False 

24. Hortonworks was introduced by Cloudera and owned by Yahoo 1. True 2. False 

 

False 

25. ____ refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business 1. Velocity 2. variety 3. Value 4. Volume 

 

Ans. 3 Value 

26. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 1. William S. 2. Hans Peter Luhn 3.  Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro 4.  John Tukey 

 

Ans. 4 John Tukey 

27. Files are divided into ____ sized Chunks. 1. Static 2. Dynamic 3. Fixed 4. Variable 

 

Ans. 3 Fixed 

28. _____ is an open source framework for storing data and running application on clusters of commodity hardware. 1. HDFS 2. Hadoop 3. MapReduce 4. Cloud 

 

Ans. 2 Hadoop 

29. ____ is factors considered before Adopting Big Data Technology 1. Validation 2. Verification 3. Data 4. Design 

 

Ans. 1 Validation 

30. Which among the following is not a Data mining and analytical applications? 1. profile matching 2. social network analysis 3. facial recognition 4. Filtering 

 

Ans. 4 Filtering 

31. Which storage subsystem can support massive data volumes of increasing size. 1. Extensibility 2. Fault tolerance 3. Scalability 4. High-speed I/O capacity 

 

Ans. 3 Scalability 

32. ______ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. 

1. HDFS 2. MAP REDUCE 3. HADOOP 4. HIVE Ans. MAP REDUCE 

 

 

33. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis? 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 

 

Ans : A 

 

Explanation: In data analysis, two main statistical methodologies are used Descriptive statistics and Inferential statistics. 

 

34. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say 

 

Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 

 

35. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as 1. industry statistics 2. economic statistics 3. applied statistics 4. applied statistics 

 

Ans. applied statistics 

36. Point out the correct statement. a) Descriptive analysis is first kind of data analysis performed b) Descriptions can be generalized without statistical modelling 

c) Description and Interpretation are same in descriptive analysis d) None of the mentioned 

 

Answer: b Explanation: Descriptive analysis describe a set of data. 

 

37. What are the five V’s of Big Data? 

A. Volume 

B. Velocity 

C. Variety 

D. All the above 

Answer: Option D 

 

38. What are the main components of Big Data? 

A. MapReduce 

B. HDFS 

C. YARN 

D. All of these 

Answer: Option D 

 

39. What are the different features of Big Data Analytics? 

A. Open-Source 

B. Scalability 

C. Data Recovery 

D. All the above 

Answer: Option D 

40.  Which of the following refers to the problem of finding abstracted patterns (or structures) in the unlabeled data? 

A. Supervised learning 

B. Unsupervised learning 

C. Hybrid learning 

D. Reinforcement learning 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Unsupervised learning is a type of machine learning algorithm that is generally used to find the hidden structured and patterns in the given unlabeled data. 

41. Which one of the following refers to querying the unstructured textual data? 

A. Information access 

B. Information update 

C. Information retrieval 

D. Information manipulation 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Information retrieval refers to querying the unstructured textual data. We can also understand information retrieval as an activity (or process) in which the tasks of obtaining information from system recourses that are relevant to the information required from the huge source of information. 

42. For what purpose, the analysis tools pre-compute the summaries of the huge amount of data? 

A. In order to maintain consistency 

B. For authentication 

C. For data access 

D. To obtain the queries response 

Answer: d 

Explanation: Whenever a query is fired, the response of the query would be put very earlier. So, for the query response, the analysis tools pre-compute the summaries of the huge amount of data. To understand it in more details, consider the following example: 

43. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the data cleaning? 

It refers to the process of data cleaning 

It refers to the transformation of wrong data into correct data 

It refers to correcting inconsistent data 

All of the above 

Answer: d 

Explanation: Data cleaning is a kind of process that is applied to data set to remove the noise from the data (or noisy data), inconsistent data from the given data. It also involves the process of transformation where wrong data is transformed into the correct data as well. In other words, we can also say that data cleaning is a kind of pre-process in which the given set of data is prepared for the data warehouse. 

44. Any data with unknown form or the structure is classified as _ data. a. Structured b. Unstructured c. Semi-structured d. None of above Ans. b 

 

45.____ means relating to the issuing of reports. a. Analysis b. Reporting c. Reporting and Analysis d. None of the above 

 

Ans. b 

 

46.Veracity involves the reliability of the data this is ________due to the numerous data sources of big data a) Easy and difficulty b) Easiness c) Demanding d) none of these 

 

Ans. c 47. ____is a process of defining the measurement of a phenomenon that is not directly measurable, though its existence is implied by other phenomena. a. Data preparation b. Model planning c. Communicating results d. Operationalization 

 

Ans. d 

 

48. _____data is data whose elements are addressable for effective analysis. 

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 

Ans. a 

49. ______data is information that does not reside in a relational database but that have some organizational properties that make it easier to analyze. 

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 

Ans. b 

50. ______data is a data which is not organized in a predefined manner or does not have a predefined data model, thus it is not a good fit for a mainstream relational database. 

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 

Ans. c 

51. There are ___ types of big data. 

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 

Ans. b 

52. Google search is an example of _________ data. 

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 

Ans. c 

 

KIETGroupofInstitutions

 

Department of IT 

COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 2 DataAnalytics(KIT601)

1. Maximum aposteriori classifier is also known as: a. Decision tree classifier b. Bayes classifier c. Gaussian classifier   d. Maximum margin classifier 

 

Ans. B 

2. Which of the following sentence is FALSE regarding regression? 

 

a. It relates inputs to outputs. b. It is used for prediction. c. It may be used for interpretation. d.  It discovers causal relationships. 

 

Ans. d 

3. Suppose you are working on stock market prediction, and you would like to predict the price of a particular stock tomorrow (measured in dollars). 

You want to use a learning algorithm for this. 

 

a. Regression b. Classification  c. Clustering d. None of these  

 

Ans. a 

4. In binary logistic regression: 

 

a. The dependent variable is divided into two equal subcategories. b. The dependent variable consists of two categories. c. There is no dependent variable. d. The dependent variable is continuous. 

 

Ans. b 

 

5. A fair six-sided die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting 4 on the first roll and not getting 6 on the second roll? 

 

a. 1/36 b. 5/36 c. 1/12 d. 1/9 

 

Ans. b 

 

6. The parameter β0 is termed as intercept term and the parameter β1 is termed as slope parameter. These parameters are usually called as _________ 

 

     a  Regressionists      b. Coefficients      c. Regressive      d. Regression coefficients 

 

Ans. d 

 

7. ________ is a simple approach to supervised learning. It assumes that the dependence of Y on X1, X2… Xp is linear. 

 

a. Gradient Descent b. Linear regression 

c. Logistic regression d. Greedy algorithms 

 

Ans. c 

8. What makes the interpretation of conditional effects extra challenging in logistic regression? 

 

a. It is not possible to model interaction effects in logistic regression b. The maximum likelihood estimation makes the results unstable c. The conditional effect is dependent on the values of all X-variables d. The results has to be raised by its natural logarithm. 

 

Ans. c 9. If there were a perfect positive correlation between two interval/ratio variables, the Pearson's r test would give a correlation coefficient of: 

 

a. - 0.328  b. +1  c. +0.328  d. – 1 

 

Ans.b 

10. Logistic Regression transforms the output probability to in a range of [0, 1]. Which of the following function is used for this purpose? 

 

a. Sigmoid b. Mode  c. Square  d. All of these 

 

Ans.a 

 

12. Generally which of the following method(s) is used for predicting continuous dependent variable? 

1. Linear Regression 2. Logistic Regression 

a. 1 and 2  

b. only 1  c. only 2  d. None of these 

 

Ans.b 

 

13. Mean of the set of numbers {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is? 

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 

 

Ans.b 

14. Name of a movie, can be considered as an attribute of type? 

 

a. Nominal  

b. Ordinal 

c. Interval 

   d. Ratio 

 

Ans.a 

 

15. Let A be an example, and C be a class. The probability P(C) is known as: 

 

a.  Apriori probability   

b.  Aposteriori probability   

c.  Class conditional probability 

 d. None of the above 

 

Ans.a 


 

16. Consider two binary attributes X and Y. We know that the attributes are independent and probability P(X=1) = 0.6, and P(Y=0) = 0.4. What is the probability that both X and Y have values 1? 

 

a. 0. 0.06  b. 0.16  c. 0.26  d.  0.36 

 

Ans. d 

17. In regression the output is a. Discrete  b. Continuous  c. Continuous and always lie in same range d. May be discrete and continuous  

 

Ans. b 

18. The probabilistic model that finds the most probable prediction using the training data and space of hypotheses to make a prediction for a new data instance.  

 

a. Concept learning  b. Bayes optimal classifier  c. EM algorithm  d. Logistic regression  

 

Ans. b 

19 . State whether the following condition is true or not. “In Bayesian theorem , it is important to find the probability of both the events occurring simultaneously”  

a. True  b. False  

 

Ans. b 20 .If the correlation coefficient is a positive value, then the slope of the regression line  

 

a. can be either negative or positive  

b. must also be positive c. can be zero d. cannot be zero 

 

Ans. b 

21. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? 

 

a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent c. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important and are independent. d. None of the above options 

 

Ans. c 

22. Previous probabilities in Bayes Theorem that are changed with help of new available information are classified as _______   

a. independent probabilities b. posterior probabilities c. interior probabilities d. dependent probabilities 

 

Ans. b 

23. Which of the following methods do we use, to find the best fit line for data in Linear Regression? 

 

a. Least Square Error b. Maximum Likelihood c. Logarithmic Loss d. Both A and B 

 

Ans. a 

24. What is the consequence between a node and its predecessors while creating Bayesian network? 

 

a. Conditionally dependent b.  Dependent c. Conditionally independent d. Both a & b 

 

Ans. c 25. Bayes rule can be used to __________conditioned on one piece of evidence. 

 

a. Solve queries b. Answer probabilistic queries c. Decrease complexity of queries d. Increase complexity of queries 

 

Ans.b 

 

26. Which of the following options is/are correct in reference to Bayesian Learning? 

 

a. New instances can be classified by combining the predictions of multiple hypotheses, weighted by their probabilities. b. Bayesian methods can accommodate hypotheses that make probabilistic predictions. c. Each observed training example can incrementally decrease or increase the estimated probability that a hypothesis is correct. d. All of the mentioned 

 

Ans. d 

27. When the cell is said to be fired? a. if potential of body reaches a steady threshold values b. if there is impulse reaction c. during upbeat of heart d. none of the mentioned 

 

Ans.a 28. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? 

a.  answering yes/no questions about the data b. estimating numerical characteristics of the data c. modeling relationships within the data d. describing associations within the data  

 

Ans.c 

29. Suppose you are building a SVM model on data X. The data X can be error prone which means that you should not trust any specific data point too much. Now think that you want to build a SVM model which has quadratic kernel function of polynomial degree 2 that uses Slack variable C as one of its hyper parameter. Based upon that give the answer for following question.  What would happen when you use very large value of C? 

a. We can still classify data correctly for given setting of hyper parameter C b. We cannot classify data correctly for given setting of hyper parameter C. c. Can’t Say 

d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

30. What is/are true about kernel in SVM? 

(a) Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space  (b) It’s a similarity function 

 

a. Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space b. It’s a similarity function  c. Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space and It’s a similarity function d. None of these   

 

Ans. c 

 31. Suppose you have trained an SVM with linear decision boundary after training SVM, you correctly infer that your SVM model is under fitting.                                        (a) Which of the following option would you more likely to consider iterating SVM next time? Tasks a. You want to increase your data points. b. You want to decrease your data points. c. You will try to calculate more variables. d. You will try to reduce the features. 

 

Ans. c 

32. Suppose you are using RBF kernel in SVM with high Gamma value. What does this signify? 

a. The model would consider even far away points from hyperplane for modeling  b. The model would consider only the points close to the hyperplane for modeling. c. The model would not be affected by distance of points from hyperplane for modeling. d. None of these 

 

Ans.b 

33. Which of the following can only be used when training data are linearly separable? 

a. Linear Logistic Regression. b. Linear Soft margin SVM c. Linear hard-margin SVM d. Parzen windows. 

 

Ans.c 

 

34. Using the kernel trick, one can get non-linear decision boundaries using algorithms designed originally for linear models. 

a. True  b. False  

 

Ans. a 

 

35. Support vectors are the data points that lie closest to the decision surface. 

a. True b. False 

 

Ans. True  

36. Which of the following statement is true for a multilayered perceptron? 

a. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the next layer b. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the same layer c.  Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the previous layer d. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the output layer 

Ans. a 

37. Which of the following is/are true regarding an SVM? 

a. For two dimensional data points, the separating hyperplane learnt by a linear SVM will be a straight line. b. In theory, a Gaussian kernel SVM cannot model any complex separating hyperplane. c. For every kernel function used in a SVM, one can obtain an equivalent closed form basis expansion. d. Overfitting in an SVM is not a function of number of support vectors. 

 

Ans. a 

38. The function of distance that is used to determine the weight of each training example in instance based learning is known as______________ 

a. Kernel Function b. Linear Function c. Binomial distribution d. All of the above 

 

Ans. a 39. What is the name of the function in the following statement “A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0”? 

a. Step function b. Heaviside function c. Logistic function d. Binary function  

 

Ans. b 

40. Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. 

 

a. All of the mentioned are true b. (ii) and (iii) are true c. (i) and (ii) are true d. Only (i) is true  

Ans. a 

41. Which of the following is an application of NN (Neural Network)? 

 

a. Sales forecasting b. Data validation c. Risk management d. All of the mentioned 

 

Ans. d 

42. A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0. 

 

a. True b. False 

 

Ans. a 

43. In what ways can output be determined from activation value in ANN? 

 

a. Deterministically 

b. Stochastically c. both deterministically & stochastically d. none of the mentioned 

 

Ans. c 

45. In ANN, the amount of output of one unit received by another unit depends on what? 

 

a. output unit b. input unit c. activation value d. weight 

 

Ans. d 

46. Function of dendrites in ANN is  

 

a. receptors b. transmitter c. both receptor & transmitter d. none of the mentioned 

 

Ans. a 

47. Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. 

 

 

a. All of the mentioned are true b. (ii) and (iii) are true c. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true d. Only (i) is true  

 

Ans. a 48. What is the name of the function in the following statement “A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0”? 

 

a. Step function b. Heaviside function 

c. Logistic function d. Binary function  

 

Ans. b 

49. 4 input neuron has weight 1, 2, 3 and 4. The transfer function is linear with the constant of proportionality being equal to 2.  The inputs are 4,10,5 and 20 respectively. The output will be 

 

a. 238  b. 76 c. 119  d. 123 

 

Ans. a 

50. Which of the following are real world applications of the SVM? 

a. Text and Hypertext Categorization b. Image Classification c. Clustering of News Articles d. All of the above 

 

Ans.d 

51. Support vector machine may be termed as: 

a. Maximum apriori classifier  

b. Maximum margin classifier 

c. Minimum apriori classifier   

d.  Minimum margin classifier 

 

Ans.b 

52. What is purpose of Axon? a.  receptors b. transmitter c. transmission d. none of the mentioned 

 


 

 

53. The model developed from sample data having the form of Å· = b0 + b1X is known as: Ans: - C – estimated regression equation 

54. In regression analysis, which of the following is not a required assumption about the error term ε? 

Ans: - A – The expected value of the error term is one 

55. ____________ are algorithms that learn from their more complex environments (hence eco) to generalize, approximate and simplify solution logic. 

a. Fuzzy Relational DB 

b. Ecorithms 

c. Fuzzy Set 

d. None of the mentioned 

Ans. c 

 

56. The truth values of traditional set theory is ____________ and that of fuzzy set is __________ 

a. Either 0 or 1, between 0 & 1 

b. Between 0 & 1, either 0 or 1 

c. Between 0 & 1, between 0 & 1 

d. Either 0 or 1, either 0 or 1 

Ans. a 

57. What is the form of Fuzzy logic? 

a. Two-valued logic 

b. Crisp set logic 

Ans.c 

c. Many-valued logic 

d. Binary set logic 

Ans. c 

58. Fuzzy logic is usually represented as ___________ 

a. IF-THEN rules 

b. IF-THEN-ELSE rules 

c. Both IF-THEN-ELSE rules & IF-THEN rules 

d. None of the mentioned 

Ans. a 

59. ______________ is/are the way/s to represent uncertainty. 

a. Fuzzy Logic 

b. Probability 

c. Entropy 

d. All of the mentioned 

Ans.d 

60. Fuzzy Set theory defines fuzzy operators. Choose the fuzzy operators from the following. 

a. AND 

b. OR  

c. NOT 

d. All of mentioned 

Ans. d 

61. The values of the set membership is represented by ___________ 

a. Discrete Set 

b. Degree of truth 

c. Probabilities 

d. Both Degree of truth & Probabilities View Answer 

Ans. b 

62. Fuzzy logic is extension of Crisp set with an extension of handling the concept of Partial Truth. 

a. True  

b. False 

Ans. a

SET II 

 

1. Sentiment Analysis is an example of 1. Regression 2. Classification 3. clustering 4. Reinforcement Learning 

 

1. 1, 2 and 4 2. 1, 2 and 3 3. 1 and 3 4. 1 and 2 Show Answer Ans. 1, 2 and 4 

2. The self-organizing maps can also be considered as the instance of _________ type of learning. 

A. Supervised learning B. Unsupervised learning C. Missing data imputation D. Both A & C 

 

Answer: B Explanation: The Self Organizing Map (SOM), or the Self Organizing Feature Map is a kind of Artificial Neural Network which is trained through unsupervised learning. 

3.  The following given statement can be considered as the examples of_________ 

Suppose one wants to predict the number of newborns according to the size of storks' population by performing supervised learning 

A. Structural equation modeling B. Clustering C. Regression D. Classification 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The above-given statement can be considered as an example of regression. Therefore the correct answer is C. 

4. In the example predicting the number of newborns, the final number of total newborns can be considered as the _________ 

A. Features B. Observation C. Attribute 

D. Outcome 

a. Answer: d b. Explanation: In the example of predicting the total number of newborns, the result will be represented as the outcome. Therefore, the total number of newborns will be found in the outcome or addressed by the outcome. 

5. Which of the following statement is true about the classification? 

A. It is a measure of accuracy B. It is a subdivision of a set C. It is the task of assigning a classification D. None of the above 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The term "classification" refers to the classification of the given data into certain sub-classes or groups according to their similarities or on the basis of the specific given set of rules. 

6. Which one of the following correctly refers to the task of the classification? 

A. A measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory B. The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples C. A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes D. None of the above 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The task of classification refers to dividing the set into subsets or in the numbers of the classes. Therefore the correct answer is C. 

 

7. _____is an observation which contains either very low value or very high value in comparison to other observed values. It may hamper the result, so it should be avoided. a. Dependent Variable b. Independent Variable c. Outlier Variable d. None of the above Ans. c 

 

8. _______is a type of regression which models the non-linear dataset using a linear model. 

a. Polynomial Regression b. Logistic Regression c. Linear Regression d. Decision Tree Regression 

Ans. a 

9. The prediction of the weight of a person when his height is known, is a simple example of regression. The function used in R language is_____. 

a. Im() b. print() c. predict() d. summary( ) 

Ans. c 

10. There is the following syntax of lm() function in multiple regression. 

lm(y ~ x1+x2+x3...., data)   a. y is predictor and x1,x2,x3 are the dependent variables. b. y is dependent and x1,x2,x3 are the predictors. c. data is predictor variable. d. None of the above. 

Ans. b 

11. _______is a probabilistic graphical model which represents a set of variables and their conditional dependencies using a directed acyclic graph. 

a. A Bayesian network b. Bayes Network c. Bayesian Model d. All of the above 

Ans. d 

 

12. In support vector regression, _____is a function used to map lower dimensional data into higher dimensional data 

A) Boundary line B) Kernel C) Hyper Plane D) Support Vector Ans. B 

 

 

13. If the independent variables are highly correlated with each other than other variables then such condition is called___________ a) outlier b) Multicollinearity c) under fitting d) independent variable 

 

Ans. b 

 

14. The Bayesian network graph does not contain any cyclic graph. Hence, it is known as a ____ or_____. 

a. Directed Acyclic Graph or DAG b. Directed Cyclic Graph or DCG. c. Both the above. d. None of the above. 

Ans. a 

 

 

15. The hyperplane with maximum margin is called the ______ hyperplane. a. Non-optimal b. Optimal c. None of the above d. Requires one more option 

Ans. b 

16. One more _____ is needed for non-linear SVM. 

a. Dimension b. Attribute c. Both the above d. None of the above 

Ans. a 

17. A subset of dataset to train the machine learning model, and we already know the output. 

a. Training set b. Test set c. Both the above 

d. None of the above 

Ans. a 

18. ______is the final step of data preprocessing in machine learning. It is a technique to standardize the independent variables of the dataset in a specific range. In_____, we put our variables in the same range and in the same scale so that no any variable dominate the other variable 

a. Feature Sampling b. Feature Scaling c. None of the above d. Both the above 

Ans. b 

19. Principal components analysis (PCA) is a statistical technique that allows identifying underlying linear patterns in a data set so it can be expressed in terms of other data set of a significantly ____ dimension without much loss of information. a. Lower b. Higher c. Equal d. None of the above 

Ans. a 

 

20. _____ units which are internal to the network and do not directly interact with the environment. a. Input b. Output c. Hidden d. None of the above 

Ans. c 

 

21. In a ____ network there is an ordering imposed on the nodes in a network: if there is a connection from unit a to unit b then there can-not be a connection from b to a. a. Feedback b. Feed-Forward c. None of the above 

Ans. b  

 

22. _____ contains the multiple logical values and these values are the truth values of a variable or problem between 0 and 1. This concept was introduced by Lofti Zadeh in 1965 a. Boolean Logic b. Fuzzy Logic c. None of the above 

Ans. b 

 

23. ______is a module or component, which takes the fuzzy set inputs generated by the Inference Engine, and then transforms them into a crisp value. a. Fuzzification b. Defuzzification c. Inference Engine d. None of the above 

Ans. b 

 

24. The most common application of time series analysis is forecasting future values of a numeric value using the ______ structure of the ____ a. Shares,data b. Temporal,data c. Permanent,data d. None of these 

Ans. b  

 

25. Identify the component of a time series a. Temporal b. Shares c. Trend d. Policymakers 

Ans. c 

 

26. Predictable pattern that recurs or repeats over regular intervals. Seasonality is often observed within a year or less: This define the term__________ a. Trend b. Seasonality c. Cycles d. Recession 

Ans. b 


 27. ________Learning uses a training set that consists of a set of pattern pairs: an input pattern and the corresponding desired (or target) output pattern. The desired output may be regarded as the ‘network’s ‘teacher” for that input a. Unsupervised b. Supervised c. Modular d. Object  

Ans. b 

 

28. The _______ perceptron consists of a set of input units connected by a single layer of weights to a set of output units a. Multi layer b. Single layer c. Hidden layer d. None of these 

Ans. b 

 

29. If we add another layer of weights to single layer perceptron , then we find that there is a new set of units that are neither input or output units; for simplicity we consider more than 2 layers has  a. Single layer perceptron b. Multi layer perceptron c. Hidden  layer d. None of these 

Ans. b 

 

30. Patterns that repeat over a certain period of time a. Seasonal b. Trend c. None of the above d. Both of the above 

Ans. a 

31. Which of the following is characteristic of best machine learning method ? 

a. Fast b.  Accuracy c. Scalable d. All of the Mentioned 

 

Ans. d 


 

32. Supervised learning differs from unsupervised clustering in that supervised learning requires a. at least one input attribute. b. input attributes to be categorical. c. at least one output attribute. d. ouput attriubutes to be categorical. Ans. d 

 

33. Supervised learning and unsupervised clustering both require at least one a. hidden attribute. b. output attribute. c. input attribute. d. categorical attribute. Ans. c 

 

34. Which statement is true about prediction problems? a. The output attribute must be categorical. b. The output attribute must be numeric. c. The resultant model is designed to determine future outcomes. d. The resultant model is designed to classify current behavior. Ans. c 

 

35. Which statement is true about neural network and linear regression models? a. Both models require input attributes to be numeric.  b. Both models require numeric attributes to range between 0 and 1. c. The output of both models is a categorical attribute value. d. Both techniques build models whose output  is determined by a  linear sum of weighted input attribute values. Ans. a 

 

36. A feed-forward neural network is said to be  fully connected when a. all nodes are connected to each other. b. all nodes at the same layer are connected to each other. c. all nodes at one layer are connected to all nodes in the next higher layer. d. all hidden layer nodes are connected to all output layer nodes. Ans. c 

 

37. Machine learning techniques differ from statistical techniques in that machine learning methods  a. typically assume an underlying distribution for the data. 

b. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data. c. are not able to explain their behavior. d. have trouble with large-sized datasets. Ans. b 

 

38. This supervised learning technique can process both numeric and categorical input attributes. a. linear regression b. Bayes classifier c. logistic regression d. backpropagation learning Ans. b 

 

39. This technique associates a conditional probability value with each data instance. a. linear regression b. logistic regression c. simple regression d. multiple linear regression Ans. b 

 

40. Logistic regression is a ________ regression technique that is used to model data having a _____outcome.  a. linear, numeric b. linear, binary c. nonlinear, numeric d. nonlinear, binary Ans. d 

 

41. Which of the following problems is best solved using time-series analysis? a. Predict whether someone is a likely candidate for having a stroke. b. Determine if an individual should be given an unsecured loan. c. Develop a profile of a star athlete. d. Determine the likelihood that someone will terminate their cell phone contract. 

 

Ans. d 

 

42. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent 

c. Both A and B d. None of the above options Ans. c 43. Simple regression assumes a __________ relationship between the input  attribute and output attribute. a. linear b. quadratic c. reciprocal d. inverse 

 

44. With Bayes classifier, missing data items are a. treated as equal compares. b. treated as unequal compares. c. replaced with a default value. d. ignored. 45. What is Machine learning? a. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs b. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs c. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs d. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs 

 

Ans: a 

 

46. Automated vehicle is an example of ______ a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Active learning d. Reinforcement learning 

 

Ans: a 

 

47. Multilayer perceptron network is a. Usually, the weights are initially set to small random values b. A hard-limiting activation function is often used c. The weights can only be updated after all the training vectors have been presented d. Multiple layers of neurons allow for less complex decision boundaries than a single layer 

 

Ans: a 

 

48. Neural networks a. optimize a convex cost function b. cannot be used for regression as well as classification c. always output values between 0 and 1 d. can be used in an ensemble 

 

Ans: d 

 

49. In neural networks, nonlinear activation functions such as sigmoid, tanh, and ReLU a. speed up the gradient calculation in backpropagation, as compared to linear units b. are applied only to the output units c. help to learn nonlinear decision boundaries d. always output values between 0 and 1 

 

Ans: c 

 

50. Which of the following is a disadvantage of decision trees? 

a. Factor analysis b. Decision trees are robust to outliers c. Decision trees are prone to be overfit d. None of the above 

 

Ans: c 

 

51. Back propagation is a learning technique that adjusts weights in the neural network by propagating weight changes. a. Forward from source to sink b. Backward from sink to source c. Forward from source to hidden nodes d. Backward from sink to hidden nodes 

 

Ans: b 

52. Identify the following activation function : φ(V) = Z + (1/ 1 + exp (– x * V + Y) ),Z, X, Y are parameters  

a. Step function b. Ramp function c. Sigmoid function 

d. Gaussian function 

 

Ans: c 

53. An artificial neuron receives n inputs x1, x2, x3............xnwith  weights w1, w2, ..........wn attached to the input links. The weighted sum_________________ is computed to be passed on to a non-linear filter  Φ called activation function to release the output. a. Σ wi b. Σ xi c. Σ wi + Σ xi d. Σ wi* xi 

 

Ans: d 

 

54. With Bayes classifier, missing data items are a. treated as equal compares. b. treated as unequal compares. c. replaced with a default value. d. ignored. 

 

Ans:b 

 

55. Machine learning techniques differ from statistical techniques in that machine learning methods a. typically assume an underlying distribution for the data. b. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data. c. are not able to explain their behavior. d. have trouble with large-sized datasets. 

 

Ans: b 

56. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? 

a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent c. Both a and b d. None of the above options 

 

Ans: c 

57. How many terms are required for building a Bayes model? 

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 

 

Ans: c 

58. What does the Bayesian network provides? a. Complete description of the domain b. Partial description of the domain c. Complete description of the problem d. None of the mentioned 

 

Ans: a 

59. How the Bayesian network can be used to answer any query? a. Full distribution b. Joint distribution c. Partial distribution d. All of the mentioned 

 

Ans: b 

60. In which of the following learning the teacher returns reward and punishment to learner? a. Active learning b. Reinforcement learning c. Supervised learning d. Unsupervised learning 

 

Ans: b 

 

61. Which of the following is the model used for learning? a. Decision trees b. Neural networks c. Propositional and FOL rules d. All of the mentioned 

 

Ans: d 

 

 

KIETGroupofInstitutions

 

Department of IT 

COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 3 DataAnalytics(KIT601)

 

Q.1 Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming? 

A) Limited amount of memory 

B) Limited amount of processing time 

C) Limited amount of input data 

D) Limited amount of processing power 

Q.2 Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? 

A) Stream data is always unstructured data. 

B) Stream data often has a high velocity. 

C) Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. 

D) Stream data is always structured data. 

Ans. B 

 

Q.3 What is the main difference between standard reservoir sampling and min-wise sampling? 

A) Reservoir sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas minwise sampling does not. 

B) Min-wise sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas reservoir sampling does not. 

C) Reservoir sampling requires a stream to be processed sequentially, whereas minwise does not. 

D) For larger streams, reservoir sampling creates more accurate samples than minwise sampling. 

Ans. C) 

 

Q.4 A Bloom filter guarantees no 

A) false positives 

B) false negatives 

C) false positives and false negatives 

D) false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type 

Ans. B) 

 

Q,5 Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? 

A) It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. 

B) A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. 

C) It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more 

space. 

Incorrect. 

D) A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added 

element. 

Ans. D) 

 

Q.6 The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last k bits of a stream window N. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? 

A) The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. 

B) The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. 

C) To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. 

D) None of these 

Ans. B) 


 

Q.7 Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? 

 A)DGIM operates on a time-based window.  

B)  DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts.  

C)  In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  

D)  The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand.  

Ans. D) 

Q.8 Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? 

 A)DGIM operates on a time-based window.  

B)  DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts.  

C)  In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  

D) The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream 

Ans. D) 

 

Q.9 What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? A) DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% 

B) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% 

C) DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% 

D) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% 

Ans. B) 

 

Q.10 Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 

A) Misra-Gries 

B) Alon-Matias-Szegedy 

C) DGIM 

D) None of the above 

Ans. D) 

Q.11 Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 

A) Misra-Gries 

B) Alon-Matias-Szegedy 

C) DGIM 

D) Flajolet and Martin  

Ans. D) 

Q.12 Which of the following streaming windows show valid bucket representations according to the DGIM rules? 

A) 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 

B) 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 

C) 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 

D) 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 

Ans. D) 

Q.13 For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2 greater than 45? 

A)  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10  

B)  10 10 10 10 10 5 5 5 5 5  

C)  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1  

D) None of these 

Ans. B) 

 

Q.14 For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2 greater than 45? 

A)  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10  

B)  10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 

C)  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1  

D) None of these 

Ans. B) 

 

Q 15 : In Bloom filter an array of n bits is initialized with 

A) all 0s 

B) all 1s 

C) half 0s and half 1s 

D) all -1 

Ans. A) 

 

Q 16. Pick a hash function h that maps each of the N elements to at least log2 N bits, Estimated number of distinct elements is 

 

A) 2^R 

B) 2^(-R) 

C) 1-(2^R) 

D) 1-(2^(-R)) 

 

Ans. A) 

 

Q.17 Sliding window operations typically fall in the category 

A) OLTP Transactions 

B) Big Data Batch Processing 

C) Big Data Real Time Processing 

D) Small Batch Processing 

Ans. C) 

 

Q.18 What is the finally produced by Hierarchical Agglomerative Clustering? 

 

A) final estimate of cluster centroids 

B)assignment of each point to clusters 

C) tree showing how close things are to each other 

D) Group of clusters 

Ans. C) 

 

Q19 Which of the algorithm can be used for counting 1's in a stream 

A) FM Algorithm  

B) PCY Algorithm  

C) DGIM Algorithm  

D) SON Algorithm 

Ans. C) 

 

Q20 Which technique is used to filter unnecessary itemset in PCY algorithm 

A) Association Rule  

B) Hashing Technique 

C) Data Mining 

D)  Market basket 

Ans. B) 

 

Q21 In association rule, which of the following indicates the measure of how frequently the items occur in a dataset ?  

A) Support  B) Confidence  C) Basket  D) Itemset 

Ans. A) 

Q.22 which of the following clustering technique is used by K- Means Algorithm  

A) Hierarchical Technique  

B) Partitional technique  

C)Divisive  

D) Agglomerative 

Ans. B) 

 

Q.23 which of the following clustering technique is used by Agglomerative Nesting Algorithm 

A) Hierarchical Technique  

B) Partitional technique   

C) Density based  

D)None of these 

 

Q24. Which of the following Hierarchichal approach begins with each observation in a distinct (singleton) cluster, and successively merges clusters together until a stopping criterion is satisfied.  

A) Divisive  

B) Agglomerative  

C) Single Link  

D) Complete Link 

 

Q.25 Park, Chen, Yu algorithm is useful for __________in Big Data Application. 

A) Find Frequent Itemset  

B) Filtering Stream  

C) Distinct Element Find  

D) None of these 

Ans. A) 

 

Q.26 .Match the following                                                  

a) Bloom filter                   i) Frequent Pattern Mining                      

b) FM Algorithm              ii) Filtering Stream                      

c) PCY Algorithm            iii) Distinct Element Find d) DGIM Algorithm         iv) Counting 1’s in window A a)-ii), b-iii), c-i), d-iv)     

B a)-iii), b-ii), c-i), d-iv)  

C) A a)-i1), b-iii), c-ii), d-iv)  

D) None of these 

Ans. A) 

SET II 

1. Which of the following can be considered as the correct process of Data Mining? a. Infrastructure, Exploration, Analysis, Interpretation, Exploitation b. Exploration, Infrastructure, Analysis, Interpretation, Exploitation c. Exploration, Infrastructure, Interpretation, Analysis, Exploitation d. Exploration, Infrastructure, Analysis, Exploitation, Interpretation 

Answer: a 

Explanation: The process of data mining contains many sub-processes in a specific order. The correct order in which all sub-processes of data mining executes is Infrastructure, Exploration, Analysis, Interpretation, and Exploitation. 

2. Which of the following is an essential process in which the intelligent methods are applied to extract data patterns? a. Warehousing b. Data Mining c. Text Mining d. Data Selection 

Answer: b 

Explanation: Data mining is a type of process in which several intelligent methods are used to extract meaningful data from the huge collection (or set) of data. 

3.  What are the functions of Data Mining? a. Association and correctional analysis classification b. Prediction and characterization 

c. Cluster analysis and Evolution analysis d. All of the above 

Answer: d 

Explanation: In data mining, there are several functionalities used for performing the different types of tasks. The common functionalities used in data mining are cluster analysis, prediction, characterization, and evolution. Still, the association and correctional analysis classification are also one of the important functionalities of data mining. 

 

 

 

 

4. Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming? 

a. Limited amount of memory b. Limited amount of processing time c. Limited amount of input data d. Limited amount of processing power 

Ans. c 

5. Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? 

a. Stream data is always unstructured data. b. Stream data often has a high velocity. c. Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. d. Stream data is always structured data. 

Ans. b 

6. Which of the following statements about sampling are correct? a. Sampling reduces the amount of data fed to a subsequent data mining algorithm b. Sampling reduces the diversity of the data stream c. Sampling increases the amount of data fed to a data mining algorithm d. Sampling algorithms often need multiple passes over the data 

Ans. a  

7. Which of the following statements about sampling are correct? a. Sampling reduces the diversity of the data stream 

b. Sampling increases the amount of data fed to a data mining algorithm c. Sampling algorithms often need multiple passes over the data d. Sampling aims to keep statistical properties of the data intact 

 

Ans. d 

 

8. What is the main difference between standard reservoir sampling and min-wise sampling? 

a. Reservoir sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas min-wise sampling does not. b. Min-wise sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas reservoir sampling does not. c. Reservoir sampling requires a stream to be processed sequentially, whereas min-wise does not. d. For larger streams, reservoir sampling creates more accurate samples than min-wise sampling. 

Ans. c 

 

9. A Bloom filter guarantees no 

a. false positives b. false negatives c. false positives and false negatives d. false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type 

Ans. b 

 

10. Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? 

a. It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. b. A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. c. It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more space. d. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element. 

Ans. d 

11. The FM-sketch algorithm uses the number of zeros the binary hash value ends in to make an estimation. Which of the following statements is true about the hash tail? 

a. Any specific bit pattern is equally suitable to be used as hash tail. 

b. Only bit patterns with more 0's than 1's are equally suitable to be used as hash tails. c. Only the bit patterns 0000000..00 (list of 0s) or 111111..11 (list of 1s) are suitable hash tails. d. Only the bit pattern 0000000..00 (list of 0s) is a suitable hash tail. 

Ans. a  

12. The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: 

a. Estimate the number of distinct elements. b. Sample data with a time-sensitive window. c. Estimate the frequent elements. d. Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. 

Ans. a 

 

13. The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last kk bits of a stream window NN. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? 

a. The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. b. The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. c. To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. d. None of above 

 

Ans. b 

 

14. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a. DGIM operates on a time-based window b. DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts c. In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two d. The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand. Ans. d 

 

15. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a. DGIM operates on a time-based window b. The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream c. DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts 

d. In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two Ans. b 

 

16. What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? 

a. DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% b. DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% c. DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% d. DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% 

Ans. b 

 

17. Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 

a. Misra-Gries b. Alon-Matias-Szegedy c. DGIM d. None of the above 

Ans. d 

 

18. Which of the following statements about Bloom filters are correct? 

 

a. A Bloom filter has the same properties as a standard Hashmap data structure in Java (java.util.HashMap).  b. A Bloom filter is full if no more hash functions can be added to it. c. A Bloom filter always returns FALSE when testing for an element that was not previously added d. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element 

 

Ans. d 

 

19. Which of the following statements about Bloom filters are correct? 

 

a. An empty Bloom filter (no elements added to it) will always return FALSE when testing for an element b. A Bloom filter has the same properties as a standard Hashmap data structure in Java (java.util.HashMap).  c. A Bloom filter is full if no more hash functions can be added to it. 

d. A Bloom filter always returns FALSE when testing for an element that was not previously added Ans. a 

 

 

20. Which of the following streaming windows show valid bucket representations according to the DGIM rules? 

a. 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 b. 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 c. 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 d. 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 

Ans. d 

For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2F2 greater than 45?  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10 ✗  10 10 10 10 10 5 5 5 5 5 ✗ This option is correct.  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1 ✓  10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 ✗ This option is correct. 

 

 

What is the space complexity of the FREQUENT algorithm? Recall that it aims to find all elements in a sequence whose frequency exceeds 1k1k of the total count. In the equations below, nn is the maximum value of each key and mm is the maximum value of each counter. 

a. O(k(logm+logn)) 

Correct! 

b. o(k(logm+logn)) c. O(logk(m+n)) d. o(logk(m+n)) 

 

 

Suppose that to get some information about something, you write a keyword in Google search. Google's analytical tools will then pre-compute large amounts of data to provide a quick output related to the keywords you have written. 

19) Which of the following statements is correct about data mining? 

a. It can be referred to as the procedure of mining knowledge from data b. Data mining can be defined as the procedure of extracting information from a set of the data c. The procedure of data mining also involves several other processes like data cleaning, data transformation, and data integration d. All of the above 

Answer: d 

Explanation: The term data mining can be defined as the process of extracting information from the massive collection of data. In other words, we can also say that data mining is the procedure of mining useful knowledge from a huge set of data. 

25) The classification of the data mining system involves: 

a. Database technology b. Information Science c. Machine learning d. All of the above 

Answer: d 

Explanation: Generally, the classification of a data mining system depends on the following criteria: Database technology, machine learning, visualization, information science, and several other disciplines. 

27) The issues like efficiency, scalability of data mining algorithms comes under_______ 

a. Performance issues b. Diverse data type issues c. Mining methodology and user interaction d. All of the above 

Answer: a 

Explanation: In order to extract information effectively from a huge collection of data in databases, the data mining algorithm must be efficient and scalable. Therefore the correct answer is A. 

KIETGroupofInstitutions

 

Department of IT 

COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 4 DataAnalytics(KIT601)

 

 

1. What does Apriori algorithm do? a. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support b. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

 

2. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm? a. hash based techniques b. transaction reduction c. Partitioning d. All of these 

 

Ans.d 3. What do you mean by support (A)? 

 a. Total number of transactions containing A b. Total Number of transactions not containing A c. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions d. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions 

 

Ans. c 4. Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining? a. Social Network Analysis b. Market Basket Analysis c. outlier detection 

d. intrusion detection 

 

Ans. b 5. When do you consider an association rule interesting? a. If it only satisfies min_support b. If it only satisfies min_confidence c. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence d. There are other measures to check so 

 

Ans. c 

 

6. What is the difference between absolute and relative support? a. Absolute -Minimum support count threshold and Relative-Minimum support threshold b. Absolute-Minimum support threshold and Relative-Minimum support count threshold c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

 

7. What is the relation between candidate and frequent itemsets? 

 a. A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset b. A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset c. No relation between the two d. None of these 

 

Ans. b 

 

8. What is the principle on which Apriori algorithm work? 

 a. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent b. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

 

9. Which of these is not a frequent pattern mining algorithm a. Apriori b. FP growth c. Decision trees d. Eclat 

 

Ans. c 

 

10. What are closed frequent itemsets? 

 a. A closed itemset b. A frequent itemset c. An itemset which is both closed and frequent d. None of these 

 

Ans. c 

 

11. What are maximal frequent itemsets? a. A frequent item set whose no super-itemset is frequent b. A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

 

12. What is association rule mining? 

 a. Same as frequent itemset mining b. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. b 

 

13. What is frequent pattern growth? 

 a. Same as frequent itemset mining b. Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient c. Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation d. None of these 

 

Ans. c 

 

14. When is sub-itemset pruning done? 

 a. A frequent itemset ‘P’ is a proper subset of another frequent itemset ‘Q’ b. Support (P) = Support(Q) c. When both a and b is true d. When a is true and b is not 

 

Ans. c 

 

15. Our use of association analysis will yield the same frequent itemsets and strong association rules whether a specific item occurs once or three times in an individual transaction 

 a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

 

16. The number of iterations in apriori __ 

 a. increases with the size of the data b. decreases with the increase in size of the data c. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set d. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set 

 

Ans. c 

 

17. Frequent item sets is a. Superset of only closed frequent item sets b. Superset of only maximal frequent item sets c. Subset of maximal frequent item sets d. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets 

 

Ans. c 

 

18. Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is a. Finding frequent itemsets b. pruning c. Candidate generation d. Number of iterations 

 

Ans. c 

 

19. Which Association Rule would you prefer a. High support and medium confidence b. High support and low confidence c. Low support and high confidence d. Low support and low confidence 

 

Ans. c 


 20. The apriori property means a. If a set cannot pass a test, its supersets will also fail the same test b. To decrease the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets c. To improve the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets d. If a set can pass a test, its supersets will fail the same test 

 

Ans. c 

 

21. To determine association rules from frequent item sets a. Only minimum confidence needed b. Neither support not confidence needed c. Both minimum support and confidence are needed d. Minimum support is needed 

 

Ans. c 

 

22. A collection of one or more items is called as _____ 

( a ) Itemset ( b ) Support ( c ) Confidence  ( d ) Support Count Ans. a 

23. Frequency of occurrence of an itemset is called as _____ 

(a) Support (b) Confidence (c) Support Count (d) Rules Ans. c 

 

24. An itemset whose support is greater than or equal to a minimum support threshold is ______ 

(a) Itemset (b) Frequent Itemset (c) Infrequent items (d) Threshold values 

 

Ans. b 

 

25. The goal of clustering is to- a. Divide the data points into groups  b. Classify the data point into different classes  c. Predict the output values of input data points  d. All of the above 

 

Ans. a 

 

26. Clustering is a- a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Reinforcement learning d. None Ans. b 27. Which of the following clustering algorithms suffers from the problem of convergence at  local optima? a. K- Means clustering b. Hierarchical clustering c. Diverse clustering d. All of the above Ans. d 

 

28. Which version of the clustering algorithm is most sensitive to outliers? a. K-means clustering algorithm b. K-modes clustering algorithm c. K-medians clustering algorithm d. None  

 

Ans. a 29. Which of the following is a bad characteristic of a dataset for clustering analysis- 

 

a. Data points with outliers b. Data points with different densities c. Data points with non-convex shapes d. All of the above Ans. d 

 

30. For clustering, we do not require- a. Labeled data b. Unlabeled data c. Numerical data d. Categorical data 

 

Ans. a 31. The final output of Hierarchical clustering is- a.  The number of cluster centroids b. The tree representing how close the data points are to each other c. A map defining the similar data points into individual groups d. All of the above Ans. b 

 

32. Which of the step is not required for K-means clustering? 


 

a.  a distance metric b. initial number of clusters c. initial guess as to cluster centroids d. None Ans. d 

 

33. Which of the following uses merging approach? a. Hierarchical clustering b. Partitional clustering c. Density-based clustering d. All of the above Ans. a 34. When does k-means clustering stop creating or optimizing clusters? a. After finding no new reassignment of data points b. After the algorithm reaches the defined number of iterations c. Both A and B d. None  Ans. c 35.  Which of the following clustering algorithm follows a top to bottom approach? a. K-means b.  Divisible c. Agglomerative d. None Ans. b 36. Which algorithm does not require a dendrogram? a. K-means b.  Divisible c. Agglomerative d. None 

Ans. a 37. What is a dendrogram? 

 

a. A hierarchical structure b.  A diagram structure c. A graph structure d. None 

Ans. a 

 

38.  Which one of the following can be considered as the final output of the hierarchal type of clustering? a. A tree which displays how the close thing are to each other b. Assignment of each point to clusters c. Finalize estimation of cluster centroids d. None of the above 

Ans. a 

39. Which one of the following statements about the K-means clustering is incorrect? 

a. The goal of the k-means clustering is to partition (n) observation into (k) clusters b. K-means clustering can be defined as the method of quantization c. The nearest neighbor is the same as the K-means d. All of the above 

Ans. c 

40.  The self-organizing maps can also be considered as the instance of _________ type of learning. 

a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Missing data imputation d. Both A & C 

Ans. b 

41. Euclidean distance measure is can also defined as ___________ 

a. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some predefined order and then testing them 

b. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem c. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection. d. All of the above 

Ans. c 

42. Which of the following refers to the sequence of pattern that occurs frequently? 

a. Frequent sub-sequence b. Frequent sub-structure c. Frequent sub-items d. All of the above 

Ans. a 43. Which method of analysis does not classify variables as dependent or independent?  a) Regression analysis  b) Discriminant analysis  c) Analysis of variance  d) Cluster analysis  Answer: (d) 

 1. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 

 

a. Analytics b. Data mining c. Big Data d. Data Warehouse 

Ans C 

 

2. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data. Is this true or False. a. TRUE b. FALSE 

 

Ans. a  3. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 

 

a. TRUE b. FALSE 

Ans. b 

 

4. _____________ have a structure but cannot be stored in a database. 

 

a. Structured b. Semi-Structured c. Unstructured d. None of these 

 

Ans. b 5. ____________refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business. 

 

a. Velocity b. Variety c. Value d. Volume 

Ans. C  

 

6. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy. 

 

a. TRUE b. FALSE 

Ans. b 7. GFS consists of a ____________ Master and ___________ Chunk Servers a. Single, Single b. Multiple, Single c. Single, Multiple 

d. Multiple, Multiple 

Ans. c 

 

8. Files are divided into ____________ sized Chunks. a. Static b. Dynamic c. Fixed d. Variable Ans. c 

 

9. ____________is an open source framework for storing data and running application on clusters of commodity hardware. a. HDFS b. Hadoop c. MapReduce d. Cloud Ans. B 

 

10. HDFS Stores how much data in each clusters that can be scaled at any time? a. 32 b. 64 c. 128 d. 256 Ans. c 

 

11. Hadoop MapReduce allows you to perform distributed parallel processing on large volumes of data quickly and efficiently... is this MapReduce or Hadoop... i.e statement is True or False a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. a 

 

12. Hortonworks was introduced by Cloudera and owned by Yahoo. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. b 

 

13. Hadoop YARN is used for Cluster Resource Management in Hadoop Ecosystem. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. a 

 

14. Google Introduced MapReduce Programming model in 2004. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. A 

 

15.______________ phase sorts the data & ____________creates logical clusters. a. Reduce, YARN b. MAP, YARN c. REDUCE, MAP d. MAP, REDUCE Ans. d 

 

 

16. There is only one operation between Mapping and Reducing is it True or False... 

a. TRUE b. FALSE 

Ans. A 

 

17. __________ is factors considered before Adopting Big Data Technology. a. Validation b. Verification c. Data d. Design Ans. a 

 

18. _________ for improving supply chain management to optimize stock management, replenishment, and forecasting; a. Descriptive b. Diagnostic c. Predictive d. Prescriptive Ans. c 

 

19. which among the following is not a Data mining and analytical applications? a. profile matching b. social network analysis c. facial recognition d. Filtering Ans. d 

 

20. ________________ as a result of data accessibility, data latency, data availability, or limits on bandwidth in relation to the size of inputs. a. Computation-restricted throttling b. Large data volumes c. Data throttling d. Benefits from data parallelization Ans. c 

 

21. As an example, an expectation of using a recommendation engine would be to increase same-customer sales by adding more items into the market basket. a. Lowering costs b. Increasing revenues c. Increasing productivity d. Reducing risk Ans. b 

 

22. Which storage subsystem can support massive data volumes of increasing size. a. Extensibility b. Fault tolerance c. Scalability d. High-speed I/O capacity Ans. c 

 

23. ______________provides performance through distribution of data and fault tolerance through replication a. HDFS b. PIG c. HIVE d. HADOOP 

Ans. a 

 

24. ______________ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. a. HDFS b. MAP REDUCE c. HADOOP d. HIVE Ans. b 

 

25. _____________________ takes the grouped key-value paired data as input and runs a Reducer function on each one of them. a. MAPPER b. REDUCER c. COMBINER d. PARTITIONER Ans. b 

 

26. _______________ is a type of local Reducer that groups similar data from the map phase into identifiable sets. a. MAPPER b. REDUCER c. COMBINER d. PARTITIONER. Ans. c 

 

 

27. MongoDB is __________________ a. Column Based b. Key Value Based c. Document Based d. Graph Based Ans. c 

 

28. ____________ is the process of storing data records across multiple machines a. Sharding b. HDFS c. HIVE d. HBASE Ans. a 

 

29. The results of a hive query can be stored as a. Local File b. HDFS File c. Both d. Cannot be stored Ans. c 30. The position of a specific column in a Hive table a. can be anywhere in the table creation clause b. must match the position of the corresponding data in the data file c. Must match the position only for date time data type in the data file d. Must be arranged alphabetically Ans. b 31. The Hbase tables are A. Made read only by setting the read-only option B. Always writeable 

C. Always read-only D. Are made read only using the query to the table 

Ans. a 32. Hbase creates a new version of a record during A. Creation of a record B. Modification of a record C. Deletion of a record D. All the above Ans. d 33. Which among the following are incorrect in regards with NoSQL? a. Its Easy and ready to manage with clusters. b. Suitable for upcoming data explosions. c. It requires to keep track with data structure d. Provide easy and flexible system. Ans. c 34. Which Database Administrator job was in trends with job trends? a. MongoDB b. CouchDB c. SimpleDB d. Redis Ans. a 35. No SQL Means _________________ a. Not SQL b. No Usage of SQl c. Not Only SQL d. Not for SQL Ans. c 36. A list of 5 pulse rates is: 70, 64, 80, 74, 92. What is the median for this list?  a. 74  b. 76  c. 77  d. 80 Ans. a 37. Which of the following would indicate that a dataset is not bell-shaped? a. The range is equal to 5 standard deviations.  b. The range is larger than the interquartile range.  c. The mean is much smaller than the median.  d. There are no outliers Ans. c 38. What is the effect of an outlier on the value of a correlation coefficient?  a. An outlier will always decrease a correlation coefficient.  b. An outlier will always increase a correlation coefficient.  c. An outlier might either decrease or increase a correlation coefficient, depending on where it is in relation to the other points.  d. An outlier will have no effect on a correlation coefficient. Ans. c 39. One use of a regression line is  a. to determine if any x-values are outliers.  b. to determine if any y-values are outliers.  c. to determine if a change in x causes a change in y.  d. to estimate the change in y for a one-unit change in x. Ans. d 40. Which package contains most of the basic function in R.  a. Root b. Basic c. Parent 

d. R  

 

Ans. b 

SET II 

 

1. who was the developer of Hadoop language? 

 

A. Apache Software Foundation B. Hadoop Software Foundation C. Sun Microsystems D. Bell Labs View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Hadoop Developed by: Apache Software Foundation. 

2. The hadoop language wriiten in which language? 

 

A. C B. C++ C. Java D. Python View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The hadoop language Written in: Java. 3. What was the Initial release date of hadoop? 

 

A. 1st April 2007 B. 1st April 2006 C. 1st April 2008 D. 1st April 2005 View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Initial release: April 1, 2006; 13 years ago. 4. What license is Hadoop distributed under? 

 

A. Apache License 2.1 B. Apache License 2.2 C. Apache License 2.0 D. Apache License 1.0 View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Hadoop is Open Source, released under Apache 2 license. 

 

5. IBM and ________ have announced a major initiative to use Hadoop to support university courses in distributed computer programming. 

 

A. Google B. Apple C. Facebook D. Microsoft View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Google and IBM Announce University Initiative to Address Internet-Scale. 6. On which platfrm hadoop langauge runs? 

 

A. Bare metal B. Debian C. Cross-platform D. Unix-Like View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Hadoop has support for cross platform operating system. 

 

10. Which of the following is not Features Of Hadoop? 

 

A. Suitable for Big Data Analysis B. Scalability C. Robust D. Fault Tolerance View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Robust is is not Features Of Hadoop. 

 

1. The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely __________. 

 

A. mapped, reduce B. mapping, Reduction C. Map, Reduction D. Map, Reduce View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely Map and Reduce. 2. _____ takes a set of data and converts it into another set of data, where individual elements are broken down into tuples (key/value pairs). 

 

A. Map B. Reduce C. Both A and B D. Node View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Map takes a set of data and converts it into another set of data, where individual elements are broken down into tuples (key/value pairs). 3. ______ task, which takes the output from a map as an input and combines those data tuples into a smaller set of tuples. 

 

A. Map B. Reduce C. Node D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Reduce task, which takes the output from a map as an input and combines those data tuples into a smaller set of tuples. 4. In how many stages the MapReduce program executes? 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 View Answer 

Ans : B 

 

Explanation: MapReduce program executes in three stages, namely map stage, shuffle stage, and reduce stage. 5. Which of the following is used to schedules jobs and tracks the assign jobs to Task tracker? 

 

A. SlaveNode B. MasterNode C. JobTracker D. Task Tracker View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: JobTracker : Schedules jobs and tracks the assign jobs to Task tracker. 6. Which of the following is used for an execution of a Mapper or a Reducer on a slice of data? 

 

A. Task B. Job C. Mapper D. PayLoad View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Task : An execution of a Mapper or a Reducer on a slice of data. 7. Which of the following commnd runs a DFS admin client? 

 

A. secondaryadminnode B. nameadmin C. dfsadmin D. adminsck View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: dfsadmin : Runs a DFS admin client. 8. Point out the correct statement. 

 

A. MapReduce tries to place the data and the compute as close as possible B. Map Task in MapReduce is performed using the Mapper() function C. Reduce Task in MapReduce is performed using the Map() function D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: This feature of MapReduce is "Data Locality". 9. Although the Hadoop framework is implemented in Java, MapReduce applications need not be written in ____________ 

 

A. C B. C# C. Java D. None of the above View Answer 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Hadoop Pipes is a SWIG- compatible C++ API to implement MapReduce applications (non JNITM based). 10. The number of maps is usually driven by the total size of ____________ 

 

A. Inputs B. Output C. Task D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Total size of inputs means the total number of blocks of the input files. 1. What is full form of HDFS? 

 

A. Hadoop File System B. Hadoop Field System C. Hadoop File Search D. Hadoop Field search View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Hadoop File System was developed using distributed file system design. 2. HDFS works in a __________ fashion. 

 

A. worker-master fashion B. master-slave fashion C. master-worker fashion D. slave-master fashion View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: HDFS follows the master-slave architecture. 3. Which of the following are the Goals of HDFS? 

 

A. Fault detection and recovery B. Huge datasets C. Hardware at data D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All the above option are the goals of HDFS. 4. ________ NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down. 

 

A. Rack B. Data C. Secondary D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Secondary namenode is used for all time availability and reliability. 

5. The minimum amount of data that HDFS can read or write is called a _____________. 

 

A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. None of the above View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The minimum amount of data that HDFS can read or write is called a Block. 6. The default block size is ______. 

 

A. 32MB B. 64MB C. 128MB D. 16MB View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: The default block size is 64MB, but it can be increased as per the need to change in HDFS configuration. 7. For every node (Commodity hardware/System) in a cluster, there will be a _________. 

 

A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: For every node (Commodity hardware/System) in a cluster, there will be a datanode. 8. Which of the following is not Features Of HDFS? 

 

A. It is suitable for the distributed storage and processing. B. Streaming access to file system data. C. HDFS provides file permissions and authentication. D. Hadoop does not provides a command interface to interact with HDFS. View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: The correct feature is Hadoop provides a command interface to interact with HDFS. 9. HDFS is implemented in _____________ language. 

 

A. Perl B. Python C. Java D. C View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: HDFS is implemented in Java and any computer which can run Java can host a NameNode/DataNode on it. 

10. During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. 

 

A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. ActionNode View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: HDFS is implemented on any computer which can run Java can host a NameNode/DataNode on it. 1. Which of the following is not true about Pig? 

 

A. Apache Pig is an abstraction over MapReduce B. Pig can not perform all the data manipulation operations in Hadoop. C. Pig is a tool/platform which is used to analyze larger sets of data representing them as data flows. D. None of the above View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Pig is generally used with Hadoop; we can perform all the data manipulation operations in Hadoop using Apache Pig. 2. Which of the following is/are a feature of Pig? 

 

A. Rich set of operators B. Ease of programming C. Extensibility D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All options are the following Features of Pig. 3. In which year apache Pig was released? 

 

A. 2005 B. 2006 C. 2007 D. 2008 View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: In 2006, Apache Pig was developed as a research project. 4. Pig operates in mainly how many nodes? 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: You can run Pig (execute Pig Latin statements and Pig commands) using various mode: Interactive and Batch Mode. 5. Which of the following company has developed PIG? 

 

A. Google B. Yahoo C. Microsoft D. Apple View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Apache Pig was developed as a research project at Yahoo, especially to create and execute MapReduce jobs on every dataset. 6. Which of the following function is used to read data in PIG? 

 

A. Write B. Read C. Perform D. Load View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: PigStorage is the default load function. 7. __________ is a framework for collecting and storing script-level statistics for Pig Latin. 

 

A. Pig Stats B. PStatistics C. Pig Statistics D. All of the above View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The new Pig statistics and the existing Hadoop statistics can also be accessed via the Hadoop job history file. 8. Which of the following is true statement? 

 

A. Pig is a high level language. B. Performing a Join operation in Apache Pig is pretty simple. C. Apache Pig is a data flow language. D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All option are true statement. 9. Which of the following will compile the Pigunit? 

 

A. $pig_trunk ant pigunit-jar B. $pig_tr ant pigunit-jar C. $pig_ ant pigunit-jar D. $pigtr_ ant pigunit-jar View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The compile will create the pigunit.jar file. 

10. Point out the wrong statement. 

 

A. Pig can invoke code in language like Java Only B. Pig enables data workers to write complex data transformations without knowing Java C. Pig's simple SQL-like scripting language is called Pig Latin, and appeals to developers already familiar with scripting languages and SQL D. Pig is complete, so you can do all required data manipulations in Apache Hadoop with Pig View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Through the User Defined Functions(UDF) facility in Pig, Pig can invoke code in many languages like JRuby, Jython and Java. 1. Which of the following is/are INCORRECT with respect to Hive? 

 

A. Hive provides SQL interface to process large amount of data B. Hive needs a relational database like oracle to perform query operations and store data. C. Hive works well on all files stored in HDFS D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Hive needs a relational database like oracle to perform query operations and store data is incorrect with respect to Hive. 2. Which of the following is not a Features of HiveQL? 

 

A. Supports joins B. Supports indexes C. Support views D. Support Transactions View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Support Transactions is not a Features of HiveQL. 3. Which of the following operator executes a shell command from the Hive shell? 

 

A. | B. ! C. # D. $ View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Exclamation operator is for execution of command. 4. Hive uses _________ for logging. 

 

A. logj4 B. log4l C. log4i D. log4j View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: By default Hive will use hive-log4j.default in the conf/ directory of the Hive installation. 5. HCatalog is installed with Hive, starting with Hive release is ___________ 

 

A. 0.10.0 B. 0.9.0 C. 0.11.0 D. 0.12.0 View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: hcat commands can be issued as hive commands, and vice versa. 6. _______ supports a new command shell Beeline that works with HiveServer2. 

 

A. HiveServer2 B. HiveServer3 C. HiveServer4 D. HiveServer5 View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The Beeline shell works in both embedded mode as well as remote mode. 7. The ________ allows users to read or write Avro data as Hive tables. 

 

A. AvroSerde B. HiveSerde C. SqlSerde D. HiveQLSerde View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: AvroSerde understands compressed Avro files. 8. Which of the following data type is supported by Hive? 

 

A. map B. record C. string D. enum View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Hive has no concept of enums. 9. We need to store skill set of MCQs(which might have multiple values) in MCQs table, which of the following is the best way to store this information in case of Hive? 

 

A. Create a column in MCQs table of STRUCT data type B. Create a column in MCQs table of MAP data type C. Create a column in MCQs table of ARRAY data type D. As storing multiple values in a column of MCQs itself is a violation View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Option C is correct. 

10. Letsfindcourse is generating huge amount of data. They are generating huge amount of sensor data from different courses which was unstructured in form. They moved to Hadoop framework for storing and analyzing data. What technology in Hadoop framework, they can use to analyse this unstructured data? 

 

A. MapReduce programming B. Hive C. RDBMS D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: MapReduce programming is the right answer. 1. which of the following is correct statement? 

 

A. HBase is a distributed column-oriented database B. Hbase is not open source C. Hbase is horizontally scalable. D. Both A and C View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: HBase is a distributed column-oriented database built on top of the Hadoop file system. It is an open-source project and is horizontally scalable. 2. which of the following is not a feature of Hbase? 

 

A. HBase is lateral scalable. B. It has automatic failure support. C. It provides consistent read and writes. D. It has easy java API for client. View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because HBase is linearly scalable. 3. When did HBase was first released? 

 

A. April 2007 B. March 2007 C. February 2007 D. May 2007 View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: HBase was first released in February 2007. Later in January 2008, HBase became a sub project of Apache Hadoop. 4. Apache HBase is a non-relational database modeled after Google's _________ 

 

A. BigTop B. Bigtable C. Scanner D. FoundationDB View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Bigtable acts up on Google File System, likewise Apache HBase works on top of Hadoop and HDFS. 5. HBaseAdmin and ____________ are the two important classes in this package that provide DDL functionalities. 

 

A. HTableDescriptor B. HDescriptor C. HTable D. HTabDescriptor View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Java provides an Admin API to achieve DDL functionalities through programming 6. which of the following is correct statement? 

 

A. HBase provides fast lookups for larger tables. B. It provides low latency access to single rows from billions of records C. HBase is a database built on top of the HDFS. D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All the options are correct. 7. HBase supports a ____________ interface via Put and Result. 

 

A. bytes-in/bytes-out B. bytes-in C. bytes-out D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Input could be strings, numbers, complex objects, or even images as long as they can rendered as bytes. 8. Which command is used to disable all the tables matching the given regex? 

 

A. remove all B. drop all C. disable_all D. None of the above View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The syntax for disable_all command is as follows : hbase > disable_all 'r.*' 9. _________ is the main configuration file of HBase. 

 

A. hbase.xml B. hbase-site.xml C. hbase-site-conf.xml D. hbase-conf.xml View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Set the data directory to an appropriate location by opening the HBase home folder in /usr/local/HBase. 10. which of the following is incorrect statement? 

 

A. HBase is built for wide tables B. Transactions are there in HBase. C. HBase has de-normalized data. D. HBase is good for semi-structured as well as structured data. View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: No transactions are there in HBase. 1. R was created by? 

 

A. Ross Ihaka B. Robert Gentleman C. Both A and B D. Ross Gentleman View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: R was created by Ross Ihaka and Robert Gentleman at the University of Auckland, New Zealand, and is currently developed by the R Development Core Team. 2. R allows integration with the procedures written in the? 

 

A. C B. Ruby C. Java D. Basic View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: R allows integration with the procedures written in the C, C++, .Net, Python or FORTRAN languages for efficiency. 3. R is free software distributed under a GNU-style copy left, and an official part of the GNU project called? 

 

A. GNU A B. GNU S C. GNU L D. GNU R View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: R is free software distributed under a GNU-style copy left, and an official part of the GNU project called GNU S. 4. R made its first appearance in? 

 

A. 1992 B. 1995 C. 1993 D. 1994 View Answer 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: R made its first appearance in 1993. 5. Which of the following is true about R? 

 

A. R is a well-developed, simple and effective programming language B. R has an effective data handling and storage facility C. R provides a large, coherent and integrated collection of tools for data analysis. D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All of the above statement are true. 6. Point out the wrong statement? 

 

A. Setting up a workstation to take full advantage of the customizable features of R is a straightforward thing B. q() is used to quit the R program C. R has an inbuilt help facility similar to the man facility of UNIX D. Windows versions of R have other optional help systems also View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: help command is used for knowing details of particular command in R. 7. Command lines entered at the console are limited to about ________ bytes 

 

A. 4095 B. 4096 C. 4097 D. 4098 View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Elementary commands can be grouped together into one compound expression by braces (‘{’ and ‘}’). 8. R language is a dialect of which of the following languages? 

 

A. s B. c C. sas D. matlab View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The R language is a dialect of S which was designed in the 1980s. Since the early 90’s the life of the S language has gone down a rather winding path. The scoping rules for R are the main feature that makes it different from the original S language. 9. How many atomic vector types does R have? 

 

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 View Answer 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: R language has 6 atomic data types. They are logical, integer, real, complex, string (or character) and raw. There is also a class for “raw” objects, but they are not commonly used directly in data analysis. 10. R files has an extension _____. 

 

A. .S B. .RP C. .R D. .SP View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: All R files have an extension .R. R provides a mechanism for recalling and reexecuting previous commands. All S programmed files will have an extension .S. But R has many functions than S. 1. What will be output for the following code? 

 

v <- TRUE 

print(class(v)) 

A. logical B. Numeric C. Integer D. Complex View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: It produces the following result : [1] ""logical"" 

 

2. What will be output for the following code? 

 

v <- ""TRUE"" 

print(class(v)) 

A. logical B. Numeric C. Integer D. Character View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: It produces the following result : [1] ""character"" 

 

3. In R programming, the very basic data types are the R-objects called? 

 

A. Lists B. Matrices 

C. Vectors D. Arrays View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: In R programming, the very basic data types are the R-objects called vectors 

 

4. Data Frames are created using the? 

 

A. frame() function B. data.frame() function C. data() function D. frame.data() function View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Data Frames are created using the data.frame() function 5. Which functions gives the count of levels? 

 

A. level B. levels C. nlevels D. nlevel View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Factors are created using the factor() function. The nlevels functions gives the count of levels. 6. Point out the correct statement? 

 

A. Empty vectors can be created with the vector() function B. A sequence is represented as a vector but can contain objects of different classes C. "raw” objects are commonly used directly in data analysis D. The value NaN represents undefined value View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: A vector can only contain objects of the same class. 7. What will be the output of the following R code? 

 

> x <- vector(""numeric"", length = 10) 

> x 

A. 1 0 B. 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 C. 0 1 D. 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: You can also use the vector() function to initialize vectors. 

8. What will be output for the following code? 

 

> sqrt(-17) 

A. -4.02 B. 4.02 C. 3.67 D. NAN View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: These metadata can be very useful in that they help to describe the object. 9. _______ function returns a vector of the same size as x with the elements arranged in increasing order. 

 

A. sort() B. orderasc() C. orderby() D. sequence() View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: There are other more flexible sorting facilities available like order() or sort.list() which produce a permutation to do the sorting. 10. What will be the output of the following R code? 

 

> m <- matrix(nrow = 2, ncol = 3) 

 > dim(m) 

A. 3 3 B. 3 2 C. 2 3 D. 2 2 View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Matrices are constructed column-wise. 1. Which loop executes a sequence of statements multiple times and abbreviates the code that manages the loop variable? 

 

A. for B. while C. do-while D. repeat View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: repeat loop : Executes a sequence of statements multiple times and abbreviates the code that manages the loop variable. 2. Which of the following true about for loop? 

 

A. Repeats a statement or group of statements while a given condition is true. It tests the condition before executing the loop body. B. it tests the condition at the end of the loop body. C. Both A and B D. None of the above View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: for loop : Like a while statement, except that it tests the condition at the end of the loop body. 3. Which statement simulates the behavior of R switch? 

 

A. Next B. Previous C. break D. goto View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The next statement simulates the behavior of R switch. 4. In which statement terminates the loop statement and transfers execution to the statement immediately following the loop? 

 

A. goto B. switch C. break D. label View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Break : Terminates the loop statement and transfers execution to the statement immediately following the loop. 5. Point out the wrong statement? 

 

A. Multi-line expressions with curly braces are just not that easy to sort through when working on the command line B. lappy() loops over a list, iterating over each element in that list C. lapply() does not always returns a list D. You cannot use lapply() to evaluate a function multiple times each with a different argument View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: lapply() always returns a list, regardless of the class of the input. 6. The mapply() function is a multivariate apply of sorts which applies a function in parallel over a set of arguments. 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: True, The mapply() function is a multivariate apply of sorts which applies a function in parallel over a set of arguments. 7. Which of the following is valid body of split function? 

 

A. function (x, f) B. function (x, f, drop = FALSE, …) C. function (x, drop = FALSE, …) D. function (drop = FALSE, …) View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: x is a vector (or list) or data frame 8. Which of the following character skip during execution? 

 

v <- LETTERS[1:6] 

for ( i in v) { 

    

   if (i == ""D"") { 

      next 

   } 

   print(i) 

A. A B. B C. C D. D View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: When the above code is compiled and executed, it produces the following result : [1] ""A"" [1] ""B"" [1] ""C"" [1] ""E"" [1] ""F"" 

 

9. What will be output for the following code? 

 

v <- LETTERS[1] 

for ( i in v) { 

   print(v) 

A. A B. A B C. A B C D. A B C D View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The output for the following code : [1] ""A"" 10. What will be output for the following code? 

 

v <- LETTERS[""A""] 

for ( i in v) { 

   print(v) 

A. A B. NAN C. NA D. Error View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The output for the following code : [1] NA 1. An R function is created by using the keyword? 

 

A. fun B. function C. declare D. extends View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: An R function is created by using the keyword function.  2. What will be output for the following code? 

 

print(mean(25:82)) 

A. 1526 B. 53.5 C. 50.5 D. 55 View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: The code will find mean of numbers from 25 to 82 that is 53.5 3. Point out the wrong statement? 

 

A. Functions in R are “second class objects” B. The writing of a function allows a developer to create an interface to the code, that is explicitly specified with a set of parameters 

C. Functions provides an abstraction of the code to potential users D. Writing functions is a core activity of an R programmer View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Functions in R are “first class objects”, which means that they can be treated much like any other R object. 4. What will be output for the following code? 

 

> paste("a", "b", se = ":") 

A. a+b B. a:b C. a-b D. None of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: With the paste() function, the arguments sep and collapse must be named explicitly and in full if the default values are not going to be used. 5. Which function in R language is used to find out whether the means of 2 groups are equal to each other or not? 

 

A. f.tests () B. l.tests () C. t.tests () D. p.tests () View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: t.tests () function in R language is used to find out whether the means of 2 groups are equal to each other. It is not used most commonly in R. It is used in some specific conditions. 6. What will be the output of log (-5.8) when executed on R console? 

 

A. NA B. NAN C. 0.213 D. Error View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Executing the above on R console or terminal will display a warning sign that NaN (Not a Number) will be produced in R console because it is not possible to take a log of a negative number(-). 7. Which function is preferred over sapply as vapply allows the programmer to specific the output type? 

 

A. Lapply B. Japply C. Vapply D. Zapply View Answer 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Vapply is similar to sapply, but has a pre-specified type of return value, so it can be safer (and sometimes faster) to use. simplify2array() is the utility called from sapply() when simplify is not false and is similarly called from mapply(). 8. How will you check if an element is present in a vector? 

 

A. Match() B. Dismatch() C. Mismatch() D. Search() View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: It can be done using the match () function- match () function returns the first appearance of a particular element. The other way is to use %in% which returns a Boolean value either true or false. 9. You can check to see whether an R object is NULL with the _________ function. 

 

A. is.null() B. is.nullobj() C. null() D. as.nullobj() View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: It is sometimes useful to allow an argument to take the NULL value, which might indicate that the function should take some specific action. 10. In the base graphics system, which function is used to add elements to a plot? 

 

A. Boxplot() B. Text() C. Treat() D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: In the base graphics system, boxplot or text function is used to add elements to a plot. 1. Which of the following syntax is used to install forecast package? 

 

A. install.pack("forecast") B. install.packages("cast") C. install.packages("forecast") D. install.pack("forecastcast") View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: forecast is used for time series analysis 2. Which splits a data frame and returns a data frame? 

 

A. apply B. ddply 

C. stats D. plyr View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: ddply splits a data frame and returns a data frame. 3. Which of the following is an R package for the exploratory analysis of genetic and genomic data? 

 

A. adeg B. adegenet C. anc D. abd View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: This package contains Classes and functions for genetic data analysis within the multivariate framework. 4. Which of the following contains functions for processing uniaxial minute-to-minute accelerometer data? 

 

A. accelerometry B. abc C. abd D. anc View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: This package contains a collection of functions that perform operations on timeseries accelerometer data, such as identify non-wear time, flag minutes that are part of an activity about, and find the maximum 10-minute average count value. 5. ______ Uses Grieg-Smith method on 2 dimensional spatial data. 

 

A. G.A. B. G2db C. G.S. D. G1DBN View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The function returns a GriegSmith object which is a matrix with block sizes, sum of squares for each block size as well as mean sums of squares. G1DBN is a package performing Dynamic Bayesian Network Inference. 6. Which of the following package provide namespace management functions not yet present in base R? 

 

A. stringr B. nbpMatching C. messagewarning D. namespace View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: The package namespace is one of the most confusing parts of building a package. nbpMatching contains functions for non-bipartite optimal matching. 7. What will be the output of the following R code? 

 

install.packages(c("devtools", "roxygen2")) 

A. Develops the tools B. Installs the given packages C. Exits R studio D. Nothing happens View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Make sure you have the latest version of R and then run the above code to get the packages you’ll need. It installs the given packages. Confirm that you have a recent version of RStudio. 8. A bundled package is a package that’s been compressed into a ______ file. 

 

A. Double B. Single C. Triple D. No File View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: A bundled package is a package that’s been compressed into a single file. A source package is just a directory with components like R/, DESCRIPTION, and so on. 9. .library() is not useful when developing a package since you have to install the package first. 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: library() is not useful when developing a package since you have to install the package first. A library is a simple directory containing installed packages. 

 

10. DESCRIPTION uses a very simple file format called DCF. 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: DESCRIPTION uses a very simple file format called DCF, the Debian control format. When you first start writing packages, you’ll mostly use these metadata to record what packages are needed to run your package. 

 

19. HDFS Stores how much data in each clusters that can be scaled at any time? 1. 32 2. 64 3. 128 4. 256 Show Answer 128 

33. _____ provides performance through distribution of data and fault tolerance through replication 1. HDFS 2. PIG 3. HIVE 4. HADOOP Show Answer HDFS 

34. ______ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. 1. HDFS 2. MAP REDUCE 3. HADOOP 4. HIVE Show Answer MAP REDUCE 

35.  ____ takes the grouped key-value paired data as input and runs a Reducer function on each one of them. 1. MAPPER 2. REDUCER 3. COMBINER 4. PARTITIONER Show Answer REDUCER 

36. ____ is a type of local Reducer that groups similar data from the map phase into identifiable sets. 1. MAPPER 2. REDUCER 3. COMBINER 4. PARTITIONER Show Answer COMBINER 

37. While Installing Hadoop how many xml files are edited and list them ? 1. core-site.xml 2. hdfs-site.xml 3. mapred.xml 4. yarn.xml Show Answer core-site.xml 

 


 

 

This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Assessment Questions and Answers focuses on “Pointer to Objects”. 1. Which language among the following doesn’t allow pointers? a) C++ b) Java c) Pascal d) C Answer: b Explanation: The concept of pointers is not supported in Java. The feature is not given in the language but can be used in some ways explicitly. Though this pointer is supported by java too. 2. Which is correct syntax for declaring pointer to object? a) className* objectName; b) className objectName; c) *className objectName; d) className objectName(); Answer: a Explanation: The syntax must contain * symbol after the className as the type of object. This declares an object pointer. This can store address of any object of the specified class. 3. Which operator should be used to access the members of the class using object pointer? a) Dot operator b) Colon to the member c) Scope resolution operator d) Arrow operator Answer: d Explanation: The members can be accessed from the object pointer by using arrow operator. The arrow operator can be used only with the pointer of class type. If simple object is declared, it must use dot operator to access the members. 4. How does compiler decide the intended object to be used, if more than one object are used? a) Using object name b) Using an integer pointer c) Using this pointer d) Using void pointer Answer: c Explanation: This pointer denotes the object, in which it is being used. If member function is called with respect to one object then this pointer refers to the same object members. It can be used when members with same name are involved. 5. If pointer to an object is declared __________ a) It can store any type of address b) It can store only void addresses c) It can only store address of integer type d) It can only store object address of class type specified Answer: d Explanation: The address of only the specified class type can get their address stored in the object pointer. The addresses doesn’t differ but they do differ for the amount and type of memory required for objects of different classes. Hence same class object pointer should be used. 6. What is the size of an object pointer? a) Equal to size of any usual pointer b) Equal to size of sum of all the members of object c) Equal to size of maximum sized member of object d) Equal to size of void Answer: a Explanation: The size of object pointer is same as that of any usual pointer. This is because only the address have to be stored. There are no values to be stored in the pointer. 7. A pointer _________________ a) Can point to only one object at a time b) Can point to more than one objects at a time c) Can point to only 2 objects at a time d) Can point to whole class objects at a time Answer: a Explanation: The object pointer can point to only one object at a time. The pointer will be able to store only one address at a

time. Hence only one object can be referred. 8. Pointer to a base class can be initialized with the address of derived class, because of _________ a) derived-to-base implicit conversion for pointers b) base-to-derived implicit conversion for pointers c) base-to-base implicit conversion for pointers d) derived-to-derived implicit conversion for pointers Answer: a Explanation: It is an implicit rule defined in most of the programming languages. It permits the programmer to declare a pointer to the derived class from a base class pointer. In this way the programmer doesn’t have to declare object for derived class each time it is required. 9. Can pointers to object access the private members of the class? a) Yes, always b) Yes, only if it is only pointer to object c) No, because objects can be referenced from another objects too d) No, never Answer: d Explanation: The pointers to an object can never access the private members of the class outside the class. The object can indirectly use those private members using member functions which are public in the class. 10. Is name of an array of objects is also a pointer to object? a) Yes, always b) Yes, in few cases c) No, because it represents more than one object d) No, never Answer: a Explanation: The array name represents a pointer to the object. The name alone can represent the starting address of the array. But that also represents an array which is in turn stored in a pointer. 11. Which among the following is true? a) The pointer to object can hold address only b) The pointer can hold value of any type c) The pointer can hold only void reference d) The pointer can’t hold any value Answer: a Explanation: The pointer to an object can hold only the addresses. Address of any other object of same class. This allows the programmer to link more than one objects if required. 12. Which is the correct syntax to call a member function using pointer? a) pointer->function() b) pointer.function() c) pointer::function() d) pointer:function() Answer: a Explanation: The pointer should be mentioned followed by the arrow operator. Arrow operator is applicable only with the pointers. Then the function name should be mentioned that is to be called. 13. If a pointer to an object is created and the object gets deleted without using the pointer then __________ a) It becomes void pointer b) It becomes dangling pointer c) It becomes null pointer d) It becomes zero pointer Answer: b Explanation: When the address pointed by the object pointer gets deleted, the pointer now points to an invalid address. Hence it becomes a dangling pointer. It can’t be null or void pointer since it doesn’t point to any specific location. 14. How can the address stored in the pointer be retrieved? a) Using * symbol b) Using $ symbol c) Using & symbol d) Using @ symbol Answer: c Explanation: The & symbol must be used. This should be done such that the object should be preceded by & symbol and then

the address should be stored in another variable. This is done to get the address where the object is stored. 15. What should be done to prevent changes that may be made to the values pointed by the pointer? a) Usual pointer can’t change the values pointed b) Pointer should be made virtual c) Pointer should be made anonymous d) Pointer should be made const Answer: d Explanation: The pointer should be declared as a const type. This prevents the pointer to change any value that is being pointed from it. This is a feature that is made to access the values using pointer but to make sure that pointer doesn’t change those values accidently. 16. References to object are same as pointers of object. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The references are made to object when the object is created and initialized with another object without calling any constructor. But the object pointer must be declared explicitly using * symbol that will be capable of storing some address. Hence both are different.

This set of Basic Object Oriented Programming using C++ Questions and Answers focuses on “Copy Constructor”. 1. Copy constructor is a constructor which ________________ a) Creates an object by copying values from any other object of same class b) Creates an object by copying values from first object created for that class c) Creates an object by copying values from another object of another class d) Creates an object by initializing it with another previously created object of same class Answer: d Explanation: The object that has to be copied to new object must be previously created. The new object gets initialized with the same values as that of the object mentioned for being copied. The exact copy is made with values. 2. The copy constructor can be used to ____________ a) Initialize one object from another object of same type b) Initialize one object from another object of different type c) Initialize more than one object from another object of same type at a time d) Initialize all the objects of a class to another object of another class Answer: a Explanation: The copy constructor has the most basic function to initialize the members of an object with same values as that of some previously created object. The object must be of same class. 3. If two classes have exactly same data members and member function and only they differ by class name. Can copy constructor be used to initialize one class object with another class object? a) Yes, possible b) Yes, because the members are same c) No, not possible d) No, but possible if constructor is also same Answer: c Explanation: The restriction for copy constructor is that it must be used with the object of same class. Even if the classes are exactly same the constructor won’t be able to access all the members of another class. Hence we can’t use object of another class for initialization. 4. The copy constructors can be used to ________ a) Copy an object so that it can be passed to a class b) Copy an object so that it can be passed to a function c) Copy an object so that it can be passed to another primitive type variable d) Copy an object for type casting Answer: b Explanation: When an object is passed to a function, actually its copy is made in the function. To copy the values, copy constructor is used. Hence the object being passed and object being used in function are different. 5. Which returning an object, we can use ____________ a) Default constructor b) Zero argument constructor c) Parameterized constructor d) Copy constructor Answer: d Explanation: While returning an object we can use the copy constructor. When we assign the return value to another object of same class then this copy constructor will be used. And all the members will be assigned the same values as that of the object being returned. 6. If programmer doesn’t define any copy constructor then _____________ a) Compiler provides an implicit copy constructor b) Compiler gives an error c) The objects can’t be assigned with another objects d) The program gives run time error if copying is used Answer: a Explanation: The compiler provides an implicit copy constructor. It is not mandatory to always create an explicit copy constructor. The values are copied using implicit constructor only. 7. If a class implements some dynamic memory allocations and pointers then _____________ a) Copy constructor must be defined b) Copy constructor must not be defined c) Copy constructor can’t be defined d) Copy constructor will not be used 

Answer: a Explanation: In the case where dynamic memory allocation is used, the copy constructor definition must be given. The implicit copy constructor is not capable of manipulating the dynamic memory and pointers. Explicit definition allows to manipulate the data as required. 8. What is the syntax of copy constructor? a) classname (classname &obj){ /*constructor definition*/ } b) classname (cont classname obj){ /*constructor definition*/ } c) classname (cont classname &obj){ /*constructor definition*/ } d) classname (cont &obj){ /*constructor definition*/ } Answer: c Explanation: The syntax must contain the class name first, followed by the classname as type and &object within parenthesis. Then comes the constructor body. The definition can be given as per requirements. 9. Object being passed to a copy constructor ___________ a) Must be passed by reference b) Must be passed by value c) Must be passed with integer type d) Must not be mentioned in parameter list Answer: a Explanation: This is mandatory to pass the object by reference. Otherwise, the object will try to create another object to copy its values, in turn a constructor will be called, and this will keep on calling itself. This will cause the compiler to give out of memory error. 10. Out of memory error is given when the object _____________ to the copy constructor. a) Is passed with & symbol b) Is passed by reference c) Is passed as <classname &obj> d) Is not passed by reference Answer: d Explanation: All the options given, directly or indirectly indicate that the object is being passed by reference. And if object is not passed by reference then the out of memory error is produced. Due to infinite constructor call of itself. 11. Copy constructor will be called whenever the compiler __________ a) Generates implicit code b) Generates member function calls c) Generates temporary object d) Generates object operations Answer: c Explanation: Whenever the compiler creates a temporary object, copy constructor is used to copy the values from existing object to the temporary object. 12. The deep copy is possible only with the help of __________ a) Implicit copy constructor b) User defined copy constructor c) Parameterized constructor d) Default constructor Answer: b Explanation: While using explicit copy constructor, the pointers of copied object point to the intended memory location. This is assured since the programmers themselves manipulate the addresses. 13. Can a copy constructor be made private? a) Yes, always b) Yes, if no other constructor is defined c) No, never d) No, private members can’t be accessed Answer: a Explanation: The copy constructor can be defined as private. If we make it private then the objects of the class can’t be copied. It can be used when a class used dynamic memory allocation. 14. The arguments to a copy constructor _____________ a) Must be const b) Must not be cosnt c) Must be integer type 

d) Must be static Answer: a Explanation: The object should not be modified in the copy constructor. Because the object itself is being copied. When the object is returned from a function, the object must be a constant otherwise the compiler creates a temporary object which can die anytime. 15. Copy constructors are overloaded constructors. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The copy constructors are always overloaded constructors. They have to be. All the classes have a default constructor and other constructors are basically overloaded constructors. To practice basic questions and answers on all areas of Object Oriented Programming using C++, .

This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Interview Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Passing Object to Functions”. 1. Passing object to a function _______________ a) Can be done only in one way b) Can be done in more than one ways c) Is not possible d) Is not possible in OOP Answer: b Explanation: The objects can be passed to the functions and this requires OOP concept because objects are main part of OOP. The objects can be passed in more than one way to a function. The passing depends on how the object have to be used. 2. The object ________________ a) Can be passed by reference b) Can be passed by value c) Can be passed by reference or value d) Can be passed with reference Answer: c Explanation: The objects can be passed by reference if required to use the same object. The values can be passed so that the main object remains same and no changes are made to it if the function makes any changes to the values being passed. 3. Which symbol should be used to pass the object by reference in C++? a) & b) @ c) $ d) $ or & Answer: a Explanation: The object to be passed by reference to the function should be preceded by & symbol in the argument list syntax of the function. This indicates the compiler not to use new object. The same object which is being passed have to be used. 4. If object is passed by value ______________ a) Copy constructor is used to copy the values into another object in the function b) Copy constructor is used to copy the values into temporary object c) Reference to the object is used to access the values of the object d) Reference to the object is used to created new object in its place Answer: a Explanation: The copy constructor is used. This constructor is used to copy the values into a new object which will contain all the values same as that of the object being passed but any changes made to the newly created object will not affect the original object. 5. Pass by reference of an object to a function _______________ a) Affects the object in called function only b) Affects the object in prototype only c) Affects the object in caller function d) Affects the object only if mentioned with & symbol with every call Answer: c Explanation: The original object in the caller function will get affected. The changes made in the called function will be same in the caller function object also. 6. Copy constructor definition requires __________________ a) Object to be passed by value b) Object not to be passed to it c) Object to be passed by reference d) Object to be passed with each data member value Answer: c Explanation: The object must be passed by reference to a copy constructor. This is to avoid the out of memory error. The constructors keeps calling itself, if not passed by reference, and goes out of memory. 7. What is the type of object that should be specified in the argument list? a) Function name b) Object name itself c) Caller function name d) Class name of object Answer: d 

Explanation: The type of object is the class itself. The class name have to be specified in order to pass the objects to a function. This allows the program to create another object of same class or to use the same object that was passed. 8. If an object is passed by value, _________________ a) Temporary object is used in the function b) Local object in the function is used c) Only the data member values are used d) The values are accessible from the original object Answer: b Explanation: When an object is called by values, copy constructor is called and object is copied to the local object of the function which is mentioned in the argument list. The values gets copied and are used from the local object. There is no need to access the original object again. 9. Can data members be passed to a function using the object? a) Yes, it can be passed only inside class functions b) Yes, only if the data members are public and are being passed to a function outside the class c) No, can’t be passed outside the class d) No, can’t be done Answer: b Explanation: The data members can be passed with help of object but only if the member is public. The object will obviously be used outside the class. The object must have access to the data member so that its value or reference is used outside the class which is possible only if the member is public. 10. What exactly is passed when an object is passed by reference? a) The original object name b) The original object class name c) The exact address of the object in memory d) The exact address of data members Answer: c Explanation: The location of the object, that is, the exact memory location is passed, when the object is passed by reference. The pass by reference is actually a reference to the object that the function uses with another name to the same memory location as the original object uses. 11. If the object is not to be passed to any function but the values of the object have to be used then? a) The data members should be passed separately b) The data members and member functions have to be passed separately c) The values should be present in other variables d) The object must be passed Answer: a Explanation: The data members can be passed separately. There is no need to pass whole object, instead we can use the object to pass only the required values. 12. Which among the following is true? a) More than one object can’t be passed to a function b) Any number of objects can be passed to a function c) Objects can’t be passed, only data member values can be passed d) Objects should be passed only if those are public in class Answer: b Explanation: There is no restriction on passing the number of objects to a function. The operating system or the compiler or environment may limit the number of arguments. But there is no limit on number of objects till that limit. 13. What will be the output if all necessary code is included (Header files and main function)? void test (Object &y) {    y = "It is a string"; } void main() { Object x = null; test (x); System.out.println (x); } a) Run time error 

b) Compile time error c) Null d) It is a string Answer: d Explanation: This is because the x object is passed by reference. The changes made inside the function will be applicable to original function too. 14. In which type is new memory location will be allocated? a) Only in pass by reference b) Only in pass by value c) Both in pass by reference and value d) Depends on the code Answer: b Explanation: The new memory location will be allocated only if the object is passed by value. Reference uses the same memory address and is denoted by another name also. But in pass by value, another object is created and new memory space is allocated for it. 15. Pass by reference and pass by value can’t be done simultaneously in a single function argument list. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: There is no condition which specifies that only the reference pass or values pass is allowed. The argument list can contain one reference pass and another value pass. This helps to manipulate the objects with functions more easily.

This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Interview Questions and Answers for freshers focuses on “Overriding Member Functions”. 1. Which among the following best describes member function overriding? a) Member functions having same name in base and derived classes b) Member functions having same name in base class only c) Member functions having same name in derived class only d) Member functions having same name and different signature inside main function Answer: a Explanation: The member function which is defined in base class and again in the derived class, is overridden by the definition given in the derived class. This is because the preference is given more to the local members. When derived class object calls that function, definition from the derived class is used. 2. Which among the following is true? a) Inheritance must not be using when overriding is used b) Overriding can be implemented without using inheritance c) Inheritance must be done, to use overriding are overridden d) Inheritance is mandatory only if more than one functions Answer: c Explanation: The inheritance must be used in order to use function overriding. If inheritance is not used, the functions can only be overloaded. There must be a base class and a derived class to override the function of base class. 3. Which is the correct condition for function overriding? a) The declaration must not be same in base and derived class b) The declaration must be exactly the same in base and derived class c) The declaration should have at least 1 same argument in declaration of base and derived class d) The declaration should have at least 1 different argument in declaration of base and derived class Answer: b Explanation: For a function to be over ridden, the declaration must be exactly the same. There must not be any different syntax used. This will ensure that the function to be overridden is only the one intended from to be overridden from the derived class. 4. Exactly same declaration in base and derived class includes______________ a) Only same name b) Only same return type and name c) Only same return type and argument list d) All the same return type, name and parameter list Answer: d Explanation: Declaration includes the whole prototype of the function. The return type name and the parameter list must be same in order to confirm that the function is same in derived and the base class. And hence can be overridden. 5. Which among function will be overridden from the function defined in derived class below: class A { int i; void show() {   cout&lt;&lt;i;  } void print() {   cout &lt;&lt;i;  } }; class B { int j; void show() {   cout&lt;&lt;j;  } }; a) show() b) print() c) show() and print() 

d) Compile time error Answer: a Explanation: The declaration must be exactly same in the derived class and base class. The derived class have defined show() function with exactly same declaration. This then shows that the function in base class is being overridden if show() is called from the object of class B. 6. How to access the overridden method of base class from the derived class? a) Using arrow operator b) Using dot operator c) Using scope resolution operator d) Can’t be accessed once overridden Answer: c Explanation: Scope resolution operator :: can be used to access the base class method even if overridden. To access those, first base class name should be written followed by the scope resolution operator and then the method name. 7. The functions to be overridden _____________ a) Must be private in base class b) Must not be private base class c) Must be private in both derived and base class d) Must not be private in both derived and base class Answer: b Explanation: If the function is private in the base class, derived class won’t be able to access it. When the derived class can’t access the function to be overridden then it won’t be able to override it with any definition. 8. Which language doesn’t support the method overriding implicitly? a) C++ b) C# c) Java d) SmallTalk Answer: b Explanation: The feature of method overriding is not provided in C#. To override the methods, one must use override or virtual keywords explicitly. This is done to remove accidental changes in program and unintentional overriding. 9. In C# ____________________ a) Non – virtual or static methods can’t be overridden b) Non – virtual and static methods only can be overridden c) Overriding is not allowed d) Overriding must be implemented using C++ code only Answer: a Explanation: The non-virtual and static methods can’t be overridden in C# language. The restriction is made from the language implicitly. Only the methods that are abstract, virtual or override can be overridden. 10. In Delphi ______________ a) Method overriding is done implicitly b) Method overriding is not supported c) Method overriding is done with directive override d) Method overriding is done with the directive virtually Answer: c Explanation: This is possible but only if the method to be overridden is marked as dynamic or virtual. It is inbuilt restriction of programming language. This is done to reduce the accidental or unintentional overriding. 11. What should be used to call the base class method from the derived class if function overriding is used in Java? a) Keyword super b) Scope resolution c) Dot operator d) Function name in parenthesis Answer: a Explanation: The keyword super must be used to access base class members. Even when overriding is used, super must be used with the dot operator. The overriding is possible. 12. In Kotlin, the function to be overridden must be ______________ a) Private b) Open c) Closed 

d) Abstract Answer: b Explanation: The function to be overridden must be open. This is a condition in Kotlin for any function to be overridden. This avoids accidental overriding. 13. Abstract functions of a base class _________________ a) Are overridden by the definition in same class b) Are overridden by the definition in parent class c) Are not overridden generally d) Are overridden by the definition in derived class Answer: d Explanation: The functions declared to be abstract in base class are redefined in derived classes. That is, the functions are overridden by the definitions given in the derived classes. This must be done to give at least one definition to each undefined function. 14. If virtual functions are defined in the base class then _______________ a) It is not necessary for derived classes to override those functions b) It is necessary for derived classes to override those functions c) Those functions can never be derived d) Those functions must be overridden by all the derived classes Answer: a Explanation: The derived classes doesn’t have to redefine and override the base class functions. If one definition is already given it is not mandatory for any derived class to override those functions. The base class definition will be used. 15. Which feature of OOP is exhibited by the function overriding? a) Inheritance b) Abstraction c) Polymorphism d) Encapsulation Answer: c Explanation: The polymorphism feature is exhibited by function overriding. Polymorphism is the feature which basically defines that same named functions can have more than one functionalities.

This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Interview Questions and Answers focuses on “Passing and Returning Object with Functions”. 1. In how many ways can an object be passed to a function? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Explanation: The objects can be passed in three ways. Pass by value, pass by reference and pass by address. These are the general ways to pass the objects to a function. 2. If an object is passed by value _____________ a) A new copy of object is created implicitly b) The object itself is used c) Address of the object is passed d) A new object is created with new random values Answer: a Explanation: When an object is passed by value, a new object is created implicitly. This new object uses the implicit values assignment, same as that of the object being passed. 3. Pass by address passes the address of object _________ and pass by reference passes the address of the object _________ a) Explicitly, explicitly b) Implicitly, implicitly c) Explicitly, Implicitly d) Implicitly, explicitly Answer: c Explanation: Pass by address uses the explicit address passing to the function whereas pass by reference implicitly passes the address of the object. 4. If an object is passed by reference, the changes made in the function ___________ a) Are reflected to the main object of caller function too b) Are reflected only in local scope of the called function c) Are reflected to the copy of the object that is made during pass d) Are reflected to caller function object and called function object also Answer: a Explanation: When an object is passed by reference, its address is passed implicitly. This will make changes to the main function whenever any modification is done. 5. Constructor function is not called when an object is passed to a function, will its destructor be called when its copy is destroyed? a) Yes, depending on code b) Yes, must be called c) No, since no constructor was called d) No, since same object gets used Answer: b Explanation: Even though the constructor is not called when the object is passed to a function, the copy of the object is still created, where the values of the members are same. When the object have to be destroyed, the destructor is called to free the memory and resources that the object might have reserved. 6. When an object is returned by a function, a _______________ is automatically created to hold the return value. a) Temporary object b) Virtual object c) New object d) Data member Answer: a Explanation: The temporary object is created. It holds the return value. The values gets assigned as required, and the temporary object gets destroyed. 7. Is the destruction of temporary object safe (while returning object)? a) Yes, the resources get free to use b) Yes, other objects can use the memory space c) No, unexpected side effects may occur 

d) No, always gives rise to exceptions Answer: c Explanation: The destruction of temporary variable may give rise to unexpected logical errors. Consider the destructor which may free the dynamically allocated memory. But this may abort the program if another is still trying to copy the values from that dynamic memory. 8. How to overcome the problem arising due to destruction of temporary object? a) Overloading insertion operator b) Overriding functions can be used c) Overloading parenthesis or returning object d) Overloading assignment operator and defining copy constructor Answer: d Explanation: The problem can be solved by overloading the assignment operator to get the values that might be getting returned while the destructor free the dynamic memory. Defining copy constructor can help us to do this in even simpler way. 9. How many objects can be returned at once? a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Only 16 d) As many as required Answer: a Explanation: Like any other value, only one object can be returned at ones. The only possible way to return more than one object is to return address of an object array. But that again comes under returning object pointer. 10. What will be the output of the following code? Class A {  int i;  public : A(int n) {   i=n; cout&lt;&lt;”inside constructor ”; }  ~A() {  cout&lt;&lt;”destroying  ”&lt;&lt;i; } void seti(int n) {  i=n; } int geti() {  return I; } }; void t(A ob) {  cout&lt;&lt;”something ”; } int main() { A a(1); t(a); cout&lt;&lt;”this is i in main ”; cout&lt;&lt;a.geti(); } a) inside constructor something destroying 2this is i in main destroying 1 b) inside constructor something this is i in main destroying 1 c) inside constructor something destroying 2this is i in main d) something destroying 2this is i in main destroying 1 Answer: a Explanation: Although the object constructor is called only ones, the destructor will be called twice, because of destroying the copy of the object that is temporarily created. This is the concept of how the object should be passed and manipulated.

11. It is necessary to return the object if it was passed by reference to a function. a) Yes, since the object must be same in caller function b) Yes, since the caller function needs to reflect the changes c) No, the changes are made automatically d) No, the changes are made explicitly Answer: c Explanation: Having the address being passed to the function, the changes are automatically made to the main function. In all the cases if the address is being used, the same memory location will be updated with new values. 12. How many objects can be passed to a function simultaneously? a) Only 1 b) Only an array c) Only 1 or an array d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: There is no limit to how many objects can be passed. This works in same way as that any other variable gets passed. Array and object can be passed at same time also. 13. If an object is passed by address, will be constructor be called? a) Yes, to allocate the memory b) Yes, to initialize the members c) No, values are copied d) No, temporary object is created Answer: c Explanation: A copy of all the values is created. If the constructor is called, there will be a compile time error or memory shortage. This happens because each time a constructor is called, it try to call itself again and that goes infinite times. 14. Is it possible that an object of is passed to a function, and the function also have an object of same name? a) No, Duplicate declaration is not allowed b) No, 2 objects will be created c) Yes, Scopes are different d) Yes, life span is different Answer: a Explanation: There can’t be more than one variable or object with the same name in same scope. The scope is same, since the object is passed, it becomes local to function and hence function can’t have one more object of same name. 15. Passing an object using copy constructor and pass by value are same. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The copy constructor is used to copy the values from one object to other. Pass by values is not same as copy constructor method. Actually the pass by value method uses a copy constructor to copy the values in a local object.

This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers focuses on “Private Member Functions”. 1. Which is private member functions access scope? a) Member functions which can only be used within the class b) Member functions which can used outside the class c) Member functions which are accessible in derived class d) Member functions which can’t be accessed inside the class Answer: a Explanation: The member functions can be accessed inside the class only if they are private. The access is scope is limited to ensure the security of the private members and their usage. 2. Which among the following is true? a) The private members can’t be accessed by public members of the class b) The private members can be accessed by public members of the class c) The private members can be accessed only by the private members of the class d) The private members can’t be accessed by the protected members of the class Answer: b Explanation: The private members are accessible within the class. There is no restriction on use of private members by public or protected members. All the members can access the private member functions of the class. 3. Which member can never be accessed by inherited classes? a) Private member function b) Public member function c) Protected member function d) All can be accessed Answer: a Explanation: The private member functions can never be accessed in the derived classes. The access specifiers is of maximum security that allows only the members of self class to access the private member functions. 4. Which syntax among the following shows that a member is private in a class? a) private: functionName(parameters) b) private(functionName(parameters)) c) private functionName(parameters) d) private::functionName(parameters) Answer: c Explanation: The function declaration must contain private keyword follower by the return type and function name. Private keyword is followed by normal function declaration. 5. If private member functions are to be declared in C++ then _____________ a) private: <all private members> b) private <member name> c) private(private member list) d) private :- <private members> Answer: a Explanation: The private members doesn’t have to have the keyword with each private member. We only have to specify the keyword private followed by single colon and then private member’s are listed. 6. In java, which rule must be followed? a) Keyword private preceding list of private member’s b) Keyword private with a colon before list of private member’s c) Keyword private with arrow before each private member d) Keyword private preceding each private member Answer: d Explanation: The private keyword must be mentioned before each private member. Unlike the rule in C++ to specify private once and list all other private member’s, in java all member declarations must be preceded by the keyword private. 7. How many private member functions are allowed in a class? a) Only 1 b) Only 7 c) Only 255 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: There are no conditions applied on the number of private member functions that can be declared in a class. Though

the system may restrict use of too many functions depending on memory. 8. How to access a private member function of a class? a) Using object of class b) Using object pointer c) Using address of member function d) Using class address Answer: c Explanation: Even the private member functions can be called outside the class. This is possible if address of the function is known. We can use the address to call the function outside the class. 9. Private member functions ____________ a) Can’t be called from enclosing class b) Can be accessed from enclosing class c) Can be accessed only if nested class is private d) Can be accessed only if nested class is public Answer: a Explanation: The nested class members can’t be accessed in the enclosed class even though other members can be accessed. This is to ensure the class members security and not to go against the rules of private members. 10. Which function among the following can’t be accessed outside the class in java in same package? a) public void show() b) void show() c) protected show() d) static void show() Answer: c Explanation: The protected members are available within the class. And are also available in derived classes. But these members are treated as private members for outside the class and inheritance structure. Hence can’t be accessed. 11. If private members are to be called outside the class, which is a good alternative? a) Call a public member function which calls private function b) Call a private member function which calls private function c) Call a protected member function which calls private function d) Not possible Answer: a Explanation: The private member functions can be accessed within the class. A public member function can be called which in turn calls the private member function. This maintains the security and adheres to the rules of private members. 12. A private function of a derived class can be accessed by the parent class. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: If private functions get accessed even by the parent class that will violate the rules of private members. If the functions can be accessed then the derived class security is hindered. 13. Which error will be produced if private members are accessed? a) Can’t access private message b) Code unreachable c) Core dumped d) Bad code Answer: a Explanation: The private members access from outside the class produce an error. The error states that the code at some line can’t access the private members. And denies the access terminating the program. 14. Can main() function be made private? a) Yes, always b) Yes, if program doesn’t contain any classes c) No, because main function is user defined d) No, never Answer: d Explanation: The reason given in option “No, because main function is user defined” is wrong. The proper reason that the main function should not be private is that it should be accessible in whole program. This makes the program flexible. 15. If a function in java is declared private then it __________________ 

a) Can’t access the standard output b) Can access the standard output c) Can’t access any output stream d) Can access only the output streams Answer: b Explanation: The private members can access any standard input or output. There is no restriction on access to any input or output stream. And since standard input can also be used hence only accessing the output stream is not true. To practice all areas of Object Oriented Programming using C++, .

This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Problems focuses on “Types of Member Functions”. 1. How many types of member functions are possible in general? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: d Explanation: There are basically 5 types of member functions possible. The types include simple, static, const, inline, and friend member functions. Any of these types can be used in a program as per requirements. 2. Simple member functions are ______________________ a) Ones defined simply without any type b) Ones defined with keyword simple c) Ones that are implicitly provided d) Ones which are defined in all the classes Answer: a Explanation: When there is no type defined for any function and just a simple syntax is used with the return type, function name and parameter list then those are known as simple member functions. This is a general definition of simple members. 3. What are static member functions? a) Functions which use only static data member but can’t be accessed directly b) Functions which uses static and other data members c) Functions which can be accessed outside the class with the data members d) Functions using only static data and can be accessed directly in main() function Answer: d Explanation: The static member functions can be accessed directly in the main function. There is no restriction on direct use. We can call them with use of objects also. But the restriction is that the static member functions can only use the static data members of the class. 4. How can static member function can be accessed directly in main() function? a) Dot operator b) Colon c) Scope resolution operator d) Arrow operator Answer: c Explanation: The static member functions can be accessed directly in the main() function. The only restriction is that those must use only static data members of the class. These functions are property of class rather than each object. 5. Correct syntax to access the static member functions from the main() function is ______________ a) classObject::functionName(); b) className::functionName(); c) className:classObject:functionName(); d) className.classObject:functionName(); Answer: b Explanation: The syntax in option b must be followed in order to call the static functions directly from the main() function. That is a predefined syntax. Scope resolution helps to spot the correct function in the correct class. 6. What are const member functions? a) Functions in which none of the data members can be changed in a program b) Functions in which only static members can be changed c) Functions which treat all the data members as constant and doesn’t allow changes d) Functions which can change only the static members Answer: c Explanation: The const member functions are intended to keep the value of all the data members of a class same and doesn’t allow any changes on them. The data members are treated as constant data and any modification inside the const function is restricted. 7. Which among the following best describes the inline member functions? a) Functions defined inside the class only b) Functions with keyword inline only c) Functions defined outside the class d) Functions defined inside the class or with the keyword inline Answer: d 

Explanation: The functions which are defined with the keyword inline or are defined inside the class are treated to be inline functions. Definitions inside the class are implicitly made inline if none of the complex statements are used in the definition. 8. What are friend member functions (C++)? a) Member function which can access all the members of a class b) Member function which can modify any data of a class c) Member function which doesn’t have access to private members d) Non-member functions which have access to all the members (including private) of a class Answer: d Explanation: A non-member function of a class which can access even the private data of a class is a friend function. It is an exception on access to private members outside the class. It is sometimes considered as a member functions since it has all the access that a member function in general have. 9. What is the syntax of a const member function? a) void fun() const {} b) void fun() constant {} c) void const fun() {} d) const void fun(){} Answer: a Explanation: The general syntax to be followed in order to declare a const function in a class is as in option a. The syntax may vary in different programming languages. 10. Which keyword is used to make a nonmember function as friend function of a class? a) friendly b) new c) friend d) connect Answer: c Explanation: The keyword friend is provided in programming languages to use it whenever a functions is to be made friend of one class or other. The keyword indicates that the function is capable of new functionalities like accessing private members. 11. Member functions _____________________ a) Must be defined inside class body b) Can be defined inside class body or outside c) Must be defined outside the class body d) Can be defined in another class Answer: c Explanation: The functions definitions can be given inside or outside the body of class. If defined inside, general syntax is used. If defined outside then the class name followed by scope resolution operator and then function name must be given for the definition. 12. All type of member functions can’t be used inside a single class. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: There is no restriction on the use of type of member functions inside a single class. Any type any number of times can be defined inside a class. The member functions can be used as required. 13. Which among the following is true? a) Member functions can never be private b) Member functions can never be protected c) Member functions can never be public d) Member functions can be defined in any access specifier Answer: d Explanation: The member functions can be defined inside any specifier. There is no restriction. The programmer can apply restrictions on its use by specifying the access specifier with the functions. 14. Which keyword is used to define the static member functions? a) static b) stop c) open d) state Answer: a Explanation: The static keyword is used to declare any static member function in a class. The static members become common

to each object of the class being created. They share the same values. 15. Which keyword is used to define the inline member function? a) no keyword required b) inline c) inlined d) line Answer: b Explanation: The inline keyword is used to defined the inline member functions in a class. The functions are implicitly made inline if defined inside the class body, but only if they doesn’t have any complex statement inside. All functions defined outside the class body must be mentioned with an explicit inline keyword.

This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Abstract Class”. 1. Which among the following best describes abstract classes? a) If a class has more than one virtual function, it’s abstract class b) If a class have only one pure virtual function, it’s abstract class c) If a class has at least one pure virtual function, it’s abstract class d) If a class has all the pure virtual functions only, then it’s abstract class Answer: c Explanation: The condition for a class to be called abstract class is that it must have at least one pure virtual function. The keyword abstract must be used while defining abstract class in java. 2. Can abstract class have main() function defined inside it? a) Yes, depending on return type of main() b) Yes, always c) No, main must not be defined inside abstract class d) No, because main() is not abstract function Answer: b Explanation: This is a property of abstract class. It can define main() function inside it. There is no restriction on its definition and implementation. 3. If there is an abstract method in a class then, ________________ a) Class must be abstract class b) Class may or may not be abstract class c) Class is generic d) Class must be public Answer: a Explanation: It is a rule that if a class have even one abstract method, it must be an abstract class. If this rule was not made, the abstract methods would have got skipped to get defined in some places which are undesirable with the idea of abstract class. 4. If a class is extending/inheriting another abstract class having abstract method, then _______________________ a) Either implementation of method or making class abstract is mandatory b) Implementation of the method in derived class is mandatory c) Making the derived class also abstract is mandatory d) It’s not mandatory to implement the abstract method of parent class Answer: a Explanation: Either of the two things must be done, either implementation or declaration of class as abstract. This is done to ensure that the method intended to be defined by other classes gets defined at every possible class. 5. Abstract class A has 4 virtual functions. Abstract class B defines only 2 of those member functions as it extends class A. Class C extends class B and implements the other two member functions of class A. Choose the correct option below. a) Program won’t run as all the methods are not defined by B b) Program won’t run as C is not inheriting A directly c) Program won’t run as multiple inheritance is used d) Program runs correctly Answer: d Explanation: The program runs correctly. This is because even class B is abstract so it’s not mandatory to define all the virtual functions. Class C is not abstract but all the virtual functions have been implemented will that class. 6. Abstract classes can ____________________ instances. a) Never have b) Always have c) Have array of d) Have pointer of Answer: a Explanation: When an abstract class is defined, it won’t be having the implementation of at least one function. This will restrict the class to have any constructor. When the class doesn’t have constructor, there won’t be any instance of that class. 7. We ___________________ to an abstract class. a) Can create pointers b) Can create references c) Can create pointers or references d) Can’t create any reference, pointer or instance Answer: c 

Explanation: Even though there can’t be any instance of abstract class. We can always create pointer or reference to abstract class. The member functions which have some implementation inside abstract itself can be used with these references. 8. Which among the following is an important use of abstract classes? a) Header files b) Class Libraries c) Class definitions d) Class inheritance Answer: b Explanation: The abstract classes can be used to create a generic, extensible class library that can be used by other programmers. This helps us to get some already implemented codes and functions that might have not been provided by the programming language itself. 9. Use of pointers or reference to an abstract class gives rise to which among the following feature? a) Static Polymorphism b) Runtime polymorphism c) Compile time Polymorphism d) Polymorphism within methods Answer: b Explanation: The runtime polymorphism is supported by reference and pointer to an abstract class. This relies upon base class pointer and reference to select the proper virtual function. 10. The abstract classes in java can _________________ a) Implement constructors b) Can’t implement constructor c) Can implement only unimplemented methods d) Can’t implement any type of constructor Answer: a Explanation: The abstract classes in java can define a constructor. Even though instance can’t be created. But in this way, only during constructor chaining, constructor can be called. When instance of concrete implementation class is created, it’s known as constructor chaining. 11. Abstract class can’t be final in java. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: If an abstract class is made final in java, it will stop the abstract class from being extended. And if the class is not getting extended, there won’t be another class to implement the virtual functions. Due to this contradicting fact, it can’t be final in java. 12. Can abstract classes have static methods (Java)? a) Yes, always b) Yes, but depends on code c) No, never d) No, static members can’t have different values Answer: a Explanation: There is no restriction on declaring static methods. The only condition is that the virtual functions must have some definition in the program. 13. It is _________________________ to have an abstract method. a) Not mandatory for an static class b) Not mandatory for a derived class c) Not mandatory for an abstract class d) Not mandatory for parent class Answer: c Explanation: Derived, parent and static classes can’t have abstract method (We can’t say what type of these classes is). And for abstract class it’s not mandatory to have abstract method. But if any abstract method is there inside a class, then class must be abstract type. 14. How many abstract classes can a single program contain? a) At most 1 b) At least 1 c) At most 127 d) As many as required 

Answer: d Explanation: There is no restriction on the number of abstract classes that can be defined inside a single program. The programs can use as many abstract classes as required. But the functions with no body must be implemented. 15. Is it necessary that all the abstract methods must be defined from an abstract class? a) Yes, depending on code b) Yes, always c) No, never d) No, if function is not used, no definition is required Answer: b Explanation: That is the rule of programming language that each function declared, must have some definition. There can’t be some abstract method that remains undefined. Even if it’s there, it would result in compile time error.

This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on ” Abstract Function”. 1. Which among the following best defines the abstract methods? a) Functions declared and defined in base class b) Functions only declared in base class c) Function which may or may not be defined in base class d) Function which must be declared in derived class Answer: b Explanation: The abstract functions must only be declared in base class. Their definitions are provided by the derived classes. It is a mandatory condition. 2. Which among the following is true? a) The abstract functions must be only declared in derived classes b) The abstract functions must not be defined in derived classes c) The abstract functions must be defined in base and derived class d) The abstract functions must be defined either in base or derived class Answer: a Explanation: The abstract functions can’t be defined in base class. They are to be defined in derived classes. It is a rule for abstract functions. 3. How are abstract functions different from the abstract functions? a) Abstract must not be defined in base class whereas virtual function can be defined b) Either of those must be defined in base class c) Different according to definition d) Abstract functions are faster Answer: a Explanation: The abstract functions are only declared in base class. Derived classes have to implement those functions in order to inherit that base class. The functions are always defined in derived classes only. 4. Which among the following is correct? a) Abstract functions should not be defined in all the derived classes b) Abstract functions should be defined only in one derived class c) Abstract functions must be defined in base class d) Abstract functions must be defined in all the derived classes Answer: d Explanation: The abstract function are only declared in base classes and then has to be defined in all the derived classes. This allows all the derived classes to define own definition of any function whose declaration in base class might be common to all the other derived classes. 5. It is ____________________ to define the abstract functions. a) Mandatory for all the classes in program b) Necessary for all the base classes c) Necessary for all the derived classes d) Not mandatory for all the derived classes Answer: c Explanation: The derived classes must define the abstract function of base class in their own body. This is a necessary condition. Because the abstract functions doesn’t contain any definition in base class and hence becomes mandatory for the derived class to define them. All the functions in a program must have some definition. 6. The abstract function definitions in derived classes is enforced at _________ a) Runtime b) Compile time c) Writing code time d) Interpreting time Answer: b Explanation: When the program is compiled, these definitions are checked if properly defined. This compiler also ensure that the function is being defined by all the derived classes. Hence we get a compile time error if not done. 7. What is this feature of enforcing definitions of abstract function at compile time called? a) Static polymorphism b) Polymorphism c) Dynamic polymorphism d) Static or dynamic according to need 

Answer: c Explanation: The feature is known as Dynamic polymorphism. Because the definitions are resolved at runtime. Even though the definitions are checked at compile time, they are resolved at runtime only. 8. What is the syntax for using abstract method? a) <access-modifier>abstract<return-type>method_name (parameter) b) abs<return-type>method name (parameter) c) <access-modifier>abstract return-type method name (parameter) d) <access-modifier>abstract <returning> method name (parameter) Answer: a Explanation: The syntax must firstly contain the access modifier. Then the keyword abstract is written to mention clearly to the compiler that it is an abstract method. Then prototype of the function with return type, function name and parameters. 9. If a function declared as abstract in base class doesn’t have to be defined in derived class then ______ a) Derived class must define the function anyhow b) Derived class should be made abstract class c) Derived class should not derive from that base class d) Derived class should not use that function Answer: b Explanation: If the function that is not to be defined in derived class but is declared as abstract in base class then the derived class must be made an abstract class. This will make the concept mandatory that the derived class must have one subclass to define that method. 10. Static methods can’t be made abstract in java. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The abstract functions can’t be made static in a program. If those are made static then the function will be a property of class rather than each object. In turn ever object or derived class must use the common definition given in the base class. But abstract functions can’t be defined in the base class. Hence not possible. 11. Which among the following is true? a) Abstract methods can be static b) Abstract methods can be defined in derived class c) Abstract methods must not be static d) Abstract methods can be made static in derived class Answer: c Explanation: The abstract methods can never be made static. Even if it is in derived class, it can’t be made static. If this happens, then all the subsequent sub classes will have a common definition of abstract function which is not desirable. 12. Which among the following is correct for abstract methods? a) It must have different prototype in the derived class b) It must have same prototype in both base and derived class c) It must have different signature in derived class d) It must have same return type only Answer: b Explanation: The prototype must be the same. This is to override the function declared as abstract in base class. Or else it will not be possible to override the abstract function of base class and hence we get a compile time error. 13. If a class have all the abstract methods the class will be known as ___________ a) Abstract class b) Anonymous class c) Base class d) Derived class Answer: a Explanation: The classes containing all the abstract methods are known as abstract classes. And the abstract classes can never have any normal function with definition. Hence known as abstract class. 14. The abstract methods can never be ___________ in a base class. a) Private b) Protected c) Public d) Default Answer: a 

Explanation: The base class must not contain the abstract methods. The methods have to be derived and defined in derived class. But if it is made private it can’t be inherited. Hence we can’t declare it as a private member. 15. The abstract method definition can be made ___________ in derived class. a) Private b) Protected c) Public d) Private, public, or protected Answer: d Explanation: The derived class implements the definition of the abstract methods of base class. Those can be made private in derived class if security is needed. There won’t be any problem in declaring it as private.

This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Abstraction”. 1. Which among the following best defines abstraction? a) Hiding the implementation b) Showing the important data c) Hiding the important data d) Hiding the implementation and showing only the features Answer: d Explanation: It includes hiding the implementation part and showing only the required data and features to the user. It is done to hide the implementation complexity and details from the user. And to provide a good interface in programming. 2. Hiding the implementation complexity can ____________ a) Make the programming easy b) Make the programming complex c) Provide more number of features d) Provide better features Answer: a Explanation: It can make programming easy. The programming need not know how the inbuilt functions are working but can use those complex functions directly in the program. It doesn’t provide more number of features or better features. 3. Class is _________ abstraction. a) Object b) Logical c) Real d) Hypothetical Answer: b Explanation: Class is logical abstraction because it provides a logical structure for all of its objects. It gives an overview of the features of an object. 4. Object is ________ abstraction. a) Object b) Logical c) Real d) Hypothetical Answer: c Explanation: Object is real abstraction because it actually contains those features of class. It is the implementation of overview given by class. Hence the class is logical abstraction and its object is real. 5. Abstraction gives higher degree of ________ a) Class usage b) Program complexity c) Idealized interface d) Unstable interface Answer: c Explanation: It is to idealize the interface. In this way the programmer can use the programming features more efficiently and can code better. It can’t increase the program complexity, as the feature itself is made to hide it. 6. Abstraction can apply to ____________ a) Control and data b) Only data c) Only control d) Classes Answer: a Explanation: Abstraction applies to both. Control abstraction involves use of subroutines and control flow abstraction. Data abstraction involves handling pieces of data in meaningful ways. 7. Which among the following can be viewed as combination of abstraction of data and code. a) Class b) Object c) Inheritance d) Interfaces Answer: b Explanation: Object can be viewed as abstraction of data and code. It uses data members and their functioning as data

1. Which of the following is not an example of Social Media?

  1. Twitter
  2. Google
  3. Instagram
  4. YouTube

 Answer

Google

2. By 2025, the volume of digital data will increase to

  1. TB
  2. YB
  3. ZB
  4. EB

 Answer

ZB

3. Data Analysis is a process of

  1. inspecting data
  2. cleaning data
  3. transforming data
  4. All of Above

 Answer

All of above

4. Does Facebook uses “Big Data ” to perform the concept of Flashback?

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

5. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches?

  1. Data Mining
  2. Predictive Intelligence
  3. Business Intelligence
  4. Text Analytics

 Answer

Predictive Intelligence

6. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as

  1. Analytics
  2. Data mining
  3. Big data
  4. Data warehouse

 Answer

Big data

7.  How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

 Answer

2

8. In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with ?

  1. Integer descriptor
  2. floating descriptor
  3. numerical descriptor
  4. decimal descriptor

 Answer

numerical descriptor

9. ____ have a structure but cannot be stored in a database.

  1. Structured
  2. Semi Structured
  3. Unstructured
  4. None of these

 Answer

None of these

10. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

TRUE

11. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

False

12. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

False

13. Hortonworks was introduced by Cloudera and owned by Yahoo

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

False

14. ____ refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business

  1. Velocity
  2. variety
  3. Value
  4. Volume

 Answer

Value

15. GFS consists of ____ Master and _____ Chunk Servers

  1. Single, Single
  2. Multiple, Single
  3. Single, Multiple
  4. Multiple, Multiple

 Answer

Single, Multiple

16. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician?

  1. William S.
  2. Hans Peter Luhn
  3.  Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro
  4.  John Tukey

 Answer

John Tukey

17. Files are divided into ____ sized Chunks.

  1. Static
  2. Dynamic
  3. Fixed
  4. Variable

 Answer

Fixed

18. _____ is an open source framework for storing data and running application on clusters of commodity hardware.

  1. HDFS
  2. Hadoop
  3. MapReduce
  4. Cloud

 Answer

Hadoop

19. HDFS Stores how much data in each clusters that can be scaled at any time?

  1. 32
  2. 64
  3. 128
  4. 256

 Answer

128

20. Hadoop Map Reduce allows you to perform distributed parallel processing on large volumes of data quickly and efficiently… is this Map Reduce or Hadoop

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

21. Google Introduced Map Reduce Programming model in 2004

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

22. Hadoop YARN is used for Cluster Resource Management in Hadoop Ecosystem

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

23. _____ phase sorts the data & _____ creates logical clusters.

  1. Reduce, YARN
  2. MAP, YARN
  3. REDUCE, MAP
  4. MAP, REDUCE

 Answer

MAP, REDUCE

24. There is only one operation between Mapping and Reducing

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

25. Which of the following is true about hypothesis testing?

  1. answering yes/no questions about the data
  2. estimating numerical characteristics of the data
  3. describing associations within the data
  4. modeling relationships within the data

 Answer

answering yes/no questions about the data

26. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

27. ____ is factors considered before Adopting Big Data Technology

  1. Validation
  2. Verification
  3. Data
  4. Design

 Answer

Validation

28. for improving supply chain management to optimize stock management, replenishment, and forecasting

  1. Descriptive
  2. Diagnostic
  3. Predictive
  4. Prescriptive

 Answer

Predictive

29. which among the following is not a Data mining and analytical applications?

  1. profile matching
  2. social network analysis
  3. facial recognition
  4. Filtering

 Answer

Filtering

30. _____ as a result of data accessibility, data latency, data availability, or limits on bandwidth in relation to the size of inputs

  1. Computation-restricted throttling
  2. Large data volumes
  3. Data throttling
  4. Data Parallelization

 Answer

Data throttling

31. As an example, an expectation of using a recommendation engine would be to increase same-customer sales by adding more items into the market basket

  1. Lowering costs
  2. Increasing revenues
  3. Increasing productivity
  4.  Reducing risk

 Answer

Increasing revenues

32. Which storage subsystem can support massive data volumes of increasing size.

  1. Extensibility
  2. Fault tolerance
  3. Scalability
  4. High-speed I/O capacity

 Answer

Scalability

33. _____ provides performance through distribution of data and fault tolerance through replication

  1. HDFS
  2. PIG
  3. HIVE
  4. HADOOP

 Answer

HDFS

34. ______ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes.

  1. HDFS
  2. MAP REDUCE
  3. HADOOP
  4. HIVE

 Answer

MAP REDUCE

35.  ____ takes the grouped key-value paired data as input and runs a Reducer function on each one of them.

  1. MAPPER
  2. REDUCER
  3. COMBINER
  4. PARTITIONER

 Answer

REDUCER

36. ____ is a type of local Reducer that groups similar data from the map phase into identifiable sets.

  1. MAPPER
  2. REDUCER
  3. COMBINER
  4. PARTITIONER

 Answer

COMBINER

37. While Installing Hadoop how many xml files are edited and list them ?

  1. core-site.xml
  2. hdfs-site.xml
  3. mapred.xml
  4. yarn.xml

 Answer

core-site.xml

38. Movie Recommendation systems are an example of

  1. Classification
  2. Clustering
  3. Reinforcement Learning
  4. Regression
  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 2 and 3

 Answer

1 and 3

39. Sentiment Analysis is an example of

  1. Regression
  2. Classification
  3. clustering
  4. Reinforcement Learning
  1. 1, 2 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1 and 2

 Answer

1, 2 and 4

 1. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as

  1. industry statistics
  2. economic statistics
  3. applied statistics
  4. applied statistics

Show Answer

applied statistics

2. Which of the following is true about regression analysis?

  1. answering yes/no questions about the data
  2. estimating numerical characteristics of the data
  3. modeling relationships within the data
  4. describing associations within the data

Show Answer

modeling relationships within the data

3. Text Analytics, also referred to as Text Mining?

  1. True
  2. False
  3. Can be true or False
  4. Can not say

Show Answer

TRUE

4. What is a hypothesis?

  1. A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study.
  2. A research question the results will answer.
  3. A theory that underpins the study.
  4. A statistical method for calculating the extent to which the results could have happened by chance.

Show Answer

A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study.

5. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a single research study called?

  1. Interim Analysis
  2. Inter analysis
  3. inter item analysis
  4. constant analysis

Show Answer

Interim Analysis

6. The process of quantifying data is referred to as ____

  1. Topology
  2. Digramming
  3. Enumeration
  4. coding

Show Answer

Enumeration

7.  An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they _

  1. Can reduce time required to analyse data (i.e., after the data are transcribed)
  2. Help in storing and organising data
  3. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time constraints
  4. All of the above

Show Answer

All of the Above

8. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations.

  1. True
  2. False

Show Answer

True

9. ______ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data.

  1. Categories
  2. Units
  3. Individuals
  4. None of the above

Show Answer

Categories

10. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written interviews or field notes into typed text.

  1. Segmenting
  2. Coding
  3. Transcription
  4. Mnemoning

Show Answer

Transcription

11. A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that are unwieldy and complex; it is a major challenge to make sense of the large pool of data.

  1. True
  2. False

Show Answer

True

12. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics.

  1. True
  2. False

Show Answer

False

13. A set of data organised in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns) format is known as a “data set.”

  1. True
  2. False

Show Answer

True

14. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ___

  1. Line graph
  2. Bar graph
  3. Scatterplot
  4. Vertical graph

Show Answer

Bar graph

15. ____ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two quantitative variables.

  1. Bar graph
  2. pie graph
  3. line graph
  4. Scatterplot

Show Answer

Scatterplot

16. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is

  1. The standard deviation
  2. The difference between a score and the mean
  3. The range
  4. The mean

Show Answer

The standard deviation

17. Which of these distributions is used for a testing hypothesis?

  1. Normal Distribution
  2. Chi-Squared Distribution
  3. Gamma Distribution
  4. Poisson Distribution

Show Answer

Chi-Squared Distribution

18. A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called?

  1. Statistic
  2. Hypothesis
  3. Level of Significance
  4. Test-Statistic

Show Answer

Hypothesis

19. If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is called?

  1. Null Hypothesis
  2. Statistical Hypothesis
  3. Simple Hypothesis
  4. Composite Hypothesis

Show Answer

Null Hypothesis

20. If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted?

  1. Null Hypothesis
  2. Positive Hypothesis
  3. Negative Hypothesis
  4. Alternative Hypothesis.

Show Answer

Alternative Hypothesis.

21. Alternative Hypothesis is also called as?

  1. Composite hypothesis
  2. Research Hypothesis
  3. Simple Hypothesis
  4. Null Hypothesis

Show Answer

Research Hypothesis

 1. What is the minimum no. of variables/ features required to perform clustering?

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

 Answer

1

2. For two runs of K-Mean clustering is it expected to get same clustering results?

  1. Yes
  2. No

 Answer

No

3. Which of the following algorithm is most sensitive to outliers?

  1. K-means clustering algorithm
  2. K-medians clustering algorithm
  3. K-modes clustering algorithm
  4. K-medoids clustering algorithm

 Answer

K-means clustering algorithm

4. The discrete variables and continuous variables are two types of

  1. Open end classification
  2. Time series classification
  3. Qualitative classification
  4. Quantitative classification

 Answer

Quantitative classification

5. Bayesian classifiers is

  1. A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory.
  2. Any mechanism employed by a learning system to constrain the search space of a hypothesis
  3. An approach to the design of learning algorithms that is inspired by the fact that when people encounter new situations, they often explain them by reference to familiar experiences, adapting the explanations to fit the new situation.
  4. None of these

 Answer

A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory.

6. Classification accuracy is

  1. A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes
  2. Measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory
  3. The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples
  4. None of these

 Answer

Measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory

7. Euclidean distance measure is

  1. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection.
  2. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some pre-defined order and then testing them
  3. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem
  4. none of above

 Answer

The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem

8. Hybrid is

  1. Combining different types of method or information
  2. Approach to the design of learning algorithms that is structured along the lines of the theory of evolution.
  3. Decision support systems that contain an information base filled with the knowledge of an expert formulated in terms of if-then rules.
  4. none of above

 Answer

Combining different types of method or information

9. Decision trees use ______ , in that they always choose the option that seems the best available at that moment.

  1. Greedy Algorithms
  2. divide and conquer
  3. Backtracking
  4. Shortest path algorithm

 Answer

Greedy Algorithms

10. Discovery is

  1. It is hidden within a database and can only be recovered if one is given certain clues (an example IS encrypted information).
  2. The process of executing implicit previously unknown and potentially useful information from data
  3. An extremely complex molecule that occurs in human chromosomes and that carries genetic information in the form of genes.
  4. None of these

 Answer

The process of executing implicit previously unknown and potentially useful information from data

Data Analytics sppu mcq

11. Hidden knowledge referred to

  1. A set of databases from different vendors, possibly using different database paradigms
  2. An approach to a problem that is not guaranteed to work but performs well in most cases
  3. Information that is hidden in a database and that cannot be recovered by a simple SQL query.
  4. None of these

 Answer

Information that is hidden in a database and that cannot be recovered by a simple SQL query.

12. Decision trees cannot handle categorical attributes with many distinct values, such as country codes for telephone numbers.

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

False

13. Enrichment is

  1. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection
  2. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some pre-defined order and then testing them
  3. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem.
  4. None of these

 Answer

A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection

14. _____ are easy to implement and can execute efficiently even without prior knowledge of the data, they are among the most popular algorithms for classifying text documents.

  1. ID3
  2. Naïve Bayes classifiers
  3. CART
  4. None of above

 Answer

Naïve Bayes classifiers

15. High entropy means that the partitions in classification are

  1. Pure
  2. Not Pure
  3. Usefull
  4. useless

 Answer

Uses a single processor or computer

16. Which of the following statements about Naive Bayes is incorrect?

  1. Attributes are equally important.
  2. Attributes are statistically dependent of one another given the class value.
  3. Attributes are statistically independent of one another given the class value.
  4. Attributes can be nominal or numeric

 Answer

Attributes are statistically dependent of one another given the class value.

17. The maximum value for entropy depends on the number of classes so if we have 8 Classes what will be the max entropy.

  1. Max Entropy is 1
  2. Max Entropy is 2
  3. Max Entropy is 3
  4. Max Entropy is 4

 Answer

Max Entropy is 3

18. Point out the wrong statement.

  1. k-nearest neighbor is same as k-means
  2. k-means clustering is a method of vector quantization
  3. k-means clustering aims to partition n observations into k clusters
  4. none of the mentioned

 Answer

k-nearest neighbor is same as k-means

19. Consider the following example “How we can divide set of articles such that those articles have the same theme (we do not know the theme of the articles ahead of time) ” is this:

  1. Clustering
  2. Classification
  3. Regression
  4. None of these

 Answer

Clustering

data analytics mcqs with answers

20. Can we use K Mean Clustering to identify the objects in video?

  1. Yes
  2. No

 Answer

Yes

21. Clustering techniques are ______ in the sense that the data scientist does not determine, in advance, the labels to apply to the clusters.

  1. Unsupervised
  2. supervised
  3. Reinforcement
  4. Neural network

 Answer

Unsupervised

22. _____ metric is examined to determine a reasonably optimal value of k.

  1. Mean Square Error
  2. Within Sum of Squares (WSS)
  3. Speed
  4. None of these

 Answer

Within Sum of Squares (WSS)

23. If an itemset is considered frequent, then any subset of the frequent itemset must also be frequent.

  1. Apriori Property
  2. Downward Closure Property
  3. Either 1 or 2
  4. Both 1 and 2

 Answer

Both 1 and 2

24. if {bread,eggs,milk} has a support of 0.15 and {bread,eggs} also has a support of 0.15, the confidence of rule {bread,eggs}→{milk} is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

 Answer

1

25. Confidence is a measure of how X and Y are really related rather than coincidentally happening together.

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

False

26. ______ recommend items based on similarity measures between users and/or items.

  1. Content Based Systems
  2. Hybrid System
  3. Collaborative Filtering Systems
  4. None of these

 Answer

Collaborative Filtering Systems

27. There are ______ major Classification of Collaborative Filtering Mechanisms

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. none of above

 Answer

2

28. Movie Recommendation to people is an example of

  1. User Based Recommendation
  2. Item Based Recommendation
  3. Knowledge Based Recommendation
  4. content based recommendation

 Answer

Item Based Recommendation

29. _____ recommenders rely on an explicitely defined set of recommendation rules

  1. Constraint Based
  2. Case Based
  3. Content Based
  4. User Based

 Answer

Case Based

30. Parallelized hybrid recommender systems operate dependently of one another and produce separate recommendation lists.

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

False

 1. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as

  1. industry statistics
  2. economic statistics
  3. applied statistics
  4. applied statistics

 Answer

applied statistics

2. Which of the following is true about regression analysis?

  1. answering yes/no questions about the data
  2. estimating numerical characteristics of the data
  3. modeling relationships within the data
  4. describing associations within the data

 Answer

modeling relationships within the data

3. Text Analytics, also referred to as Text Mining?

  1. True
  2. False
  3. Can be true or False
  4. Can not say

 Answer

TRUE

4. What is a hypothesis?

  1. A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study.
  2. A research question the results will answer.
  3. A theory that underpins the study.
  4. A statistical method for calculating the extent to which the results could have happened by chance.

 Answer

A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study.

5. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analysing data during a single research study called?

  1. Interim Analysis
  2. Inter analysis
  3. inter item analysis
  4. constant analysis

 Answer

Interim Analysis

6. The process of quantifying data is referred to as ____

  1. Topology
  2. Digramming
  3. Enumeration
  4. coding

 Answer

Enumeration

7.  An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they _

  1. Can reduce time required to analyse data (i.e., after the data are transcribed)
  2. Help in storing and organising data
  3. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time constraints
  4. All of the above

 Answer

All of the Above

8. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations.

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

9. ______ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data.

  1. Categories
  2. Units
  3. Individuals
  4. None of the above

 Answer

Categories

10. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written interviews or field notes into typed text.

  1. Segmenting
  2. Coding
  3. Transcription
  4. Mnemoning

 Answer

Transcription

11. A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that are unwieldy and complex; it is a major challenge to make sense of the large pool of data.

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

12. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics.

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

False

13. A set of data organised in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns) format is known as a “data set.”

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

14. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ___

  1. Line graph
  2. Bar graph
  3. Scatterplot
  4. Vertical graph

 Answer

Bar graph

15. ____ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two quantitative variables.

  1. Bar graph
  2. pie graph
  3. line graph
  4. Scatterplot

 Answer

Scatterplot

16. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is

  1. The standard deviation
  2. The difference between a score and the mean
  3. The range
  4. The mean

 Answer

The standard deviation

17. Which of these distributions is used for a testing hypothesis?

  1. Normal Distribution
  2. Chi-Squared Distribution
  3. Gamma Distribution
  4. Poisson Distribution

 Answer

Chi-Squared Distribution

18. A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called?

  1. Statistic
  2. Hypothesis
  3. Level of Significance
  4. Test-Statistic

 Answer

Hypothesis

19. If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is called?

  1. Null Hypothesis
  2. Statistical Hypothesis
  3. Simple Hypothesis
  4. Composite Hypothesis

 Answer

Null Hypothesis

20. If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted?

  1. Null Hypothesis
  2. Positive Hypothesis
  3. Negative Hypothesis
  4. Alternative Hypothesis.

 Answer

Alternative Hypothesis.

21. Alternative Hypothesis is also called as?

  1. Composite hypothesis
  2. Research Hypothesis
  3. Simple Hypothesis
  4. Null Hypothesis

 Answer

Research Hypothesis

 1. Which is the type of Microcomputer Memory

  1. Address
  2. Contents
  3. Both a and b
  4. none

Show Answer

Both a and b

2. A collection of lines that connects several devices is called

  1. Bus
  2. Peripheral connection wires
  3. Both a and b
  4. internal wires

Show Answer

Bus

3. Conventional architectures coarsely comprise of a

  1. Processor
  2. Memory System
  3. Data path
  4. All of the above

Show Answer

All of the above

4. VLIW processors rely on

  1. Compile time analysis
  2. Initial time analysis
  3. Final time analysis
  4. id time analysis

Show Answer

Compile time analysis

5. HPC is not used in high span bridges

  1. True
  2. False

Show Answer

False

6. The access time of memory is …………… the time required for performing any single CPU operation.

  1. longer than
  2. shorter than
  3. negligible than
  4. same as

Show Answer

longer than

7. Data intensive applications utilize_

  1. High aggregate throughput
  2. High aggregate network bandwidth
  3. high processing and memory system performance
  4. none of above

Show Answer

High aggregate throughput

8. Memory system performance is largely captured by_

  1. Latency
  2. bandwidth
  3. both a and b
  4. none of above

Show Answer

both a and b

9. A processor performing fetch or decoding of different instruction during the execution of another instruction is called __ .

  1. Super-scaling
  2. Pipe-lining
  3. Parallel Computation
  4. none of above

Show Answer

Pipe-lining

10. For a given FINITE number of instructions to be executed, which architecture of the processor provides for a faster execution ?

  1. ISA
  2. ANSA
  3. Super-scalar
  4. All of the above

Show Answer

Super-scalar

11. HPC works out to be economical.

  1. True
  2. false

Show Answer

True

12. High Performance Computing of the Computer System tasks are done by

  1. Node Cluster
  2. Network Cluster
  3. Beowulf Cluster
  4. Stratified Cluster

Show Answer

Beowulf Cluster

13. Octa Core Processors are the processors of the computer system that contains

  1. 2 Processors
  2. 4 Processors
  3. 6 Processors
  4. 8 Processors

Show Answer

8 Processors

14. Parallel computing uses _ execution

  1. sequential
  2. unique
  3. simultaneous
  4. None of above

Show Answer

simultaneous

15. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of parallel computing?

  1. Breaks a task into pieces
  2. Uses a single processor or computer
  3. Simultaneous execution
  4. May use networking

Show Answer

Uses a single processor or computer

16. Which of the following is true about parallel computing performance?

  1. Computations use multiple processors
  2. There is an increase in speed
  3. The increase in speed is loosely tied to the number of processor or computers used
  4. All of the answers are correct.

Show Answer

All of the answers are correct.

17. __ leads to concurrency.

  1. Serialization
  2. Parallelism
  3. Serial processing
  4. Distribution

Show Answer

Parallelism

18. MIPS stands for?

  1. Mandatory Instructions/sec
  2. Millions of Instructions/sec
  3. Most of Instructions/sec
  4. Many Instructions / sec

Show Answer

Millions of Instructions/sec

19. Which MIMD systems are best scalable with respect to the number of processors

  1. Distributed memory computers
  2. consume systems
  3. Symmetric multiprocessors
  4. None of above

Show Answer

Distributed memory computers

20. To which class of systems does the von Neumann computer belong?

  1. SIMD (Single Instruction Multiple Data)
  2. MIMD (Multiple Instruction Multiple Data)
  3. MISD (Multiple Instruction Single Data)
  4. SISD (Single Instruction Single Data)

Show Answer

SISD (Single Instruction Single Data)

21. Which of the architecture is power efficient?

  1. CISC
  2. RISC
  3. ISA
  4. IANA

Show Answer

RISC

22. Pipe-lining is a unique feature of _.

  1. RISC
  2. CISC
  3. ISA
  4. IANA

Show Answer

RISC

23. The computer architecture aimed at reducing the time of execution of instructions is __.

  1. RISC
  2. CISC
  3. ISA
  4. IANA

Show Answer

RISC

24. Type of microcomputer memory is

  1. processor memory
  2. primary memory
  3. secondary memory
  4. All of above

Show Answer

All of above

25. A pipeline is like_

  1. Overlaps various stages of instruction execution to achieve performance.
  2. House pipeline
  3. Both a and b
  4. A gas line

Show Answer

Overlaps various stages of instruction execution to achieve performance.

26. Scheduling of instructions is determined_

  1. True Data Dependency
  2. Resource Dependency
  3. Branch Dependency
  4. All of above

Show Answer

All of above

27. The fraction of data references satisfied by the cache is called_

  1. Cache hit ratio
  2. Cache fit ratio
  3. Cache best ratio
  4. none of above

Show Answer

Cache hit ratio

28. A single control unit that dispatches the same Instruction to various processors is__

  1. SIMD
  2. SPMD
  3. MIMD
  4. none of above

Show Answer

SIMD

29. The primary forms of data exchange between parallel tasks are_

  1. Accessing a shared data space
  2. Exchanging messages.
  3. Both A and B
  4. none of above

Show Answer

Both A and B

30. Switches map a fixed number of inputs to outputs.

  1. True
  2. False

Show Answer

True

 The First step in developing a parallel algorithm is_

  1. To Decompose the problem into tasks that can be executed concurrently
  2. Execute directly
  3. Execute indirectly
  4. None of Above

 Answer

To Decompose the problem into tasks that can be executed concurrently

2. The number of tasks into which a problem is decomposed determines its_

  1. Granularity
  2. Priority
  3. Modernity
  4. None of Above

 Answer

Granularity

3. The length of the longest path in a task dependency graph is called_

  1. the critical path length
  2. the critical data length
  3. the critical bit length
  4. None of Above

 Answer

he critical path length

4. The graph of tasks (nodes) and their interactions/data exchange (edges)_

  1. Is referred to as a task interaction graph
  2. Is referred to as a task Communication graph
  3. Is referred to as a task interface graph
  4. None of Above

 Answer

Is referred to as a task interaction graph

5. Mappings are determined by_

  1. task dependency
  2. task interaction graphs
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of Above

 Answer

Both A and B

6. Decomposition Techniques are_

  1. recursive decomposition
  2. data decomposition
  3. exploratory decomposition
  4. speculative decomposition
  5. All of above

 Answer

All of above

7. The Owner Computes rule generally states that the process assigned a particular data item is responsible for _

  1. All computation associated with it
  2. Only one computation
  3. Only two computation
  4. Only occasionally computation

 Answer

All computation associated with it

8. A simple application of exploratory decomposition is_

  1. The solution to a 15 puzzle
  2. The solution to 20 puzzle
  3. The solution to any puzzle
  4. None of Above

 Answer

The solution to a 15 puzzle

9. Speculative Decomposition consist of _

  1. conservative approaches
  2. optimistic approaches
  3. Both A and B
  4. only B

 Answer

Both A and B

hpc mcq questions

10. task characteristics include:

  1. Task generation.
  2. Task sizes.
  3. Size of data associated with tasks.
  4. All of above

 Answer

All of above

11. What is a high performance multi-core processor that can be used to accelerate a wide variety of applications using parallel computing.

  1. CLU
  2. GPU
  3. CPU
  4. DSP

 Answer

GPU

12. What is GPU?

  1. Grouped Processing Unit
  2. Graphics Processing Unit
  3. Graphical Performance Utility
  4. Graphical Portable Unit

 Answer

Graphics Processing Unit

13. A code, known as GRID, which runs on GPU consisting of a set of

  1. 32 Thread
  2. 32 Block
  3. Unit Block
  4. Thread Block

 Answer

Thread Block

14. Interprocessor communication that takes place

  1. Centralized memory
  2. Shared memory
  3. Message passing
  4. Both A and B

 Answer

Both A and B

15. Decomposition into a large number of tasks results in coarse-grained decomposition

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

False

16. Relevant task characteristics include

  1. Task generation.
  2. Task sizes
  3. Size of data associated with tasks
  4. Overhead
  5. both A and B

 Answer

both A and B

17. The fetch and execution cycles are interleaved with the help of __

  1. Modification in processor architecture
  2. Clock
  3. Special unit
  4. Control unit

 Answer

Clock

18. The processor of system which can read /write GPU memory is known as

  1. kernal
  2. device
  3. Server
  4. Host

 Answer

Host

19. Increasing the granularity of decomposition and utilizing the resulting concurrency to perform more tasks in parallel decreses performance.

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

FALSE

Parallel computing mcq with answers

20. If there is dependency between tasks it implies their is no need of interaction between them.

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

FALSE

21. Parallel quick sort is example of task parallel model

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

TRUE

22. True Data Dependency is

  1. The result of one operation is an input to the next.
  2. Two operations require the same resource.

 Answer

The result of one operation is an input to the next.

23. What is Granularity ?

  1. The size of database
  2. The size of data item
  3. The size of record
  4. The size of file

 Answer

The size of data item

24. In coarse-grained parallelism, a program is split into …………………… task and ……………………… Size

  1. Large tasks , Smaller Size
  2. Small Tasks , Larger Size
  3. Small Tasks , Smaller Size
  4. Equal task, Equal Size

 Answer

Large tasks , Smaller Size

 1. The primary and essential mechanism to support the sparse matrices is

  1. Gather-scatter operations
  2. Gather operations
  3. Scatter operations
  4. Gather-scatter technique

 Answer

Gather-scatter operations

2. In the gather operation, a single node collects a ———

  1. Unique message from each node
  2. Unique message from only one node
  3. Different message from each node
  4. None of Above

 Answer

Unique message from each node

3. In the scatter operation, a single node sends a ————

  1. Unique message of size m to every other node
  2. Different message of size m to every other node
  3. Different message of different size m to every other node
  4. All of Above

 Answer

Unique message of size m to every other node

4. Is All to all Bradcasting is same as All to all personalized communication?

  1. Yes
  2. No

 Answer

No

5. Is scatter operation is same as Broadcast?

  1. Yes
  2. No

 Answer

No

6. All-to-all personalized communication is also known as

  1. Total Exchange
  2. Personal Message
  3. Scatter
  4. Gather

 Answer

Total Exchange

7. By which way, scatter operation is different than broadcast

  1. Message size
  2. Number of nodes
  3. Same
  4. None of above

 Answer

Message size

8. The gather operation is exactly the _ of the scatter operation

  1. Inverse
  2. Reverse
  3. Multiple
  4. Same

 Answer

Inverse

9. The gather operation is exactly the inverse of the_

  1. Scatter operation
  2. Broadcast operation
  3. Prefix Sum
  4. Reduction operation

 Answer

Scatter operation

hpc mcq questions

10. The dual of one-to-all broadcast is all-to-one reduction. True or False?

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

TRUE

11. A binary tree in which processors are (logically) at the leaves and internal nodes are routing nodes.

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

TRUE

12. Group communication operations are built using point-to-point messaging primitives

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

TRUE

13. Communicating a message of size m over an uncongested network takes time ts + tmw

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

14. Parallel programs: Which speedup could be achieved according to Amdahl´s law for infinite number of processors if 5% of a program is sequential and the remaining part is ideally parallel?

  1. Infinite speedup
  2. 5
  3. 20
  4. None of above

 Answer

20

15. Shift register that performs a circular shift is called

  1. Invalid Counter
  2. Valid Counter
  3. Ring
  4. Undefined

 Answer

Ring

16. 8 bit information can be stored in

  1. 2 Registers
  2. 4 Registers
  3. 6 Registers
  4. 8 Registers

 Answer

8 Registers

17. The result of prefix expression * / b + – d a c d, where a = 3, b = 6, c = 1, d = 5 is

  1. 0
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 8

 Answer

10

18. The height of a binary tree is the maximum number of edges in any root to leaf path. The maximum number of nodes in a binary tree of height h is?

  1. 2h – 1
  2. 2h – 1 – 1
  3. 2h + 1 – 1
  4. 2 * (h+1)

 Answer

2h + 1 – 1

19. A hypercube has_

  1. 2^d nodes
  2. 2d nodes
  3. 2n Nodes
  4. N Nodes

 Answer

2^d nodes

Parallel computing mcq with answers

20. The Prefix Sum Operation can be implemented using the_

  1. All-to-all broadcast kernel
  2. All-to-one broadcast kernel
  3. One-to-all broadcast Kernel
  4. Scatter Kernel

 Answer

All-to-all broadcast kernel

21.In the scatter operation_

  1. Single node send a unique message of size m to every other node
  2. Single node send a same message of size m to every other node
  3. Single node send a unique message of size m to next node
  4. None of Above

 Answer

Single node send a unique message of size m to every other node

22. In All-to-All Personalized Communication Each node has a distinct message of size m for every other node

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

23. A binary tree in which processors are (logically) at the leaves and internal nodes are
routing nodes.

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

24. In All-to-All Broadcast each processor is the source as well as destination.

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

  

1. The First step in developing a parallel algorithm is_

  1. To Decompose the problem into tasks that can be executed concurrently
  2. Execute directly
  3. Execute indirectly
  4. None of Above

 Answer

To Decompose the problem into tasks that can be executed concurrently

2. The number of tasks into which a problem is decomposed determines its_

  1. Granularity
  2. Priority
  3. Modernity
  4. None of Above

 Answer

Granularity

3. The length of the longest path in a task dependency graph is called_

  1. the critical path length
  2. the critical data length
  3. the critical bit length
  4. None of Above

 Answer

he critical path length

4. The graph of tasks (nodes) and their interactions/data exchange (edges)_

  1. Is referred to as a task interaction graph
  2. Is referred to as a task Communication graph
  3. Is referred to as a task interface graph
  4. None of Above

 Answer

Is referred to as a task interaction graph

5. Mappings are determined by_

  1. task dependency
  2. task interaction graphs
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of Above

 Answer

Both A and B

6. Decomposition Techniques are_

  1. recursive decomposition
  2. data decomposition
  3. exploratory decomposition
  4. speculative decomposition
  5. All of above

 Answer

All of above

7. The Owner Computes rule generally states that the process assigned a particular data item is responsible for _

  1. All computation associated with it
  2. Only one computation
  3. Only two computation
  4. Only occasionally computation

 Answer

All computation associated with it

8. A simple application of exploratory decomposition is_

  1. The solution to a 15 puzzle
  2. The solution to 20 puzzle
  3. The solution to any puzzle
  4. None of Above

 Answer

The solution to a 15 puzzle

9. Speculative Decomposition consist of _

  1. conservative approaches
  2. optimistic approaches
  3. Both A and B
  4. only B

 Answer

Both A and B

hpc mcq questions

10. task characteristics include:

  1. Task generation.
  2. Task sizes.
  3. Size of data associated with tasks.
  4. All of above

 Answer

All of above

11. What is a high performance multi-core processor that can be used to accelerate a wide variety of applications using parallel computing.

  1. CLU
  2. GPU
  3. CPU
  4. DSP

 Answer

GPU

12. What is GPU?

  1. Grouped Processing Unit
  2. Graphics Processing Unit
  3. Graphical Performance Utility
  4. Graphical Portable Unit

 Answer

13. A code, known as GRID, which runs on GPU consisting of a set of

  1. 32 Thread
  2. 32 Block
  3. Unit Block
  4. Thread Block

 Answer

Thread Block

14. Interprocessor communication that takes place

  1. Centralized memory
  2. Shared memory
  3. Message passing
  4. Both A and B

 Answer

Both A and B

15. Decomposition into a large number of tasks results in coarse-grained decomposition

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

False

16. Relevant task characteristics include

  1. Task generation.
  2. Task sizes
  3. Size of data associated with tasks
  4. Overhead
  5. both A and B

 Answer

both A and B

17. The fetch and execution cycles are interleaved with the help of __

  1. Modification in processor architecture
  2. Clock
  3. Special unit
  4. Control unit

 Answer

Clock

18. The processor of system which can read /write GPU memory is known as

  1. kernal
  2. device
  3. Server
  4. Host

 Answer

Host

19. Increasing the granularity of decomposition and utilizing the resulting concurrency to perform more tasks in parallel decreses performance.

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

FALSE

Parallel computing mcq with answers

20. If there is dependency between tasks it implies their is no need of interaction between them.

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

FALSE

21. Parallel quick sort is example of task parallel model

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

TRUE

22. True Data Dependency is

  1. The result of one operation is an input to the next.
  2. Two operations require the same resource.

 Answer

The result of one operation is an input to the next.

23. What is Granularity ?

  1. The size of database
  2. The size of data item
  3. The size of record
  4. The size of file

 Answer

The size of data item

24. In coarse-grained parallelism, a program is split into …………………… task and ……………………… Size

  1. Large tasks , Smaller Size
  2. Small Tasks , Larger Size
  3. Small Tasks , Smaller Size
  4. Equal task, Equal Size

 Answer

Large tasks , Smaller Size

  

1. The primary and essential mechanism to support the sparse matrices is

  1. Gather-scatter operations
  2. Gather operations
  3. Scatter operations
  4. Gather-scatter technique

 Answer

Gather-scatter operations

2. In the gather operation, a single node collects a ———

  1. Unique message from each node
  2. Unique message from only one node
  3. Different message from each node
  4. None of Above

 Answer

Unique message from each node

3. In the scatter operation, a single node sends a ————

  1. Unique message of size m to every other node
  2. Different message of size m to every other node
  3. Different message of different size m to every other node
  4. All of Above

 Answer

Unique message of size m to every other node

4. Is All to all Bradcasting is same as All to all personalized communication?

  1. Yes
  2. No

 Answer

No

5. Is scatter operation is same as Broadcast?

  1. Yes
  2. No

 Answer

No

6. All-to-all personalized communication is also known as

  1. Total Exchange
  2. Personal Message
  3. Scatter
  4. Gather

 Answer

Total Exchange

7. By which way, scatter operation is different than broadcast

  1. Message size
  2. Number of nodes
  3. Same
  4. None of above

 Answer

Message size

8. The gather operation is exactly the _ of the scatter operation

  1. Inverse
  2. Reverse
  3. Multiple
  4. Same

 Answer

Inverse

9. The gather operation is exactly the inverse of the_

  1. Scatter operation
  2. Broadcast operation
  3. Prefix Sum
  4. Reduction operation

 Answer

Scatter operation

hpc mcq questions

10. The dual of one-to-all broadcast is all-to-one reduction. True or False?

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

TRUE

11. A binary tree in which processors are (logically) at the leaves and internal nodes are routing nodes.

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

TRUE

12. Group communication operations are built using point-to-point messaging primitives

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE

 Answer

TRUE

13. Communicating a message of size m over an uncongested network takes time ts + tmw

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

14. Parallel programs: Which speedup could be achieved according to Amdahl´s law for infinite number of processors if 5% of a program is sequential and the remaining part is ideally parallel?

  1. Infinite speedup
  2. 5
  3. 20
  4. None of above

 Answer

20

15. Shift register that performs a circular shift is called

  1. Invalid Counter
  2. Valid Counter
  3. Ring
  4. Undefined

 Answer

Ring

16. 8 bit information can be stored in

  1. 2 Registers
  2. 4 Registers
  3. 6 Registers
  4. 8 Registers

 Answer

8 Registers

17. The result of prefix expression * / b + – d a c d, where a = 3, b = 6, c = 1, d = 5 is

  1. 0
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 8

 Answer

10

18. The height of a binary tree is the maximum number of edges in any root to leaf path. The maximum number of nodes in a binary tree of height h is?

  1. 2h – 1
  2. 2h – 1 – 1
  3. 2h + 1 – 1
  4. 2 * (h+1)

 Answer

2h + 1 – 1

19. A hypercube has_

  1. 2^d nodes
  2. 2d nodes
  3. 2n Nodes
  4. N Nodes

 Answer

2^d nodes

Parallel computing mcq with answers

20. The Prefix Sum Operation can be implemented using the_

  1. All-to-all broadcast kernel
  2. All-to-one broadcast kernel
  3. One-to-all broadcast Kernel
  4. Scatter Kernel

 Answer

All-to-all broadcast kernel

21.In the scatter operation_

  1. Single node send a unique message of size m to every other node
  2. Single node send a same message of size m to every other node
  3. Single node send a unique message of size m to next node
  4. None of Above

 Answer

Single node send a unique message of size m to every other node

22. In All-to-All Personalized Communication Each node has a distinct message of size m for every other node

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

23. A binary tree in which processors are (logically) at the leaves and internal nodes are
routing nodes.

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

24. In All-to-All Broadcast each processor is thesource as well as destination.

  1. True
  2. False

 Answer

True

 

 

  

Unit 1

1. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician?

a. William S. b. Hans Peter Luhn c. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro d. John Tukey

Ans D

2. What is classification?

a) deciding what features to use in a pattern recognition problem b) deciding what class an input pattern belongs to c) deciding what type of neural network to use d) none of the mentioned

Ans. B

3. Data in ___________ bytes size is called Big Data.

A. Tera B. Giga C. Peta D. Meta

Ans : C

Explanation: data in Peta bytes i.e. 10^15 byte size is called Big Data. 4. How many V's of Big Data

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Ans : D

Explanation: Big Data was defined by the “3Vs” but now there are “5Vs” of Big Data which are Volume, Velocity, Variety, Veracity, Value

5. Transaction data of the bank is?

A. structured data B. unstructured datat

C. Both A and B D. None of the above

Ans : A

Explanation: Data which can be saved in tables are structured data like the transaction data of the bank. 6. In how many forms BigData could be found?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Ans : B

Explanation: BigData could be found in three forms: Structured, Unstructured and Semi-structured. 7. Which of the following are Benefits of Big Data Processing?

A. Businesses can utilize outside intelligence while taking decisions B. Improved customer service C. Better operational efficiency D. All of the above

Ans : D

Explanation: All of the above are Benefits of Big Data Processing.

8. Which of the following are incorrect Big Data Technologies?

A. Apache Hadoop B. Apache Spark C. Apache Kafka D. Apache Pytarch

Ans : D

Explanation: Apache Pytarch is incorrect Big Data Technologies. 9. The overall percentage of the world’s total data has been created just within the past two years is ?

A. 80% B. 85%

C. 90% D. 95%

Ans : C

Explanation: The overall percentage of the world’s total data has been created just within the past two years is 90%. 10. Apache Kafka is an open-source platform that was created by?

A. LinkedIn B. Facebook C. Google D. IBM

Ans : A

Explanation: Apache Kafka is an open-source platform that was created by LinkedIn in the year 2011.

11. What was Hadoop named after?

A. Creator Doug Cutting’s favorite circus act B. Cuttings high school rock band C. The toy elephant of Cutting’s son D. A sound Cutting’s laptop made during Hadoop development

Ans : C

Explanation: Doug Cutting, Hadoop creator, named the framework after his child’s stuffed toy elephant. 12. What are the main components of Big Data?

A. MapReduce B. HDFS C. YARN D. All of the above

Ans : D

Explanation: All of the above are the main components of Big Data.

13. Point out the correct statement.

A. Hadoop do need specialized hardware to process the data B. Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data C. In Hadoop programming framework output files are divided into lines or records D. None of the above

Ans : B

Explanation: Hadoop batch processes data distributed over a number of computers ranging in 100s and 1000s. 14. Which of the following fields come under the umbrella of Big Data?

A. Black Box Data B. Power Grid Data C. Search Engine Data D. All of the above

Ans : D

Explanation: All options are the fields come under the umbrella of Big Data.

15. Which of the following is not an example of Social Media? 1. Twitter 2. Google 3. Instagram 4. Youtube

ANs: 2 (Google)

16. By 2025, the volume of digital data will increase to 1. TB 2. YB 3. ZB 4. EB Ans: 3 ZB

17. Data Analysis is a process of 1. inspecting data 2. cleaning data 3. transforming data 4. All of Above

Ans. 4 All of above

18. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 1. Data Mining 2. Predictive Intelligence 3. Business Intelligence

4. Text Analytics

Ans. 2 Predictive Intelligence

19. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 1. Analytics 2. Data mining 3. Big data 4. Data warehouse

Ans. 3 Big data

20. In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with ? 1. Integer descriptor 2. floating descriptor 3. numerical descriptor 4. decimal descriptor

Ans. 3 numerical descriptor

21. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data 1. TRUE 2. FALSE

TRUE

22. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 1. True 2. False

False

23. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy 1. TRUE 2. FALSE

False

24. Hortonworks was introduced by Cloudera and owned by Yahoo 1. True 2. False

False

25. ____ refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business 1. Velocity 2. variety 3. Value 4. Volume

Ans. 3 Value

26. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 1. William S. 2. Hans Peter Luhn 3. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro 4. John Tukey

Ans. 4 John Tukey

27. Files are divided into ____ sized Chunks. 1. Static 2. Dynamic 3. Fixed 4. Variable

Ans. 3 Fixed

28. _____ is an open source framework for storing data and running application on clusters of commodity hardware. 1. HDFS 2. Hadoop 3. MapReduce 4. Cloud

Ans. 2 Hadoop

29. ____ is factors considered before Adopting Big Data Technology 1. Validation 2. Verification 3. Data 4. Design

Ans. 1 Validation

30. Which among the following is not a Data mining and analytical applications? 1. profile matching

2. social network analysis 3. facial recognition 4. Filtering

Ans. 4 Filtering

31. Which storage subsystem can support massive data volumes of increasing size. 1. Extensibility 2. Fault tolerance 3. Scalability 4. High-speed I/O capacity

Ans. 3 Scalability

32. ______ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. 1. HDFS 2. MAP REDUCE 3. HADOOP 4. HIVE Ans. MAP REDUCE

33. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Ans : A

Explanation: In data analysis, two main statistical methodologies are used Descriptive statistics and Inferential statistics.

34. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities.

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say

Ans : A

Explanation: The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities.

35. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as 1. industry statistics 2. economic statistics 3. applied statistics 4. applied statistics

Ans. applied statistics

36. Point out the correct statement. a) Descriptive analysis is first kind of data analysis performed b) Descriptions can be generalized without statistical modelling c) Description and Interpretation are same in descriptive analysis d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b Explanation: Descriptive analysis describe a set of data.

37. What are the five V’s of Big Data?

A. Volume

B. Velocity

C. Variety

D. All the above

Answer: Option D

38. What are the main components of Big Data?

A. MapReduce

B. HDFS

C. YARN

D. All of these

Answer: Option D

39. What are the different features of Big Data Analytics?

A. Open-Source

B. Scalability

C. Data Recovery

D. All the above

Answer: Option D

40. Which of the following refers to the problem of finding abstracted patterns (or structures) in the unlabeled data?

A. Supervised learning

B. Unsupervised learning

C. Hybrid learning

D. Reinforcement learning

Answer: B

Explanation: Unsupervised learning is a type of machine learning algorithm that is generally used to find the hidden structured and patterns in the given unlabeled data.

41. Which one of the following refers to querying the unstructured textual data?

A. Information access

B. Information update

C. Information retrieval

D. Information manipulation

Answer: D

Explanation: Information retrieval refers to querying the unstructured textual data. We can also understand information retrieval as an activity (or process) in which the tasks of obtaining information from system recourses that are relevant to the information required from the huge source of information.

42. For what purpose, the analysis tools pre-compute the summaries of the huge amount of data?

A. In order to maintain consistency

B. For authentication

C. For data access

D. To obtain the queries response

Answer: d

Explanation: Whenever a query is fired, the response of the query would be put very earlier. So, for the query response, the analysis tools pre-compute the summaries of the huge amount of data. To understand it in more details, consider the following example:

43. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the data cleaning?

It refers to the process of data cleaning

It refers to the transformation of wrong data into correct data

It refers to correcting inconsistent data

All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation: Data cleaning is a kind of process that is applied to data set to remove the noise from the data (or noisy data), inconsistent data from the given data. It also involves the process of transformation where wrong data is transformed into the correct data as well. In other words, we can also say that data cleaning is a kind of pre-process in which the given set of data is prepared for the data warehouse.

44. Any data with unknown form or the structure is classified as _ data. a. Structured b. Unstructured c. Semi-structured d. None of above Ans. b

45.____ means relating to the issuing of reports. a. Analysis b. Reporting c. Reporting and Analysis d. None of the above

Ans. b

46.Veracity involves the reliability of the data this is ________due to the numerous data sources of big data a) Easy and difficulty b) Easiness c) Demanding d) none of these

Ans. c 47. ____is a process of defining the measurement of a phenomenon that is not directly measurable, though its existence is implied by other phenomena. a. Data preparation b. Model planning c. Communicating results d. Operationalization

Ans. d

48. _____data is data whose elements are addressable for effective analysis.

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above

Ans. a

49. ______data is information that does not reside in a relational database but that have some organizational properties that make it easier to analyze.

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above

Ans. b

50. ______data is a data which is not organized in a predefined manner or does not have a predefined data model, thus it is not a good fit for a mainstream relational database.

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above

Ans. c

51. There are ___ types of big data.

a. 2

b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

Ans. b

52. Google search is an example of _________ data.

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above

Ans. c

UNIT 2

1. Sentiment Analysis is an example of 1. Regression 2. Classification 3. clustering 4. Reinforcement Learning

1. 1, 2 and 4 2. 1, 2 and 3 3. 1 and 3 4. 1 and 2

Show Answer Ans. 1, 2 and 4

2. The self-organizing maps can also be considered as the instance of _________ type of learning.

A. Supervised learning B. Unsupervised learning C. Missing data imputation D. Both A & C

Answer: B Explanation: The Self Organizing Map (SOM), or the Self Organizing Feature Map is a kind of Artificial Neural Network which is trained through unsupervised learning.

3.  The following given statement can be considered as the examples of_________

Suppose one wants to predict the number of newborns according to the size of storks' population by performing supervised learning

A. Structural equation modeling B. Clustering C. Regression D. Classification

Answer: C

Explanation: The above-given statement can be considered as an example of regression. Therefore the correct answer is C.

4. In the example predicting the number of newborns, the final number of total newborns can be considered as the _________

A. Features B. Observation C. Attribute D. Outcome a. Answer: d

b. Explanation: In the example of predicting the total number of newborns, the result will be represented as the outcome. Therefore, the total number of newborns will be found in the outcome or addressed by the outcome.

5. Which of the following statement is true about the classification?

A. It is a measure of accuracy B. It is a subdivision of a set C. It is the task of assigning a classification D. None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation: The term "classification" refers to the classification of the given data into certain sub-classes or groups according to their similarities or on the basis of the specific given set of rules.

6. Which one of the following correctly refers to the task of the classification?

A. A measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory B. The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples C. A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes D. None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation: The task of classification refers to dividing the set into subsets or in the numbers of the classes. Therefore the correct answer is C.

7. _____is an observation which contains either very low value or very high value in comparison to other observed values. It may hamper the result, so it should be avoided. a. Dependent Variable b. Independent Variable c. Outlier Variable d. None of the above Ans. c

8. _______is a type of regression which models the non-linear dataset using a linear model.

a. Polynomial Regression b. Logistic Regression c. Linear Regression d. Decision Tree Regression

Ans. a

9. The prediction of the weight of a person when his height is known, is a simple example of regression. The function used in R language is_____.

a. Im() b. print() c. predict() d. summary( )

Ans. c

10. There is the following syntax of lm() function in multiple regression.

lm(y ~ x1+x2+x3...., data)  a. y is predictor and x1,x2,x3 are the dependent variables. b. y is dependent and x1,x2,x3 are the predictors. c. data is predictor variable. d. None of the above.

Ans. b

11. _______is a probabilistic graphical model which represents a set of variables and their conditional dependencies using a directed acyclic graph.

a. A Bayesian network b. Bayes Network c. Bayesian Model

d. All of the above

Ans. d

12. In support vector regression, _____is a function used to map lower dimensional data into higher dimensional data

A) Boundary line B) Kernel C) Hyper Plane D) Support Vector Ans. B

13. If the independent variables are highly correlated with each other than other variables then such condition is called___________ a) outlier b) Multicollinearity c) under fitting d) independent variable

Ans. b

14. The Bayesian network graph does not contain any cyclic graph. Hence, it is known as a ____ or_____.

a. Directed Acyclic Graph or DAG b. Directed Cyclic Graph or DCG. c. Both the above. d. None of the above.

Ans. a

15. The hyperplane with maximum margin is called the ______ hyperplane. a. Non-optimal b. Optimal c. None of the above d. Requires one more option

Ans. b

16. One more _____ is needed for non-linear SVM.

a. Dimension b. Attribute c. Both the above d. None of the above

Ans. a

17. A subset of dataset to train the machine learning model, and we already know the output.

a. Training set b. Test set c. Both the above d. None of the above

Ans. a

18. ______is the final step of data preprocessing in machine learning. It is a technique to standardize the independent variables of the dataset in a specific range. In_____, we put our variables in the same range and in the same scale so that no any variable dominate the other variable

a. Feature Sampling b. Feature Scaling c. None of the above d. Both the above

Ans. b

19. Principal components analysis (PCA) is a statistical technique that allows identifying underlying linear patterns in a data set so it can be expressed in terms of other data set of a significantly ____ dimension without much loss of information. a. Lower b. Higher c. Equal d. None of the above

Ans. a

20. _____ units which are internal to the network and do not directly interact with the environment. a. Input

b. Output c. Hidden d. None of the above

Ans. c

21. In a ____ network there is an ordering imposed on the nodes in a network: if there is a connection from unit a to unit b then there can-not be a connection from b to a. a. Feedback b. Feed-Forward c. None of the above

Ans. b

22. _____ contains the multiple logical values and these values are the truth values of a variable or problem between 0 and 1. This concept was introduced by Lofti Zadeh in 1965 a. Boolean Logic b. Fuzzy Logic c. None of the above

Ans. b

23. ______is a module or component, which takes the fuzzy set inputs generated by the Inference Engine, and then transforms them into a crisp value. a. Fuzzification b. Defuzzification c. Inference Engine d. None of the above

Ans. b

24. The most common application of time series analysis is forecasting future values of a numeric value using the ______ structure of the ____ a. Shares,data b. Temporal,data c. Permanent,data d. None of these

Ans. b

25. Identify the component of a time series

a. Temporal b. Shares c. Trend d. Policymakers

Ans. c

26. Predictable pattern that recurs or repeats over regular intervals. Seasonality is often observed within a year or less: This define the term__________ a. Trend b. Seasonality c. Cycles d. Recession

Ans. b

27. ________Learning uses a training set that consists of a set of pattern pairs: an input pattern and the corresponding desired (or target) output pattern. The desired output may be regarded as the ‘network’s ‘teacher” for that input a. Unsupervised b. Supervised c. Modular d. Object

Ans. b

28. The _______ perceptron consists of a set of input units connected by a single layer of weights to a set of output units a. Multi layer b. Single layer c. Hidden layer d. None of these

Ans. b

29. If we add another layer of weights to single layer perceptron , then we find that there is a new set of units that are neither input or output units; for simplicity we consider more than 2 layers has a. Single layer perceptron b. Multi layer perceptron c. Hidden  layer d. None of these

Ans. b

30. Patterns that repeat over a certain period of time a. Seasonal b. Trend c. None of the above d. Both of the above

Ans. a

31. Which of the following is characteristic of best machine learning method ?

a. Fast b. Accuracy c. Scalable d. All of the Mentioned

Ans. d

32. Supervised learning differs from unsupervised clustering in that supervised learning requires a. at least one input attribute. b. input attributes to be categorical. c. at least one output attribute. d. ouput attriubutes to be categorical. Ans. d

33. Supervised learning and unsupervised clustering both require at least one a. hidden attribute. b. output attribute. c. input attribute. d. categorical attribute. Ans. c

34. Which statement is true about prediction problems? a. The output attribute must be categorical. b. The output attribute must be numeric. c. The resultant model is designed to determine future outcomes. d. The resultant model is designed to classify current behavior. Ans. c

35. Which statement is true about neural network and linear regression models? a. Both models require input attributes to be numeric. b. Both models require numeric attributes to range between 0 and 1. c. The output of both models is a categorical attribute value. d. Both techniques build models whose output  is determined by a  linear sum of weighted input attribute values. Ans. a

36. A feed-forward neural network is said to be fully connected when a. all nodes are connected to each other. b. all nodes at the same layer are connected to each other. c. all nodes at one layer are connected to all nodes in the next higher layer. d. all hidden layer nodes are connected to all output layer nodes. Ans. c

37. Machine learning techniques differ from statistical techniques in that machine learning methods a. typically assume an underlying distribution for the data. b. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data. c. are not able to explain their behavior. d. have trouble with large-sized datasets. Ans. b

38. This supervised learning technique can process both numeric and categorical input attributes. a. linear regression b. Bayes classifier c. logistic regression d. backpropagation learning Ans. b

39. This technique associates a conditional probability value with each data instance. a. linear regression b. logistic regression c. simple regression

d. multiple linear regression Ans. b

40. Logistic regression is a ________ regression technique that is used to model data having a _____outcome. a. linear, numeric b. linear, binary c. nonlinear, numeric d. nonlinear, binary Ans. d

41. Which of the following problems is best solved using time-series analysis? a. Predict whether someone is a likely candidate for having a stroke. b. Determine if an individual should be given an unsecured loan. c. Develop a profile of a star athlete. d. Determine the likelihood that someone will terminate their cell phone contract.

Ans. d

42. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent c. Both A and B d. None of the above options Ans. c 43.Simple regression assumes a __________ relationshipbetween the input  attribute and output attribute. a. linear b. quadratic c. reciprocal d. inverse

44.With Bayes classifier, missing data items are a. treated as equal compares. b. treated as unequal compares.

c. replaced with a default value. d. ignored. 45. What is Machine learning? a. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs b. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs c. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs d. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs

Ans: a

46. Automated vehicle is an example of ______ a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Active learning d. Reinforcement learning

Ans: a

47. Multilayer perceptron network is a. Usually, the weights are initially set to small random values b. A hard-limiting activation function is often used c. The weights can only be updated after all the training vectors have been presented d. Multiple layers of neurons allow for less complex decision boundaries than a single layer

Ans: a

48. Neural networks a. optimize a convex cost function b. cannot be used for regression as well as classification c. always output values between 0 and 1 d. can be used in an ensemble

Ans: d

49. In neural networks, nonlinear activation functions such as sigmoid, tanh, and ReLU a. speed up the gradient calculation in backpropagation, as compared to linear units b. are applied only to the output units c. help to learn nonlinear decision boundaries d. always output values between 0 and 1

Ans: c

50. Which of the following is a disadvantage of decision trees?

a. Factor analysis b. Decision trees are robust to outliers c. Decision trees are prone to be overfit d. None of the above

Ans: c

51. Back propagation is a learning technique that adjusts weights in the neural network by propagating weight changes. a. Forward from source to sink b. Backward from sink to source c. Forward from source to hidden nodes d. Backward from sink to hidden nodes

Ans: b

52. Identify the following activation function :

φ(V) = Z + (1/ 1 + exp (– x * V + Y) ),Z, X, Y are parameters

a. Step function b. Ramp function c. Sigmoid function d. Gaussian function

Ans: c

53. An artificial neuron receives n inputs x1, x2, x3............xnwith weights w1, w2, ..........wn attached to the input links. The weighted sum_________________ is computed to be passed on to a non-linear filter  Φ called activation function to release the output. a. Σ wi b. Σ xi c. Σ wi + Σ xi d. Σ wi* xi

Ans: d

54. With Bayes classifier, missing data items are a. treated as equal compares. b. treated as unequal compares. c. replaced with a default value. d. ignored.

Ans:b

55. Machine learning techniques differ from statistical techniques in that machine learning methods a. typically assume an underlying distribution for the data. b. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data. c. are not able to explain their behavior. d. have trouble with large-sized datasets.

Ans: b

56. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes?

a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent c. Both a and b d. None of the above options

Ans: c

57. How many terms are required for building a Bayes model? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Ans: c

58. What does the Bayesian network provides? a. Complete description of the domain b. Partial description of the domain c. Complete description of the problem d. None of the mentioned

Ans: a

59. How the Bayesian network can be used to answer any query? a. Full distribution b. Joint distribution c. Partial distribution d. All of the mentioned

Ans: b

60. In which of the following learning the teacher returns reward and punishment to learner? a. Active learning b. Reinforcement learning c. Supervised learning d. Unsupervised learning

Ans: b

61. Which of the following is the model used for learning? a. Decision trees b. Neural networks c. Propositional and FOL rules d. All of the mentioned

Ans: d

UNIT - 3

1. Which of the following can be considered as the correct process of Data Mining? a. Infrastructure, Exploration, Analysis, Interpretation, Exploitation b. Exploration, Infrastructure, Analysis, Interpretation, Exploitation c. Exploration, Infrastructure, Interpretation, Analysis, Exploitation d. Exploration, Infrastructure, Analysis, Exploitation, Interpretation

Answer: a

Explanation: The process of data mining contains many sub-processes in a specific order. The correct order in which all sub-processes of data mining executes is Infrastructure, Exploration, Analysis, Interpretation, and Exploitation.

2. Which of the following is an essential process in which the intelligent methods are applied to extract data patterns? a. Warehousing b. Data Mining c. Text Mining d. Data Selection

Answer: b

Explanation: Data mining is a type of process in which several intelligent methods are used to extract meaningful data from the huge collection (or set) of data.

3. What are the functions of Data Mining? a. Association and correctional analysis classification b. Prediction and characterization c. Cluster analysis and Evolution analysis d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation: In data mining, there are several functionalities used for performing the different types of tasks. The common functionalities used in data mining are cluster analysis, prediction, characterization, and evolution. Still, the association and correctional analysis classification are also one of the important functionalities of data mining.

4. Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming?

a. Limited amount of memory b. Limited amount of processing time c. Limited amount of input data d. Limited amount of processing power

Ans. c

5. Which of the following statements about data streaming is true?

a. Stream data is always unstructured data. b. Stream data often has a high velocity. c. Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. d. Stream data is always structured data.

Ans. b

6. Which of the following statements about sampling are correct? a. Sampling reduces the amount of data fed to a subsequent data mining algorithm b. Sampling reduces the diversity of the data stream c. Sampling increases the amount of data fed to a data mining algorithm d. Sampling algorithms often need multiple passes over the data

Ans. a

7. Which of the following statements about sampling are correct? a. Sampling reduces the diversity of the data stream b. Sampling increases the amount of data fed to a data mining algorithm c. Sampling algorithms often need multiple passes over the data d. Sampling aims to keep statistical properties of the data intact

Ans. d

8. What is the main difference between standard reservoir sampling and min-wise sampling?

a. Reservoir sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas min-wise sampling does not. b. Min-wise sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas reservoir sampling does not. c. Reservoir sampling requires a stream to be processed sequentially, whereas min-wise does not. d. For larger streams, reservoir sampling creates more accurate samples than min-wise sampling.

Ans. c

9. A Bloom filter guarantees no

a. false positives b. false negatives

c. false positives and false negatives d. false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type

Ans. b

10. Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct?

a. It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. b. A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. c. It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more space. d. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element.

Ans. d

11. The FM-sketch algorithm uses the number of zeros the binary hash value ends in to make an estimation. Which of the following statements is true about the hash tail?

a. Any specific bit pattern is equally suitable to be used as hash tail. b. Only bit patterns with more 0's than 1's are equally suitable to be used as hash tails. c. Only the bit patterns 0000000..00 (list of 0s) or 111111..11 (list of 1s) are suitable hash tails. d. Only the bit pattern 0000000..00 (list of 0s) is a suitable hash tail.

Ans. a

12. The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to:

a. Estimate the number of distinct elements. b. Sample data with a time-sensitive window. c. Estimate the frequent elements. d. Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data.

Ans. a

13. The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last kk bits of a stream window NN. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM?

a. The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. b. The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. c. To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. d. None of above

Ans. b

14. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a. DGIM operates on a time-based window

b. DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts c. In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two d. The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand. Ans. d

15. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a. DGIM operates on a time-based window b. The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream c. DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts d. In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two Ans. b

16. What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries?

a. DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% b. DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% c. DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% d. DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25%

Ans. b

17. Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream?

a. Misra-Gries b. Alon-Matias-Szegedy c. DGIM d. None of the above

Ans. d

18. Which of the following statements about Bloom filters are correct?

a. A Bloom filter has the same properties as a standard Hashmap data structure in Java (java.util.HashMap). b. A Bloom filter is full if no more hash functions can be added to it. c. A Bloom filter always returns FALSE when testing for an element that was not previously added d. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element

Ans. d

19. Which of the following statements about Bloom filters are correct?

a. An empty Bloom filter (no elements added to it) will always return FALSE when testing for an element b. A Bloom filter has the same properties as a standard Hashmap data structure in Java (java.util.HashMap). c. A Bloom filter is full if no more hash functions can be added to it. d. A Bloom filter always returns FALSE when testing for an element that was not previously added Ans. a

20. Which of the following streaming windows show valid bucket representations according to the DGIM rules?

a. 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 b. 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 c. 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 d. 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1

Ans. d

21. For which of the following streams is the second-order moment is greater than 45?

a. 10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10 b. 1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1 c. 10 10 10 10 10 5 5 5 5 5 d. None of above Ans. c

22. For which of the following streams is the second-order moment is greater than 50?

a. 10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10 b. 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 c. 10 10 10 10 10 5 5 5 5 5 d. None of above

Ans. b

23. Which of the following statements is correct about data mining?

a. It can be referred to as the procedure of mining knowledge from data b. Data mining can be defined as the procedure of extracting information from a set of the data c. The procedure of data mining also involves several other processes like data cleaning, data transformation, and data integration d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation: The term data mining can be defined as the process of extracting information from the massive collection of data. In other words, we can also say that data mining is the procedure of mining useful knowledge from a huge set of data.

24. The classification of the data mining system involves:

a. Database technology b. Information Science c. Machine learning d. All of the above

Answer: d

Explanation: Generally, the classification of a data mining system depends on the following criteria: Database technology, machine learning, visualization, information science, and several other disciplines.

25. The issues like efficiency, scalability of data mining algorithms comes under_______

a. Performance issues b. Diverse data type issues

c. Mining methodology and user interaction d. All of the above

Answer: a

Explanation: In order to extract information effectively from a huge collection of data in databases, the data mining algorithm must be efficient and scalable. Therefore the correct answer is A.

26. In data streams, data is……..

a. continuous

b. discrete

c. scattered

d. none of above

Ans. a 27. In mining data stream data should be of…..

a. same type

b. different type

c. binary

d. none of above

Ans. b

28.  Which one is not component of data stream management system?

a. Data stream

b. system processor

c.  SQL engine

d. storage

Ans. c

29. Which of the following statement is true about mining data streams

a. Data rate is not controlled by the system

b. Data type is same for all data streams

c. Data is divided in chunks and later stored in database

d. none of above

Ans. a

30. Which of the following is the data stream source?

a. Sensors data

b. Web/traffic camera data

c. Image data

d. all of above

Ans. d

31. What are the different operations on stream?

a. Sampling

b. counting distinct elements

c. Filtering

d. All of above

Ans. d

32. Which one is not the data stream process?

a. Finding frequent item

b. sampling

c. Filtering

d. Counting distinct elements.

Ans. a

33. In Flajolet-Martin algorithm if the stream contains n elements with m of them unique, this algorithm runs in

a. O(n) time

b. constant time

c. O(2n) time

d. O(3n)time

Ans. a

34. which algorithm we will implement to know how many distinct users visited the website till now or in last 2 hours.

a. SVM

b. DGIM

c. FM

d. Clustering

Ans. c

35. In FM algorithm we shall use estimate...............for the number of distinct elements seen in the stream.

a. 2R

b. 3R

c. 2R

d None of above

Ans. a

36. In sliding window of size w an element arriving at time t expires at

a. w

b. t

c. t + w

d. t - w

Ans. c

37. Real-time data stream is _______

a. sequence of data items that arrive in some order and may be seen only once.

b. sequence of data items that arrive in some order and may be seen twice.

c. sequence of data items that arrive in same order

d. sequence of data items that arrive in different order

ans.  a

38.  Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct?

a. It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter.

b. A Bloom filter always returns the correct result.

C. It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more space.

d. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element.

Ans. d

39. What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries?

a. DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25%

b. DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50%

c. DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50%

d. DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25%

Ans. b

40. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false?

a. DGIM operates on a time-based window.

b. DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts.

c. In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two

d. The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand.

Ans. d

41. In DGIM,whenever forming a bucket then_____

a. Every bucket should have at least one 1, else no bucket can be formed

b. Every bucket should have at least two 1, else no bucket can be formed

c. Every bucket should have at least three 1, else no bucket can be formed

d. Every bucket should have at least four 1, else no bucket can be formed

Ans. a

42. Which attribute is not indicative for data streaming?

a. Limited amount of memory

b. Limited amount of processing time

c. Limited amount of input data

d. Limited amount of processing power

Ans. c

43. In Filtering Streams____________

a. Accept those tuples in the stream that meet a criterion.

b. Accept data in the stream that meet a criterion.

c. Accept those class in the stream that meet a criterion

d. Accept rows in the stream that meet a criterion.

Ans. a

44. A Bloom filter consists of_________

a. An array of n bits, initially all 0’s.

b. An array of 1 bits, initially all 0’s.

c. An array of 2 bits, initially all 0’s.

d. An array of n bits, initially all 1’s.

Ans. a

45. The purpose of the Bloom filter is to allow____________

a. through all stream elements whose keys are in Set

b. through all stream elements whose keys are in class

c. through all data elements whose keys are in Set

d. through all touple elements whose keys are in Set

Ans. a

46.  The second order moment for the stream a, b, c, b, d, a, c, d, a, b, d, c, a, a, b is

a. 60

b. 59

c. 51

d. 71

Ans. b

47. The second order moment for the stream a, b, c, b, d, a, c, d, a, b, d, c, a, a, b using Alon-Matias-Szegedy Algorithm is

a. 59

b. 67

c. 55

d. 75

Ans. c

48. Which of the following stream clustering algorithm can be used for counting 1's in a stream

a. FM Algorithm

b. PCY Algorithm

c. BDMO Algorithm

d. SON Algorithm

Ans. c

49. The time between elements of one stream

a. need not be uniform

b. need to be uniform

c. must be 1ms.

d. must be 1ns

Ans. a

50. In Bloom filter an array of n bits is initialized with

a. all 0s

b. all 1s

c. half 0s and half 1s

d. all -1

Ans. a

51. the number of different elements appearing in a stream, using Flajolet Martin algorithm. The Given Stream is: 4, 2, 5, 9, 1, 6, 3, 7, are--------- . Hash function is h(x) = 3x + 1 mod 32

a. 12

b. 16

c. 8

d. 9

Ans. b

52. The number of different elements appearing in a stream, using Flajolet Martin algorithm. The Given Stream is: 4, 2, 5, 9, 1, 6, 3, 7, are--------- . Hash function is h(x) = x + 6 mod 32.

a. 8

b. 16

c. 12

d. 20

Ans. a

UNIT -4

1. Movie Recommendation systems are an example of 1. Classification 2. Clustering 3. Reinforcement Learning 4. Regression 1. 2 only 2. 1 and 3 3. 1 and 2 4. 2 and 3 Show Answer 1 and 3

2.  In the following given diagram, which type of clustering is used?

a. Hierarchal b. Naive Bayes c. Partitional d. None of the above e. Answer: a

f. Explanation: In the above-given diagram, the hierarchal type of clustering is used. The hierarchal type of clustering categorizes data through a variety of scales by making a cluster tree. So the correct answer is A.

3.  Which of the following statements is incorrect about the hierarchal clustering?

a. The hierarchal type of clustering is also known as the HCA b. The choice of an appropriate metric can influence the shape of the cluster c. In general, the splits and merges both are determined in a greedy manner d. All of the above

Answer: a

Explanation: All following statements given in the above question are incorrect, so the correct answer is D.

4.  Which one of the following can be considered as the final output of the hierarchal type of clustering?

a. A tree which displays how the close thing are to each other b. Assignment of each point to clusters c. Finalize estimation of cluster centroids d. None of the above e. Answer: a

f. Explanation: The hierarchal type of clustering can be referred to as the agglomerative approach.

5. Which one of the following statements about the K-means clustering is incorrect?

a. The goal of the k-means clustering is to partition (n) observation into (k) clusters b. K-means clustering can be defined as the method of quantization c. The nearest neighbor is the same as the K-means

d. All of the above e. Answer: c

f. Explanation: There is nothing to deal in between the k-means and the K- means the nearest neighbor.

6. Which of the following statements about hierarchal clustering is incorrect?

a. The hierarchal clustering can primarily be used for the aim of exploration b. The hierarchal clustering should not be primarily used for the aim of exploration c. Both A and B d. None of the above e. Answer: a

f. Explanation: The hierarchical clustering technique can be used for exploration because it is the deterministic technique of clustering.

7. Which one of the clustering technique needs the merging approach?

a. Partitioned b. Naïve Bayes

Hierarchical

c. Both A and C d. Answer: c

e. Explanation: The hierarchal type of clustering is one of the most commonly used methods to analyze social network data. In this type of clustering method, multiple nodes are compared with each other on the basis of their similarities and several larger groups' are formed by merging the nodes or groups of nodes that have similar characteristics.

8. Which one of the following correctly defines the term cluster?

a. Group of similar objects that differ significantly from other objects b. Symbolic representation of facts or ideas from which information can potentially be extracted c. Operations on a database to transform or simplify data in order to prepare it for a machine-learning algorithm d. All of the above e. Answer: a

f. Explanation: The term "cluster" refers to the set of similar objects or items that differ significantly from the other available objects. In other words, we can understand clusters as making groups of objects that contain similar characteristics form all available objects. Therefore the correct answer is A.

9. Hierarchical clustering should be mainly used for exploration.

a. True

b. False

c. May be true or false

d. None of the above

Answer: a

10. K-means clustering consists of a number of iterations and not deterministic.

a. True

b. False

c. May be true or false

d. None of the above

Answer: a

11. Which function is used for k-means clustering?

(A). k-means

(B). k-mean

(C). heatmap

(D). none of the mentioned

MCQ Answer: a

12. Which is needed by K-means clustering?

(A). defined distance metric

(B). number of clusters

(C). initial guess as to cluster centroids

(D). all of these

MCQ Answer: d

13. Which is conclusively produced by Hierarchical Clustering?

(A). final estimation of cluster centroids

(B). tree showing how nearby things are to each other

(C). assignment of each point to clusters

(D). all of these

MCQ Answer: b

14. Which clustering technique requires a merging approach?

(A). Partitional

(B). Hierarchical

(C). Naive Bayes

(D). None of the mentioned

MCQ Answer: b

15. Which of the following is finally produced by Hierarchical Clustering?

a) final estimate of cluster centroids

b) tree showing how close things are to each other

c) assignment of each point to clusters

d) all of the mentioned

Ans. b

16. Which of the following is required by K-means clustering?

a) defined distance metric

b) number of clusters

c) initial guess as to cluster centroids

d) all of the mentioned

Ans. d

17. Point out the wrong statement.

a) k-means clustering is a method of vector quantization

b) k-means clustering aims to partition n observations into k clusters

c) k-nearest neighbor is same as k-means

d) None of the mentioned

Ans. c

18. Which of the following combination is incorrect?

a) Continuous – euclidean distance

b) Continuous – correlation similarity

c) Binary – manhattan distance

d) None of the mentioned

Ans. d

19. Which of the following can act as possible termination conditions in K-Means?

1. For a fixed number of iterations.

2. Assignment of observations to clusters does not change between iterations. Except for cases with a bad local minimum.

3. Centroids do not change between successive iterations.

4. Terminate when RSS falls below a threshold.

Options:

a. 1, 3 and 4

b. 1, 2 and 3

c. 1, 2 and 4

d. All of the above

Ans. d

20. A collection of one or more items is called as _____

(a)

Itemset

(b)

Support

(c)

Confidence

(d)

Support Count

Ans. a

21. Frequency of occurrence of an itemset is called as _____

(a)

Support

(b)

Confidence

(c)

Support Count

(d)

Rules

Ans. c

22. An itemset whose support is greater than or equal to a minimum support threshold is ______

(a)

Itemset

(b)

Frequent Itemset

(c)

Infrequent items

(d)

Threshold values

Ans. b

23. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm?

(a)

Hash-based techniques

(b)

Transaction Increases

(c)

Sampling

(d)

Cleaning

Ans. a

24. What do you mean by support(A)?

(a)

Total number of transactions containing A

(b)

Total Number of transactions not containing A

(c)

Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions

(d)

Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions

Ans. c

25. Which of the following is the direct application of frequent itemset mining?

(a)

Social Network Analysis

(b)

Market Basket Analysis

(c)

Outlier Detection

(d)

Intrusion Detection

Ans. b

26. When do you consider an association rule interesting?

(a)

If it only satisfies min_support

(b)

If it only satisfies min_confidence

(c)

If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence

(d)

There are other measures to check so

Ans. c

27. What is the relation between a candidate and frequent itemsets?

(a)

A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset

(b)

A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset

(c)

No relation between these two

(d)

Strong relation with transactions

Ans. b

28. Which of the following is not a frequent pattern mining algorithm?

(a)

Apriori

(b)

FP growth

(c)

Decision trees

(d)

Eclat

Ans. c

29. Which algorithm requires fewer scans of data?

(a)

Apriori

(b)

FP Growth

(c)

Naive Bayes

(d)

Decision Trees

Ans. b

30. For the question given below consider the data Transactions :

I1, I2, I3, I4, I5, I6

I7, I2, I3, I4, I5, I6

I1, I8, I4, I5

I1, I9, I10, I4, I6

I10, I2, I4, I11, I5

With support as 0.6 find all frequent itemsets?

(a)

<I1>, <I2>, <I4>, <I5>, <I6>, <I1, I4>, <I2, I4>, <I2, I5>, <I4, I5>, <I4, I6>, <I2, I4, I5>

(b)

<I2>, <I4>, <I5>, <I2, I4>, <I2, I5>, <I4, I5>, <I2, I4, I5>

(c)

<I11>, <I4>, <I5>, <I6>, <I1, I4>, <I5, I4>, <I11, I5>, <I4, I6>, <I2, I4, I5>

(d)

<I1>, <I4>, <I5>, <I6>

Ans. a

31. What will happen if support is reduced?

(a)

Number of frequent itemsets remains the same

(b)

Some itemsets will add to the current set of frequent itemsets

(c)

Some itemsets will become infrequent while others will become frequent

(d)

Can not say

Ans. b

32. What is association rule mining?

(a)

Same as frequent itemset mining

(b)

Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets

(c)

Using association to analyze correlation rules

(d)

Finding Itemsets for future trends

Ans. b

33. What does FP growth algorithm do?

a. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support b. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support c. It mines all frequent patterns by constructing a FP tree d. All of these

Ans. c

34. Which technique finds the frequent itemsets in just two database scans?

a. Patitioning b. sampling c. hashing d. None of these

Ans. a

35. Which of the following is true?

a. Both apriori and FP-Growth uses horizontal data format b. Both apriori and FP-Growth uses vertical data format c. Both a and b d. None of these

Ans. a

36. What is the principle on which Apriori algorithm work?

a. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent b. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent c. Both a and b d. None of these

Ans. a

37. What are closed frequent itemsets?

a. A closed itemset b. A frequent itemset c. An itemset which is both closed and frequent d. None of these

Ans. c

38. What are maximal frequent itemsets?

A frequent item set whose no super-itemset is frequent

A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent

Both a and b

None of these

Ans. a

39. What is frequent pattern growth?

a. Same as frequent itemset mining b. Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient c. Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation d. None of these

Ans. c

40. When is sub-itemset pruning done?

a. A frequent itemset ‘P’ is a proper subset of another frequent itemset ‘Q’ b. Support (P) = Support(Q) c. When both a and b is true

d. When a is true and b is not

Ans. c

41. The apriori algorithm works in a ..and ..fashion?

a. top-down and depth-first b. top-down and breath-first c. bottom-up and depth-first d. bottom-up and breath-first

Ans. d

42. In association rule mining the generation of the frequent itermsets is the computational intensive step.

a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Both a and b d. None of these

Ans. a

43. The number of iterations in apriori __

a. increases with the size of the data b. decreases with the increase in size of the data c. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set d. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set

Ans. c

44. Which of the following are interestingness measures for association rules?

a. recall b. lift c. accuracy d. compactness

Ans. b

45. In Apriori algorithm, if 1 item-sets are 100, then the number of candidate 2 item-sets are

a. 100 b. 4950 c. 200 d. 5000

Ans. b

46. Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is

a. Finding frequent itemsets b. pruning c. Candidate generation d. Number of iterations

Ans. c

47. Which Association Rule would you prefer

a. High support and medium confidence b. High support and low confidence c. Low support and high confidence d. Low support and low confidence

Ans. c

48. The apriori property means

a. If a set cannot pass a test, its supersets will also fail the same test b. To decrease the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets c. To improve the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets d. If a set can pass a test, its supersets will fail the same test

Ans. a

49. If an item set ‘XYZ’ is a frequent item set, then all subsets of that frequent item set are

a. undefined b. not frequent c. frequent d. cant say

Ans. c

50. To determine association rules from frequent item sets

a. Only minimum confidence needed b. Neither support not confidence needed c. Both minimum support and confidence are needed d. Minimum support is needed

Ans. c

51. If {A,B,C,D} is a frequent itemset, candidate rules which is not possible is

a. C –> A b. D –> ABCD c. A –> BC d. B –> ADC

Ans. b

UNIT - 5

1. Who was the developer of Hadoop language?

A. Apache Software Foundation B. Hadoop Software Foundation C. Sun Microsystems D. Bell Labs

Ans : A

Explanation: Hadoop Developed by: Apache Software Foundation.

2. The Hadoop language written in which language?

A. C B. C++ C. Java D. Python

Ans : C

Explanation: The hadoop language Written in: Java.

3. What was the Initial release date of hadoop?

A. 1st April 2007 B. 1st April 2006 C. 1st April 2008 D. 1st April 2005

Ans : B

Explanation: Initial release: April 1, 2006; 13 years ago.

4. What license is Hadoop distributed under?

A. Apache License 2.1 B. Apache License 2.2 C. Apache License 2.0 D. Apache License 1.0

Ans : C

Explanation: Hadoop is Open Source, released under Apache 2 license.

5. IBM and ________ have announced a major initiative to use Hadoop to support university courses in distributed computer programming.

A. Google B. Apple C. Facebook D. Microsoft

Ans : A

Explanation: Google and IBM Announce University Initiative to Address Internet-Scale.

6. On which platfrm hadoop langauge runs?

A. Bare metal B. Debian C. Cross-platform D. Unix-Like

Ans : C

Explanation: Hadoop has support for cross platform operating system.

7. Which of the following is not Features Of Hadoop?

A. Suitable for Big Data Analysis B. Scalability C. Robust D. Fault Tolerance

Ans : C

Explanation: Robust is is not Features Of Hadoop.

8. The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely __________.

A. mapped, reduce B. mapping, Reduction C. Map, Reduction D. Map, Reduce

Ans : D

Explanation: The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely Map and Reduce.

9. _____ takes a set of data and converts it into another set of data, where individual elements are broken down into tuples (key/value pairs).

A. Map B. Reduce C. Both A and B D. Node

Ans : A

Explanation: Map takes a set of data and converts it into another set of data, where individual elements are broken down into tuples (key/value pairs).

10 ______ task, which takes the output from a map as an input and combines those data tuples into a smaller set of tuples.

A. Map B. Reduce C. Node D. Both A and B

Ans : B

Explanation: Reduce task, which takes the output from a map as an input and combines those data tuples into a smaller set of tuples.

11. In how many stages the MapReduce program executes?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Ans : B

Explanation: MapReduce program executes in three stages, namely map stage, shuffle stage, and reduce stage.

12. Which of the following is used to schedules jobs and tracks the assign jobs to Task tracker?

A. SlaveNode B. MasterNode C. JobTracker D. Task Tracker

Ans : C

Explanation: JobTracker : Schedules jobs and tracks the assign jobs to Task tracker.

13. Which of the following is used for an execution of a Mapper or a Reducer on a slice of data?

A. Task B. Job C. Mapper D. PayLoad

Ans : A

Explanation: Task : An execution of a Mapper or a Reducer on a slice of data.

14. Which of the following commnd runs a DFS admin client?

A. secondaryadminnode B. nameadmin C. dfsadmin D. adminsck

Ans : C

Explanation: dfsadmin : Runs a DFS admin client.

15. Point out the correct statement.

A. MapReduce tries to place the data and the compute as close as possible B. Map Task in MapReduce is performed using the Mapper() function C. Reduce Task in MapReduce is performed using the Map() function D. None of the above

Ans : A

Explanation: This feature of MapReduce is "Data Locality".

16. Although the Hadoop framework is implemented in Java, MapReduce applications need not be written in ____________

A. C B. C# C. Java D. None of the above

Ans : C

Explanation: Hadoop Pipes is a SWIG- compatible C++ API to implement MapReduce applications (non JNITM based).

17. The number of maps is usually driven by the total size of ____________

A. Inputs B. Output C. Task D. None of the above

Ans : A

Explanation: Total size of inputs means the total number of blocks of the input files.

18. What is full form of HDFS?

A. Hadoop File System B. Hadoop Field System C. Hadoop File Search D. Hadoop Field search

Ans : A

Explanation: Hadoop File System was developed using distributed file system design.

19. HDFS works in a __________ fashion.

A. worker-master fashion B. master-slave fashion C. master-worker fashion D. slave-master fashion

Ans : B

Explanation: HDFS follows the master-slave architecture.

20. Which of the following are the Goals of HDFS?

A. Fault detection and recovery B. Huge datasets C. Hardware at data D. All of the above

Ans : D

Explanation: All the above option are the goals of HDFS.

21. ________ NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down.

A. Rack B. Data C. Secondary D. Both A and B

Ans : C

Explanation: Secondary namenode is used for all time availability and reliability.

22. The minimum amount of data that HDFS can read or write is called a _____________.

A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. None of the above

Ans : C

Explanation: The minimum amount of data that HDFS can read or write is called a Block.

23. The default block size is ______.

A. 32MB B. 64MB C. 128MB D. 16MB

Ans : B

Explanation: The default block size is 64MB, but it can be increased as per the need to change in HDFS configuration.

24. For every node (Commodity hardware/System) in a cluster, there will be a _________.

A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. None of the above

Ans : A

Explanation: For every node (Commodity hardware/System) in a cluster, there will be a datanode.

25. Which of the following is not Features Of HDFS?

A. It is suitable for the distributed storage and processing. B. Streaming access to file system data. C. HDFS provides file permissions and authentication. D. Hadoop does not provides a command interface to interact with HDFS.

Ans : D

Explanation: The correct feature is Hadoop provides a command interface to interact with HDFS.

26. HDFS is implemented in _____________ language.

A. Perl B. Python C. Java D. C

Ans : C

Explanation: HDFS is implemented in Java and any computer which can run Java can host a NameNode/DataNode on it.

27. During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file.

A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. ActionNode

Ans : B

Explanation: HDFS is implemented on any computer which can run Java can host a NameNode/DataNode on it.

28. Which of the following is not true about Pig?

A. Apache Pig is an abstraction over MapReduce B. Pig cannot perform all the data manipulation operations in Hadoop. C. Pig is a tool/platform which is used to analyze larger sets of data representing them as data flows. D. None of the above

Ans : B

Explanation: Pig is generally used with Hadoop; we can perform all the data manipulation operations in Hadoop using Apache Pig.

29. Which of the following is/are a feature of Pig?

A. Rich set of operators B. Ease of programming C. Extensibility D. All of the above

Ans : D

Explanation: All options are the following Features of Pig.

30. In which year apache Pig was released?

A. 2005 B. 2006

C. 2007 D. 2008

Ans : B

Explanation: In 2006, Apache Pig was developed as a research project.

31. Pig operates in mainly how many nodes?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Ans : A

Explanation: You can run Pig (execute Pig Latin statements and Pig commands) using various mode: Interactive and Batch Mode.

32. Which of the following company has developed PIG?

A. Google B. Yahoo C. Microsoft D. Apple

Ans : B

Explanation: Apache Pig was developed as a research project at Yahoo, especially to create and execute MapReduce jobs on every dataset.

33. Which of the following function is used to read data in PIG?

A. Write B. Read C. Perform D. Load

Ans : D

Explanation: PigStorage is the default load function.

34. __________ is a framework for collecting and storing script-level statistics for Pig Latin.

A. Pig Stats B. PStatistics C. Pig Statistics D. All of the above

Ans : C

Explanation: The new Pig statistics and the existing Hadoop statistics can also be accessed via the Hadoop job history file.

35. Which of the following is true statement?

A. Pig is a high level language. B. Performing a Join operation in Apache Pig is pretty simple.

C. Apache Pig is a data flow language. D. All of the above

Ans : D

Explanation: All option are true statement.

36. Which of the following will compile the Pigunit?

A. $pig_trunk ant pigunit-jar B. $pig_tr ant pigunit-jar C. $pig_ ant pigunit-jar D. $pigtr_ ant pigunit-jar

Ans : A

Explanation: The compile will create the pigunit.jar file.

37. Point out the wrong statement.

A. Pig can invoke code in language like Java Only B. Pig enables data workers to write complex data transformations without knowing Java C. Pig's simple SQL-like scripting language is called Pig Latin, and appeals to developers already familiar with scripting languages and SQL D. Pig is complete, so you can do all required data manipulations in Apache Hadoop with Pig

Ans : A

Explanation: Through the User Defined Functions(UDF) facility in Pig, Pig can invoke code in many languages like JRuby, Jython and Java.

38. Which of the following is/are INCORRECT with respect to Hive?

A. Hive provides SQL interface to process large amount of data B. Hive needs a relational database like oracle to perform query operations and store data. C. Hive works well on all files stored in HDFS D. Both A and B

Ans : B

Explanation: Hive needs a relational database like oracle to perform query operations and store data is incorrect with respect to Hive.

39. Which of the following is not a Features of HiveQL?

A. Supports joins B. Supports indexes C. Support views D. Support Transactions

Ans : D

Explanation: Support Transactions is not a Features of HiveQL.

40. Which of the following operator executes a shell command from the Hive shell?

A. | B. !

C. # D. $

Ans : B

Explanation: Exclamation operator is for execution of command.

41. Hive uses _________ for logging.

A. logj4 B. log4l C. log4i D. log4j

Ans : D

Explanation: By default Hive will use hive-log4j.default in the conf/ directory of the Hive installation.

42. HCatalog is installed with Hive, starting with Hive release is ___________

A. 0.10.0 B. 0.9.0 C. 0.11.0 D. 0.12.0

Ans : C

Explanation: hcat commands can be issued as hive commands, and vice versa.

43. _______ supports a new command shell Beeline that works with HiveServer2.

A. HiveServer2 B. HiveServer3 C. HiveServer4 D. HiveServer5

Ans : A

Explanation: The Beeline shell works in both embedded mode as well as remote mode.

44. The ________ allows users to read or write Avro data as Hive tables.

A. AvroSerde B. HiveSerde C. SqlSerde D. HiveQLSerde

Ans : A

Explanation: AvroSerde understands compressed Avro files.

45. Which of the following data type is supported by Hive?

A. map B. record C. string D. enum

Ans : D

Explanation: Hive has no concept of enums.

46. We need to store skill set of MCQs(which might have multiple values) in MCQs table, which of the following is the best way to store this information in case of Hive?

A. Create a column in MCQs table of STRUCT data type B. Create a column in MCQs table of MAP data type C. Create a column in MCQs table of ARRAY data type D. As storing multiple values in a column of MCQs itself is a violation

Ans : C

Explanation: Option C is correct.

47. Letsfindcourse is generating huge amount of data. They are generating huge amount of sensor data from different courses which was unstructured in form. They moved to Hadoop framework for storing and analyzing data. What technology in Hadoop framework, they can use to analyse this unstructured data?

A. MapReduce programming B. Hive C. RDBMS D. None of the above Ans : A

Explanation: MapReduce programming is the right answer.

48. Which of the following is correct statement?

A. HBase is a distributed column-oriented database B. Hbase is not open source C. Hbase is horizontally scalable. D. Both A and C

Ans : D

Explanation: HBase is a distributed column-oriented database built on top of the Hadoop file system. It is an open-source project and is horizontally scalable.

49. Which of the following is not a feature of Hbase?

A. HBase is lateral scalable. B. It has automatic failure support. C. It provides consistent read and writes. D. It has easy java API for client.

Ans : A

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because HBase is linearly scalable.

50. When did HBase was first released?

A. April 2007 B. March 2007 C. February 2007 D. May 2007 Ans : C

Explanation: HBase was first released in February 2007. Later in January 2008, HBase became a sub project of Apache Hadoop.

51. Apache HBase is a non-relational database modeled after Google's _________

A. BigTop B. Bigtable C. Scanner D. FoundationDB

Ans : B

Explanation: Bigtable acts up on Google File System, likewise Apache HBase works on top of Hadoop and HDFS.

52. HBaseAdmin and ____________ are the two important classes in this package that provide DDL functionalities.

A. HTableDescriptor B. HDescriptor C. HTable D. HTabDescriptor

Ans : A

Explanation: Java provides an Admin API to achieve DDL functionalities through programming

53. which of the following is correct statement?

A. HBase provides fast lookups for larger tables. B. It provides low latency access to single rows from billions of records C. HBase is a database built on top of the HDFS. D. All of the above

Ans : D

Explanation: All the options are correct.

54. HBase supports a ____________ interface via Put and Result.

A. bytes-in/bytes-out B. bytes-in C. bytes-out D. None of the above

Ans : A

Explanation: Input could be strings, numbers, complex objects, or even images as long as they can rendered as bytes.

55. Which command is used to disable all the tables matching the given regex?

A. remove all B. drop all C. disable_all D. None of the above

Ans : C

Explanation: The syntax for disable_all command is as follows : hbase > disable_all 'r.*'

56. _________ is the main configuration file of HBase.

A. hbase.xml B. hbase-site.xml C. hbase-site-conf.xml D. hbase-conf.xml

Ans : B

Explanation: Set the data directory to an appropriate location by opening the HBase home folder in /usr/local/HBase.

57. which of the following is incorrect statement?

A. HBase is built for wide tables B. Transactions are there in HBase. C. HBase has de-normalized data. D. HBase is good for semi-structured as well as structured data.

Ans : B

Explanation: No transactions are there in HBase.

58. R was created by?

A. Ross Ihaka B. Robert Gentleman C. Both A and B D. Ross Gentleman

Ans : C

Explanation: R was created by Ross Ihaka and Robert Gentleman at the University of Auckland, New Zealand, and is currently developed by the R Development Core Team.

59. R allows integration with the procedures written in the?

A. C B. Ruby C. Java D. Basic

Ans : A

Explanation: R allows integration with the procedures written in the C, C++, .Net, Python or FORTRAN languages for efficiency.

60. R is free software distributed under a GNU-style copy left, and an official part of the GNU project called?

A. GNU A B. GNU S C. GNU L D. GNU R

Ans : B

Explanation: R is free software distributed under a GNU-style copy left, and an official part of the GNU project called GNU S.

61. R made its first appearance in?

A. 1992 B. 1995 C. 1993 D. 1994

Ans : C

Explanation: R made its first appearance in 1993.

62. Which of the following is true about R?

A. R is a well-developed, simple and effective programming language B. R has an effective data handling and storage facility C. R provides a large, coherent and integrated collection of tools for data analysis. D. All of the above

Ans : D

Explanation: All of the above statement are true.

63. Point out the wrong statement?

A. Setting up a workstation to take full advantage of the customizable features of R is a straightforward thing B. q() is used to quit the R program C. R has an inbuilt help facility similar to the man facility of UNIX D. Windows versions of R have other optional help systems also

Ans : B

Explanation: help command is used for knowing details of particular command in R.

64. Command lines entered at the console are limited to about ________ bytes

A. 4095 B. 4096 C. 4097 D. 4098

Ans : A

Explanation: Elementary commands can be grouped together into one compound expression by braces (‘{’ and ‘}’).

65. R language is a dialect of which of the following languages?

A. s B. c C. sas D. matlab

Ans : A

Explanation: The R language is a dialect of S which was designed in the 1980s. Since the early 90’s the life of the S language has gone down a rather winding path. The scoping rules for R are the main feature that makes it different from the original S language.

66. How many atomic vector types does R have?

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Ans : D

Explanation: R language has 6 atomic data types. They are logical, integer, real, complex, string (or character) and raw. There is also a class for “raw” objects, but they are not commonly used directly in data analysis.

67. R files has an extension _____.

A. .S B. .RP C. .R D. .SP

Ans : C

Explanation: All R files have an extension .R. R provides a mechanism for recalling and re-executing previous commands. All S programmed files will have an extension .S. But R has many functions than S.

68. What will be output for the following code?

v <- TRUE

print(class(v))

A. logical B. Numeric C. Integer D. Complex

Ans : A

Explanation: It produces the following result : [1] ""logical""

69. What will be output for the following code?

v <- ""TRUE""

print(class(v))

A. logical B. Numeric C. Integer D. Character

Ans : D

Explanation: It produces the following result : [1] ""character""

70. In R programming, the very basic data types are the R-objects called?

A. Lists B. Matrices C. Vectors D. Arrays

Ans : C

Explanation: In R programming, the very basic data types are the R-objects called vectors

71. Data Frames are created using the?

A. frame() function B. data.frame() function C. data() function D. frame.data() function

Ans : B

Explanation: Data Frames are created using the data.frame() function

72. Which functions gives the count of levels?

A. level B. levels C. nlevels D. nlevel

Ans : C

Explanation: Factors are created using the factor() function. The nlevels functions gives the count of levels.

73. Point out the correct statement?

A. Empty vectors can be created with the vector() function B. A sequence is represented as a vector but can contain objects of different classes C. "raw” objects are commonly used directly in data analysis D. The value NaN represents undefined value

Ans : A

Explanation: A vector can only contain objects of the same class.

74. What will be the output of the following R code?

> x <- vector(""numeric"", length = 10)

> x

A. 1 0 B. 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 C. 0 1 D. 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 0

Ans : B

Explanation: You can also use the vector() function to initialize vectors.

75. What will be output for the following code?

> sqrt(-17)

A. -4.02 B. 4.02 C. 3.67 D. NAN

Ans : D

Explanation: These metadata can be very useful in that they help to describe the object.

76. _______ function returns a vector of the same size as x with the elements arranged in increasing order.

A. sort() B. orderasc() C. orderby() D. sequence()

Ans : A

Explanation: There are other more flexible sorting facilities available like order() or sort.list() which produce a permutation to do the sorting.

77. What will be the output of the following R code?

> m <- matrix(nrow = 2, ncol = 3)

> dim(m)

A. 3 3 B. 3 2 C. 2 3 D. 2 2

Ans : C

Explanation: Matrices are constructed column-wise.

78. Which loop executes a sequence of statements multiple times and abbreviates the code that manages the loop variable?

A. for B. while C. do-while D. repeat

Ans : D

Explanation: repeat loop : Executes a sequence of statements multiple times and abbreviates the code that manages the loop variable.

79. Which of the following true about for loop?

A. Repeats a statement or group of statements while a given condition is true. It tests the condition before executing the loop body. B. it tests the condition at the end of the loop body. C. Both A and B D. None of the above

Ans : B

Explanation: for loop : Like a while statement, except that it tests the condition at the end of the loop body.

80. Which statement simulates the behavior of R switch?

A. Next B. Previous C. break D. goto

Ans : A

Explanation: The next statement simulates the behavior of R switch.

81. In which statement terminates the loop statement and transfers execution to the statement immediately following the loop?

A. goto B. switch C. break D. label

Ans : C

Explanation: Break : Terminates the loop statement and transfers execution to the statement immediately following the loop.

82. Point out the wrong statement?

A. Multi-line expressions with curly braces are just not that easy to sort through when working on the command line B. lappy() loops over a list, iterating over each element in that list C. lapply() does not always returns a list D. You cannot use lapply() to evaluate a function multiple times each with a different argument

Ans : C

Explanation: lapply() always returns a list, regardless of the class of the input.

83. The mapply() function is a multivariate apply of sorts which applies a function in parallel over a set of arguments.

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say

Ans : A

Explanation: True, The mapply() function is a multivariate apply of sorts which applies a function in parallel over a set of arguments.

84 Which of the following is valid body of split function?

A. function (x, f) B. function (x, f, drop = FALSE, …) C. function (x, drop = FALSE, …) D. function (drop = FALSE, …)

Ans : B

Explanation: x is a vector (or list) or data frame

85. Which of the following character skip during execution?

v <- LETTERS[1:6]

for ( i in v) {

if (i == ""D"") {

next

}

print(i)

}

A. A B. B C. C D. D

Ans : D

Explanation: When the above code is compiled and executed, it produces the following result : [1] ""A"" [1] ""B"" [1] ""C"" [1] ""E"" [1] ""F""

86. What will be output for the following code?

v <- LETTERS[1]

for ( i in v) {

print(v)

}

A. A B. A B C. A B C D. A B C D

Ans : A

Explanation: The output for the following code : [1] ""A""

87. What will be output for the following code?

v <- LETTERS[""A""]

for ( i in v) {

print(v)

}

A. A B. NAN C. NA D. Error

Ans : C

Explanation: The output for the following code : [1] NA

88. An R function is created by using the keyword?

A. fun B. function C. declare D. extends

Ans : B

Explanation: An R function is created by using the keyword function. 

89. What will be output for the following code?

print(mean(25:82))

A. 1526 B. 53.5 C. 50.5 D. 55

Ans : B

Explanation: The code will find mean of numbers from 25 to 82 that is 53.5

90. Point out the wrong statement?

A. Functions in R are “second class objects” B. The writing of a function allows a developer to create an interface to the code, that is explicitly specified with a set of parameters

C. Functions provides an abstraction of the code to potential users D. Writing functions is a core activity of an R programmer

Ans : A

Explanation: Functions in R are “first class objects”, which means that they can be treated much like any other R object.

91. What will be output for the following code?

> paste("a", "b", se = ":")

A. a+b B. a:b C. a-b D. None of the above

Ans : D

Explanation: With the paste() function, the arguments sep and collapse must be named explicitly and in full if the default values are not going to be used.

92. Which function in R language is used to find out whether the means of 2 groups are equal to each other or not?

A. f.tests () B. l.tests () C. t.tests () D. p.tests () View Answer Ans : C

Explanation: t.tests () function in R language is used to find out whether the means of 2 groups are equal to each other. It is not used most commonly in R. It is used in some specific conditions.

93. What will be the output of log (-5.8) when executed on R console?

A. NA B. NAN C. 0.213 D. Error View Answer Ans : B

Explanation: Executing the above on R console or terminal will display a warning sign that NaN (Not a Number) will be produced in R console because it is not possible to take a log of a negative number(-).

94. Which function is preferred over sapply as vapply allows the programmer to specific the output type?

A. Lapply B. Japply C. Vapply D. Zapply View Answer Ans : C

Explanation: Vapply is similar to sapply, but has a pre-specified type of return value, so it can be safer (and sometimes faster) to use. simplify2array() is the utility called from sapply() when simplify is not false and is similarly called from mapply().

95. How will you check if an element is present in a vector?

A. Match() B. Dismatch() C. Mismatch() D. Search()

Ans : A

Explanation: It can be done using the match () function- match () function returns the first appearance of a particular element. The other way is to use %in% which returns a Boolean value either true or false.

96. You can check to see whether an R object is NULL with the _________ function.

A. is.null() B. is.nullobj() C. null() D. as.nullobj()

Ans : A

Explanation: It is sometimes useful to allow an argument to take the NULL value, which might indicate that the function should take some specific action.

97. In the base graphics system, which function is used to add elements to a plot?

A. Boxplot() B. Text() C. Treat() D. Both A and B

Ans : D

Explanation: In the base graphics system, boxplot or text function is used to add elements to a plot.

98. Which of the following syntax is used to install forecast package?

A. install.pack("forecast") B. install.packages("cast") C. install.packages("forecast") D. install.pack("forecastcast")

Ans : C

Explanation: forecast is used for time series analysis

99. Which splits a data frame and returns a data frame?

A. apply B. ddply C. stats D. plyr

Ans : B

Explanation: ddply splits a data frame and returns a data frame.

100. Which of the following is an R package for the exploratory analysis of genetic and genomic data?

A. adeg B. adegenet C. anc D. abd

Ans : B

Explanation: This package contains Classes and functions for genetic data analysis within the multivariate framework.

101. Which of the following contains functions for processing uniaxial minute-to-minute accelerometer data?

A. accelerometry B. abc C. abd D. anc

Ans : A

Explanation: This package contains a collection of functions that perform operations on time-series accelerometer data, such as identify non-wear time, flag minutes that are part of an activity about, and find the maximum 10-minute average count value.

102. ______ Uses Grieg-Smith method on 2 dimensional spatial data.

A. G.A. B. G2db C. G.S. D. G1DBN

Ans : C

Explanation: The function returns a GriegSmith object which is a matrix with block sizes, sum of squares for each block size as well as mean sums of squares. G1DBN is a package performing Dynamic Bayesian Network Inference.

103. Which of the following package provide namespace management functions not yet present in base R?

A. stringr B. nbpMatching C. messagewarning D. namespace

Ans : D

Explanation: The package namespace is one of the most confusing parts of building a package. nbpMatching contains functions for non-bipartite optimal matching.

104. What will be the output of the following R code?

install.packages(c("devtools", "roxygen2"))

A. Develops the tools B. Installs the given packages C. Exits R studio D. Nothing happens

Ans : B

Explanation: Make sure you have the latest version of R and then run the above code to get the packages you’ll need. It installs the given packages. Confirm that you have a recent version of RStudio.

105. A bundled package is a package that’s been compressed into a ______ file.

A. Double B. Single C. Triple D. No File

Ans : B

Explanation: A bundled package is a package that’s been compressed into a single file. A source package is just a directory with components like R/, DESCRIPTION, and so on.

106. .library() is not useful when developing a package since you have to install the package first.

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say

Ans : A

Explanation: library() is not useful when developing a package since you have to install the package first. A library is a simple directory containing installed packages.

107. DESCRIPTION uses a very simple file format called DCF.

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say

Ans : A

Explanation: DESCRIPTION uses a very simple file format called DCF, the Debian control format. When you first start writing packages, you’ll mostly use these metadata to record what packages are needed to run your package.

108. HDFS Stores how much data in each clusters that can be scaled at any time? 1. 32 2. 64 3. 128 4. 256 Show Answer 128

109. _____ provides performance through distribution of data and fault tolerance through replication 1. HDFS 2. PIG 3. HIVE 4. HADOOP Show Answer HDFS

110. ______ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. 1. HDFS 2. MAP REDUCE 3. HADOOP 4. HIVE Show Answer MAP REDUCE

111.  ____ takes the grouped key-value paired data as input and runs a Reducer function on each one of them. 1. MAPPER 2. REDUCER 3. COMBINER 4. PARTITIONER Show Answer REDUCER

112. ____ is a type of local Reducer that groups similar data from the map phase into identifiable sets. 1. MAPPER 2. REDUCER 3. COMBINER 4. PARTITIONER Show Answer COMBINER

113. While Installing Hadoop how many xml files are edited and list them ? 1. core-site.xml 2. hdfs-site.xml 3. mapred.xml 4. yarn.xml Show Answer core-site.xml

**********Module - 1 (Introduction)********** 

 

 

1.According to analysts, for what can traditional IT systems provide a foundation when they’re integrated with big d ata technologies like Hadoop? (A). Big data management and data mining (B). Data warehousing and business intelligence (C). Management of Hadoop clusters (D). Collecting and storing unstructured data Answer -A 

 

2.What are the main components of Big Data? (A). MapReduce (B). HDFS (C). YARN (D). All of these Answer -D 

 

3.What are the different features of Big Data Analytics? (A). Open-Source (B). Scalability (C). Data Recovery (D). All the above Answer -D 

 

4.According to analysts, for what can traditional IT systems provide a foundation when they’re integrated with big d ata technologies like Hadoop? (A). Big data management and data mining (B). Data warehousing and business intelligence (C). Management of Hadoop clusters (D). Collecting and storing unstructured data Answer -A 

 

5.What are the four V’s of Big Data? (A). Volume (B). Velocity (C). Variety (D). All the above Answer -D 

 

6.IBM and ________ have announced a major initiative to use Hadoop to support university courses in distributed c omputer programming. (A). Google Latitude (B). Android (operating system) (C). Google Variations (D). Google Answer: d Explanation: Google and IBM Announce University Initiative to Address Internet-Scale. 

 

7.Point out the correct statement. (A). Hadoop is an ideal environment for extracting and transforming small volumes of data (B). Hadoop stores data in HDFS and supports data compression/decompression (C). The Giraph framework is less useful than a MapReduce job to solve graph and machine learning (D). None of the mentioned 


 Answer: b Explanation: Data compression can be achieved using compression algorithms like bzip2, gzip, LZO, etc. Different algorithms can be used in different scenarios based on their capabilities. 

 

8.What license is Hadoop distributed under? (A). Apache License 2.0 (B). Mozilla Public License (C). Shareware (D). Commercial Answer: a Explanation: Hadoop is Open Source, released under Apache 2 license. 

 

9.Sun also has the Hadoop Live CD ________ project, which allows running a fully functional Hadoop cluster using a live CD. (A). OpenOffice.org (B). OpenSolaris (C). GNU (D). Linux Answer: b Explanation: The OpenSolaris Hadoop LiveCD project built a bootable CD-ROM image. 

 

10.Which of the following genres does Hadoop produce? (A). Distributed file system (B). JAX-RS (C). Java Message Service (D). Relational Database Management System Answer: a Explanation: The Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS). is designed to store very large data sets reliably, and to s tream those data sets at high bandwidth to the user. 

 

11.What was Hadoop written in? (A). Java (software platform) (B). Perl (C). Java (programming language) (D). Lua (programming language) Answer: c Explanation: The Hadoop framework itself is mostly written in the Java programming language, with some native co de in C and command-line utilities written as shell-scripts. 

 

12.Which of the following platforms does Hadoop run on? (A). Bare metal (B). Debian (C). Cross-platform (D). Unix-like Answer: c Explanation: Hadoop has support for cross-platform operating system. 

 

13.Hadoop achieves reliability by replicating the data across multiple hosts and hence does not require ________ sto rage on hosts. (A). RAID (B). Standard RAID levels (C). ZFS (D). Operating system 

Answer: a Explanation: With the default replication value, 3, data is stored on three nodes: two on the same rack, and one on a different rack. 

 

14.Above the file systems comes the ________ engine, which consists of one Job Tracker, to which client applicatio ns submit MapReduce jobs. (A). MapReduce (B). Google (C). Functional programming (D). Facebook Answer: a Explanation: MapReduce engine uses to distribute work around a cluster. 

 

15.The Hadoop list includes the HBase database, the Apache Mahout ________ system, and matrix operations. (A). Machine learning (B). Pattern recognition (C). Statistical classification (D). Artificial intelligence Answer: a Explanation: The Apache Mahout project’s goal is to build a scalable machine learning tool. 

 

16.As companies move past the experimental phase with Hadoop, many cite the need for additional capabilities, incl uding _______________ (A). Improved data storage and information retrieval (B). Improved extract, transform and load features for data integration (C). Improved data warehousing functionality (D). Improved security, workload management, and SQL support Answer: d Explanation: Adding security to Hadoop is challenging because all the interactions do not follow the classic client-se rver pattern. 

 

17.Point out the correct statement. (A). Hadoop do need specialized hardware to process the data (B). Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real-time data (C). In Hadoop programming framework output files are divided into lines or records (D). None of the mentioned Answer: b Explanation: Hadoop batch processes data distributed over a number of computers ranging in 100s and 1000s. 

 

18.According to analysts, for what can traditional IT systems provide a foundation when they’re integrated with big data technologies like Hadoop? (A). Big data management and data mining (B). Data warehousing and business intelligence (C). Management of Hadoop clusters (D). Collecting and storing unstructured data Answer: a Explanation: Data warehousing integrated with Hadoop would give a better understanding of data. 

 

19.Hadoop is a framework that works with a variety of related tools. Common cohorts include ____________ (A). MapReduce, Hive and HBase (B). MapReduce, MySQL and Google Apps (C). MapReduce, Hummer and Iguana (D). MapReduce, Heron and Trumpet Answer: a 

Explanation: To use Hive with HBase you’ll typically want to launch two clusters, one to run HBase and the other to run Hive. 

 

20.Point out the wrong statement. (A). Hardtop processing capabilities are huge and its real advantage lies in the ability to process terabytes & petabyt es of data (B). Hadoop uses a programming model called “MapReduce”, all the programs should confirm to this model in orde r to work on Hadoop platform (C). The programming model, MapReduce, used by Hadoop is difficult to write and test (D). All of the mentioned Answer: c Explanation: The programming model, MapReduce, used by Hadoop is simple to write and test. 

 

21.What was Hadoop named after? (A). Creator Doug Cutting’s favorite circus act (B). Cutting’s high school rock band (C). The toy elephant of Cutting’s son (D). A sound Cutting’s laptop made during Hadoop development Answer: c Explanation: Doug Cutting, Hadoop creator, named the framework after his child’s stuffed toy elephant. 

 

22.All of the following accurately describe Hadoop, EXCEPT ____________ (A). Open-source (B). Real-time (C). Java-based (D). Distributed computing approach Answer: b Explanation: Apache Hadoop is an open-source software framework for distributed storage and distributed processin g of Big Data on clusters of commodity hardware. 

 

23.__________ can best be described as a programming model used to develop Hadoop-based applications that can process massive amounts of data. (A). MapReduce (B). Mahout (C). Oozie (D). All of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: MapReduce is a programming model and an associated implementation for processing and generating l arge data sets with a parallel, distributed algorithm. 

 

24.__________ has the world’s largest Hadoop cluster. (A). Apple (B). Datamatics (C). Facebook (D). None of the mentioned Answer: c Explanation: Facebook has many Hadoop clusters, the largest among them is the one that is used for Data warehousi ng. 

 

25.Facebook Tackles Big Data With _______ based on Hadoop. (A). ‘Project Prism’ (B). ‘Prism’ (C). ‘Project Big’ (D). ‘Project Data’ 

Answer: a Explanation: Prism automatically replicates and moves data wherever it’s needed across a vast network of computin g facilities. 

 

26.________ is a platform for constructing data flows for extract, transform, and load (ETL). processing and analysi s of large datasets. (A). Pig Latin (B). Oozie (C). Pig (D). Hive Answer: c Explanation: Apache Pig is a platform for analyzing large data sets that consists of a high-level language for express ing data analysis programs. 

 

27.Point out the correct statement. (A). Hive is not a relational database, but a query engine that supports the parts of SQL specific to querying data (B). Hive is a relational database with SQL support (C). Pig is a relational database with SQL support (D). All of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: Hive is a SQL-based data warehouse system for Hadoop that facilitates data summarization, ad hoc que ries, and the analysis of large datasets stored in Hadoop-compatible file systems. 

 

28._________ hides the limitations of Java behind a powerful and concise Clojure API for Cascading. (A). Scalding (B). HCatalog (C). Cascalog (D). All of the mentioned Answer: c Explanation: Cascalog also adds Logic Programming concepts inspired by Datalog. Hence the name “Cascalog” is a contraction of Cascading and Datalog. 

 

29.Hive also support custom extensions written in ____________ (A). C# (B). Java (C). C (D). C++ Answer: b Explanation: Hive also support custom extensions written in Java, including user-defined functions (UDFs). and seri alize r-deserializers for reading and optionally writing custom formats. 

 

30.Point out the wrong statement. (A). Elastic MapReduce (EMR). is Facebook’s packaged Hadoop offering (B). Amazon Web Service Elastic MapReduce (EMR). is Amazon’s packaged Hadoop offering (C). Scalding is a Scala API on top of Cascading that removes most Java boilerplate (D). All of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: Rather than building Hadoop deployments manually on EC2 (Elastic Compute Cloud). clusters, users c an spin up fully configured Hadoop installations using simple invocation commands, either through the AWS Web Console or through command-line tools. 

 

31.________ is the most popular high-level Java API in Hadoop Ecosystem (A). Scalding 

(B). HCatalog (C). Cascalog (D). Cascading Answer: d Explanation: Cascading hides many of the complexities of MapReduce programming behind more intuitive pipes an d data flow abstractions. 

 

32.___________ is general-purpose computing model and runtime system for distributed data analytics. (A). Mapreduce (B). Drill (C). Oozie (D). None of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: Mapreduce provides a flexible and scalable foundation for analytics, from traditional reporting to leadi ng-edge machine learning algorithms. 

 

33.The Pig Latin scripting language is not only a higher-level data flow language but also has operators similar to __ __________ (A). SQL (B). JSON (C). XML (D). All of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: Pig Latin, in essence, is designed to fill the gap between the declarative style of SQL and the low-level procedural style of MapReduce. 

 

34._______ jobs are optimized for scalability but not latency. (A). Mapreduce (B). Drill (C). Oozie (D). Hive Answer: d Explanation: Hive Queries are translated to MapReduce jobs to exploit the scalability of MapReduce. 

 

35.______ is a framework for performing remote procedure calls and data serialization. (A). Drill (B). BigTop (C). Avro (D). Chukwa Answer: c Explanation: In the context of Hadoop, Avro can be used to pass data from one program or language to another. 

 

 

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**********Module - 2 (Hadoop HDFS & Map Reduce)********** 

 

 

1.A ________ serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster. (A). Data Node (B). NameNode (C). Data block (D). Replication 

Answer: b Explanation: All the metadata related to HDFS including the information about data nodes, files stored on HDFS, an d Replication, etc. are stored and maintained on the NameNode. 

 

2.Point out the correct statement. (A). DataNode is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks (B). Each incoming file is broken into 32 MB by default (C). Data blocks are replicated across different nodes in the cluster to ensure a low degree of fault tolerance (D). None of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: There can be any number of DataNodes in a Hadoop Cluster. 

 

3.HDFS works in a __________ fashion. (A). master-worker (B). master-slave (C). worker/slave (D). all of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: NameNode servers as the master and each DataNode servers as a worker/slave 

 

4.________ NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down. (A). Rack (B). Data (C). Secondary (D). None of the mentioned Answer: c Explanation: Secondary namenode is used for all time availability and reliability. 

 

5.Point out the wrong statement. (A). Replication Factor can be configured at a cluster level (Default is set to 3). and also at a file level (B). Block Report from each DataNode contains a list of all the blocks that are stored on that DataNode (C). User data is stored on the local file system of DataNodes (D). DataNode is aware of the files to which the blocks stored on it belong to Answer: d Explanation: NameNode is aware of the files to which the blocks stored on it belong to. 

 

6.Which of the following scenario may not be a good fit for HDFS? (A). HDFS is not suitable for scenarios requiring multiple/simultaneous writes to the same file (B). HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access (C). HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access (D). None of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: HDFS can be used for storing archive data since it is cheaper as HDFS allows storing the data on low c ost commodity hardware while ensuring a high degree of fault-tolerance. 

 

7.The need for data replication can arise in various scenarios like ____________ (A). Replication Factor is changed (B). DataNode goes down (C). Data Blocks get corrupted (D). All of the mentioned Answer: d Explanation: Data is replicated across different DataNodes to ensure a high degree of fault-tolerance. 

 

8.________ is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks. 

(A). DataNode (B). NameNode (C). Data block (D). Replication Answer: a Explanation: A DataNode stores data in the [HadoopFileSystem]. A functional filesystem has more than one DataNo de, with data replicated across them. 

 

9.HDFS provides a command line interface called __________ used to interact with HDFS. (A). “HDFS Shell” (B). “FS Shell” (C). “DFS Shell” (D). None of the mentioned Answer: b Explanation: The File System (FS). shell includes various shell-like commands that directly interact with the Hadoo p Distributed File System (HDFS). 

 

10.HDFS is implemented in _____________ programming language. (A). C++ (B). Java (C). Scala (D). None of the mentioned Answer: b Explanation: HDFS is implemented in Java and any computer which can run Java can host a NameNode/DataNode on it. 

 

11.For YARN, the ___________ Manager UI provides host and port information. (A). Data Node (B). NameNode (C). Resource (D). Replication Answer: c Explanation: All the metadata related to HDFS including the information about data nodes, files stored on HDFS, an d Replication, etc. are stored and maintained on the NameNode. 

 

12.Point out the correct statement. (A). The Hadoop framework publishes the job flow status to an internally running web server on the master nodes of the Hadoop cluster (B). Each incoming file is broken into 32 MB by default (C). Data blocks are replicated across different nodes in the cluster to ensure a low degree of fault tolerance (D). None of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: The web interface for the Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS). shows information about the Name Node itself. 

 

13.For ________ the HBase Master UI provides information about the HBase Master uptime. (A). HBase (B). Oozie (C). Kafka (D). All of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: HBase Master UI provides information about the num ber of live, dead and transitional servers, logs, Z ooKeeper information, debug dumps, and thread stacks. 

 

14.During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. (A). DataNode (B). NameNode (C). ActionNode (D). None of the mentioned Answer: b Explanation: HDFS is implemented on any computer which can run Java can host a NameNode/DataNode on it 

 

15.7A ________ node acts as the Slave and is responsible for executing a Task assigned to it by the JobTracker. (A). MapReduce (B). Mapper (C). TaskTracker (D). JobTracker Answer: c Explanation: TaskTracker receives the information necessary for the execution of a Task from JobTracker, Executes the Task, and Sends the Results back to JobTracker. 

 

16.Point out the correct statement. (A). MapReduce tries to place the data and the compute as close as possible (B). Map Task in MapReduce is performed using the Mapper(). function (C). Reduce Task in MapReduce is performed using the Map(). function (D). All of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: This feature of MapReduce is “Data Locality”. 

 

17.___________ part of the MapReduce is responsible for processing one or more chunks of data and producing the output results. (A). Maptask (B). Mapper (C). Task execution (D). All of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: Map Task in MapReduce is performed using the Map(). function. 

 

18._________ function is responsible for consolidating the results produced by each of the Map(). functions/tasks. (A). Reduce (B). Map (C). Reducer (D). All of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: Reduce function collates the work and resolves the results. 

 

19.Point out the wrong statement. (A). A MapReduce job usually splits the input data-set into independent chunks which are processed by the map tas ks in a completely parallel manner (B). The MapReduce framework operates exclusively on <key, value> pairs (C). Applications typically implement the Mapper and Reducer interfaces to provide the map and reduce methods (D). None of the mentioned Answer: d Explanation: The MapReduce framework takes care of scheduling tasks, monitoring them and re-executes the failed tasks. 

 

20.Although the Hadoop framework is implemented in Java, MapReduce applications need not be written in ______ ______ 

(A). Java (B). C (C). C# (D). None of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: Hadoop Pipes is a SWIG- compatible C++ API to implement MapReduce applications (non JNITM ba sed). 

 

21.________ is a utility which allows users to create and run jobs with any executables as the mapper and/or the red ucer. (A). Hadoop Strdata (B). Hadoop Streaming (C). Hadoop Stream (D). None of the mentioned Answer: b Explanation: Hadoop streaming is one of the most important utilities in the Apache Hadoop distribution. 

 

22.__________ maps input key/value pairs to a set of intermediate key/value pairs. (A). Mapper (B). Reducer (C). Both Mapper and Reducer (D). None of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: Maps are the individual tasks that transform input records into intermediate records. 

 

23.The number of maps is usually driven by the total size of ____________ (A). inputs (B). outputs (C). tasks (D). None of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: Total size of inputs means the total number of blocks of the input files. 

 

24._________ is the default Partitioner for partitioning key space. (A). HashPar (B). Partitioner (C). HashPartitioner (D). None of the mentioned Answer: c Explanation: The default partitioner in Hadoop is the HashPartitioner which has a method called getPartition to parti tion. 

 

25.Running a ___________ program involves running mapping tasks on many or all of the nodes in our cluster. (A). MapReduce (B). Map (C). Reducer (D). All of the mentioned Answer: a Explanation: In some applications, component tasks need to create and/or write to side-files, which differ from the a ctual job-output files. 

 

 

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 **********Module - 3 (NoSQL)********** 

 

 

1.Following represent column in NoSQL __________. (A). Database (B). Field (C). Document (D). Collection Answer -B 

 

2.What is the aim of NoSQL? (A). NoSQL provides an alternative to SQL databases to store textual data. (B). NoSQL databases allow storing non-structured data. (C). NoSQL is not suitable for storing structured data. (D). NoSQL is a new data format to store large datasets. Answer- D 

 

3.__________ is a online NoSQL developed by Cloudera. (A). HCatalog (B). Hbase (C). Imphala (D). Oozie Answer-B 

 

4.Which of the following is not a NoSQL database? (A). SQL Server (B). MongoDB (C). Cassandra (D). None of the mentioned Answer-A 

 

5.Which of the following is a NoSQL Database Type? (A). SQL (B). Document databases (C). JSON (D). All of the mentioned Answer-B 

 

6.Following represent column in NoSQL __________. (A). Database (B). Field (C). Document (D). Collection Answer-B 

 

7.What is the aim of NoSQL? (A). NoSQL provides an alternative to SQL databases to store textual data. (B). NoSQL databases allow storing non-structured data. (C). NoSQL is not suitable for storing structured data. (D). NoSQL is a new data format to store large datasets. Answer-D 

 

8.__________ is a online NoSQL developed by Cloudera. 

(A). HCatalog (B). Hbase (C). Imphala (D). Oozie Answer-B 

 

9.Which of the following is not a NoSQL database? (A). SQL Server (B). MongoDB (C). Cassandra (D). None of the mentioned Answer-A 

 

10.Which of the following is a NoSQL Database Type? (A). SQL (B). Document databases (C). JSON (D). All of the mentioned Answer-B 

 

11.Following represent column in NoSQL __________. (A). Database (B). Field (C). Document (D). Collection Answer-B 

 

12.What is the aim of NoSQL? (A). NoSQL provides an alternative to SQL databases to store textual data. (B). NoSQL databases allow storing non-structured data. (C). NoSQL is not suitable for storing structured data. (D). NoSQL is a new data format to store large datasets. Answer-D 

 

13.__________ is a online NoSQL developed by Cloudera. (A). HCatalog (B). Hbase (C). Imphala (D). Oozie Answer-B 

 

14.Which of the following is not a NoSQL database? (A). SQL Server (B). MongoDB (C). Cassandra (D). None of the mentioned Answer-A 

 

15.Which of the following is a NoSQL Database Type? (A). SQL (B). Document databases (C). JSON (D). All of the mentioned Answer-B 


 16.Following represent column in NoSQL __________. (A). Database (B). Field (C). Document (D). Collection Answer-B 

 

17.What is the aim of NoSQL? (A). NoSQL provides an alternative to SQL databases to store textual data. (B). NoSQL databases allow storing non-structured data. (C). NoSQL is not suitable for storing structured data. (D). NoSQL is a new data format to store large datasets. Answer-D 

 

18.__________ is a online NoSQL developed by Cloudera. (A). HCatalog (B). Hbase (C). Imphala (D). Oozie Answer-B 

 

19.Which of the following is not a NoSQL database? (A). SQL Server (B). MongoDB (C). Cassandra (D). None of the mentioned Answer-A 

 

20.Which of the following is a NoSQL Database Type? (A). SQL (B). Document databases (C). JSON (D). All of the mentioned Answer-B 

 

21.Following represent column in NoSQL __________. (A). Database (B). Field (C). Document (D). Collection Answer-B 

 

22.What is the aim of NoSQL? (A). NoSQL provides an alternative to SQL databases to store textual data. (B). NoSQL databases allow storing non-structured data. (C). NoSQL is not suitable for storing structured data. (D). NoSQL is a new data format to store large datasets. Answer-D 

 

23.__________ is a online NoSQL developed by Cloudera. (A). HCatalog (B). Hbase (C). Imphala 

(D). Oozie Answer-B 

 

24.Which of the following is not a NoSQL database? (A). SQL Server (B). MongoDB (C). Cassandra (D). None of the mentioned Answer-A 

 

25.Which of the following is a NoSQL Database Type? (A). SQL (B). Document databases (C). JSON (D). All of the mentioned Answer-B 

 

 

********** Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum ********** 

 

 

**********Module - 4 (Mining Data Streams)********** 

 

 

1.Bloom filter was proposed by :  (A). Burton morris Bloom (B). Burton Howard Bloom (C). Burton Datar Bloom (D). Burton Howrd Bloom Answer : Burton morris Bloom 

 

2. A simple space-efficient randomized data structure for representing a set in order to support membership queries (A). Bloom Filter (B). Flajolet Martin (C). DGIM K-means Answer: (A). Bloom Filter 

 

3.It is a web-based financial search engine that evaluates queries over real-time streaming financial data such as stoc k tickers and news feeds (A). Traderbot (B). Tradebot (C). Clickbot (D). Hyperbot Answer : (A). Traderbot 

 

3.If the stream contains n elements with m of them unique, the FM algorithm needs a memory of . (A). O((m)) (B). O(log(m+1)) (C). O(log(m+2)) (D). O(log(m)) Answer : (D). O(log(m)) 

 

4.Calculate h(3). , given S=1,3,2,1,2,3,4,3,1,2,3,1 and h(x)=(6x+1). mod 5 

(A). 19 (B). 10 (C). 15 (D). 16 Answer : (A). 19 

 

5.According to Bloom filter principle, we should consider the potential effects of: (A). true positives (B). false negatives (C). false positives (D). true negatives Answer : (C). false positives 

 

6.Who released a hash function named MurmurHash in 2008:  (A). Datar Motwani (B). Austin Appleby (C). Marrianne Durrand (D). Burton Datar Bloom Answer : (B). Austin Appleby 

 

8.The files on disks or records in databases need to be stored in Bloom filter as  (A). keys (B). values (C). key-values (D). columns Answer : (C). key-values 

 

9. If the stream contains n elements with m of them unique, the FM algorithm runs in ------------------ time (A). O(sq.rt(n)) (B). O(n+2) (C). O(n+1) (D). O(n) Answer : (D). O(n) 

 

10.Given h(x). = x + 6 mod 32 , The binary value of h(4). :  (A). 1011 (B). 1010 (C). 1110 (D). 1111 Answer : (B). 1010 

 

11.Flajolet-Martin algorithm approximates the number of unique objects in a stream or a database in how many pass es?  (A). n (B). 0 (C). 1 (D). 2 Answer : (C). 1 

 

12.What is important when the input rate of facebook data is controlled externally: (A). facebook Management (B). Query Management (C). Stream Management (D). data Management 

Answer: (B). Query Management 

 

13.Which algorithmn solution does not assume uniformity? (A). DGIM (B). FM (C). SON (D). K-MEANS Answer: (A). DGIM 

 

14. Which query operator is unable to produce an answer until it has seen its entire input:  (A). Blocking query operator (B). Discrete operator (C). continuous operator (D). Continuous operator and discrete queries 

 

15. 000101 has tail length of ------- :  (A). 1 (B). 2 (C). 3 (D). 0 Answer: (D). 0 

 

16.In FM algorithm, The probability that a given h(a). ends in at least i 0’s is  (A). 1 (B). 0 (C). 2^-i (D). i Answer : (C). 2^-i 

 

17. Probability of a false positive in Bloom Filters depends on  (A). the number of hash functions (B). the density of 1’s in the array  (C). the number of hash functions and the density of 1’s in the array (D). the density of 0’s in the array Answer : (C). the number of hash functions and the density of 1’s in the array 

 

18. It is an array of bits, together with a number of hash functions (A). Bloom filter Hash Function (C). Data Stream  (D). Binary input Answer : (A). Bloom filter 

 

19. ______________query is one that is supplied to the Dsms before any relevant data arrived (A). Continuous queries and discrete queries (B). discrete queries (C). ad-hoc (D). pre-defined Answer : (D). pre-defined 

 

20. Sorting used for query processing is an example of :  (A). Blocking query operator (B). Blocking discrete operator (C). Blocking Continuous operator 

(D). Continuous operator Answer : (A). Blocking query operator 

 

 

********** Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum ********** 

 

 

**********Module - 5 (Finding Similar Items & Clustering)********** 

 

 

1.PCY Stands for (A). Park-Chen-Yu (B). Park-Chen-You (C). Park-Check-Yu (D). Park-Check-You Answer :a.Park-Chen-Yu 

 

2. SON Algorithm Stands for (A). Shane,Omiecinski and Navathe (B). Savasere,Omiecinski and Navathe (C). Savare,Omienal and Navathe (D). Savasere,Omiecinski and Navarag Answer : (B). Savasere,Omiecinski and Navathe 

 

3. Minimum Support=?,if total Transaction =5 and minimum Support=60% (A). 30 (B). 3 (C). 300 (D). 65 Answer : (B). 3 

 

4.Minimum Support=?,if total Transaction =10 and minimum Support=60% (A). 6 (B). 0.6 (C). 10 (D). 5 Answer : (A). 6 

 

5. How do you calculate Confidence(B -> A)? (A). Support(A B). / Support (A) (B). Support(A B). / Support (B) (C). Support(A ). / Support (B) (D). Support( B). / Support (A) Answer : (B). Support(A B). / Support (B) 

 

 


 

 

**********Module - 6 (Real Time Big Data Models)********** 

 

 

1.Which of the following is true? (A). graph may contain no edges and many vertices 

(B). graph may contain many edges and atleast one vertices (C). graph may contain no edges and no vertices (D). graph may contain no vertices and many edges Answer : (B). graph may contain many edges and atleast one vertices 

 

2.Social Network is defined as (A). Collection of entities that participate in the network. (B). Collection of items in store (C). Collection of vertices & edges in a graph (D). Collection of nodes in a graph Answer : (A). Collection of entities that participate in the network. 

 

3.Which of the following is finally produced by Hierarchical Clustering? (A). final estimate of cluster centroids (B). tree showing how close things are to each other (C). Assignment of each point to clusters (D). Assignment of each edges of clusters Answer : (B). tree showing how close things are to each other 

 

4. Which of the following clustering requires merging approach? (A). Partitional (B). Hierarchical (C). Naive Bayes (D). K-means Answer : (B). Hierarchical 

 

 

5.Which of the following function is used for k-means clustering? (A). K-means (B). Euclidean Distance (C). Heatmap (D). Correlation Similarity Answer: (A). K-means 

 

6.___________ was the pioneer in the field of web search with the use of PageRank for ranking Web pages with res pect to a user query. (A). Yahoo (B). YouTube (C). Facebook (D). Google  Answer : (D). Google  

 

7.Which of the following algorithm is used by Google to determine the importance of a particular page? (A). SVD (B). PageRank (C). FastMap (D). All of the above Answer : (B). PageRank 

 

8.One of the popular techniques of Spamdexing is ___________ (A). Clocking (B). Cooking (C). Cloaking (D). Crocking 

Answer: (C). Cloaking 

 

9.Doorway pages are_________ Web pages. (A). High quality (B). Low quality (C). Informative (D). High content Answer : (B). Low quality 

 

10.PageRank helps in measuring ________________ of a Web page within a set of similar entries. (A). Relative importance (B). Size (C). Cost (D). All of the above Answer : (A). Relative importance 

 

11.PageRank helps in measuring ________________ of a Web page within a set of similar entries. (A). Relative importance (B). Size (C). Cost (D). All of the above Answer : (A). Relative importance 

 

12.Web pages with Dead ends means__________ (A). Pages with no outlinks (B). Pages with no PageRank (C). Pages with no contents (D). Pages with spam Answer : (A). Pages with no outlinks 

 

13.Topic Sensitive PageRank (TSPR). is proposed by_________ in 2003. (A). Al-Saffar (B). Bratislav V. Stojanović (C). Jianshu WENG (D). Taher H. Haveliwala  Answer : (D). Taher H. Haveliwala  

 

14.Full form of HITS is _____________ (A). High Influential Topic Search (B). High Informative Topic Search (C). Hyperlink-induced topic Search (D). None of the above Answer : (C). Hyperlink-induced topic Search 

 

15.HITS algorithm and the PageRank algorithm both make use of the _________to decide the relevance of the page s. (A). Link structure of the Web graph (B). Design of the Web graph (C). Content of the web pages (D). All of the above Answer : (A). Link structure of the Web graph 

 

16.When the objective is to mine social network for patterns, a natural way to represent a social network is by a____ _______ 

(A). Tree (B). Graph (C). Arrays (D). Lists Answer : (B). Graph 

 

17.A social network can be considered as a___________ (A). Heterogeneous and multi relational dataset (B). LiveJournal (C). Twitter (D). DBLP Answer : (A). Heterogeneous and multi relational dataset 

 

18.For an edge ‘e’ in a graph, ___________of ‘e’ is defined as the number of shortest paths between all node pairs ( vi vj). in the graph such that the shortest path passes through ‘e’. (A). Edge path (B). Edge measure  (C). Edge closeness (D). Edge betweenness Answer : (D). Edge betweenness 

 

19.“You may also like these…”, “People who liked this also liked….”, this type of suggestions are from the_______ _______ (A). Filtering System (B). Collaborative System (C). Recommendation System (D). Amazon System Answer: (C). Recommendation System 

 

20.An approach to a Recommendation system is to treat this as the _______________ problem using items profiles and utility matrices. (A). MapReduce (B). Social Network (C). Machine learning (D). Unstructured  Answer : (C). Machine learning 

***************Data Analytics MCQs Set - 1*************** 

 

1. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods 

is classified as 

 

1. industry statistics 

2. economic statistics 

3. applied statistics 

4. applied statistics 

 

Answer: applied statistics 

 

2. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? 

 

1. answering yes/no questions about the data 

2. estimating numerical characteristics of the data 

3. modeling relationships within the data 

4. describing associations within the data 

 

Answer: modeling relationships within the data 

 

3. Text Analytics, also referred to as Text Mining? 

 

1. True Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. False 

3. Can be true or False 

4. Can not say 

 

Answer: True 

 

4. What is a hypothesis? 

 

1. A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study. 

2. A research question the results will answer. 

3. A theory that underpins the study. 

4. A statistical method for calculating the extent to which the results could have happened by 

chance. 

 

Answer: A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study. 

 

5. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analysing data during a single research 

study called? 

 

1. Interim Analysis 

2. Inter analysis 

3. inter item analysis 

4. constant analysis 

 

Answer: Interim Analysis 

 

6. The process of quantifying data is referred to as ____ Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

1. Topology 

2. Digramming 

3. Enumeration 

4. coding 

 

Answer: Enumeration 

 

7. An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they _ 

 

1. Can reduce time required to analyse data (i.e., after the data are transcribed) 

2. Help in storing and organising data 

3. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time constraints 

4. All of the above 

 

Answer: All of the Above 

 

8. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: True 

 

9. ______ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data. 

 

1. Categories Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. Units 

3. Individuals 

4. None of the above 

 

Answer: Categories 

 

10. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written interviews or field notes into typed text. 

 

1. Segmenting 

2. Coding 

3. Transcription 

4. Mnemoning 

 

Answer: Transcription 

 

11. A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that are unwieldy and complex; it is a major challenge to make sense of the large pool of data. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: True 

 

12. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics. 

 

1. True 

2. False Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: False 

 

13. A set of data organised in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns) format is known as a “data set.” 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: True 

 

14. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ___ 

 

1. Line graph 

2. Bar graph 

3. Scatterplot 

4. Vertical graph 

 

Answer: Bar graph 

 

15. ____ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two 

quantitative variables. 

 

1. Bar graph 

2. pie graph 

3. line graph 

4. Scatterplot Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: Scatterplot 

 

16. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is 

 

1. The standard deviation 

2. The difference between a score and the mean 

3. The range 

4. The mean 

 

Answer: The standard deviation 

 

17. Which of these distributions is used for a testing hypothesis? 

 

1. Normal Distribution 

2. Chi-Squared Distribution 

3. Gamma Distribution 

4. Poisson Distribution 

 

Answer: Chi-Squared Distribution 

 

18. A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called? 

 

1. Statistic 

2. Hypothesis 

3. Level of Significance 

4. Test-Statistic Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: Hypothesis 

 

19. If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is called? 

 

1. Null Hypothesis 

2. Statistical Hypothesis 

3. Simple Hypothesis 

4. Composite Hypothesis 

 

Answer: Null Hypothesis 

 

20. If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted? 

 

1. Null Hypothesis 

2. Positive Hypothesis 

3. Negative Hypothesis 

4. Alternative Hypothesis. 

 

Answer: Alternative Hypothesis. 

 

21. Alternative Hypothesis is also called as? 

 

1. Composite hypothesis 

2. Research Hypothesis 

3. Simple Hypothesis 

4. Null Hypothesis Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: Research Hypothesis 

 

 

******** Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum ******** 

 

*************** Data Analytics MCQs Set – 2 *************** 

 

 

1. What is the minimum no. of variables/ features required to perform clustering? 

 

1.0 

2.1 

3.2 

4.3 

 

Answer: 1 

 

2. For two runs of K-Mean clustering is it expected to get same clustering results? 

 

1. Yes 

2. No 

 

Answer: No 

 

3. Which of the following algorithm is most sensitive to outliers? Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

1. K-means clustering algorithm 

2. K-medians clustering algorithm 

3. K-modes clustering algorithm 

4. K-medoids clustering algorithm 

 

Answer: K-means clustering algorithm 

 

4. The discrete variables and continuous variables are two types of 

 

1. Open end classification 

2. Time series classification 

3. Qualitative classification 

4. Quantitative classification 

 

Answer: Quantitative classification 

 

5. Bayesian classifiers is 

 

1. A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory. 

2. Any mechanism employed by a learning system to constrain the search space of a hypothesis 

3. An approach to the design of learning algorithms that is inspired by the fact that when people encounter new situations, they often explain them by reference to familiar experiences, adapting the explanations to fit the new situation. 

4. None of these 

 Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

Answer: A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory. 

 

6. Classification accuracy is 

 

1. A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes 

2. Measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory 

3. The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples 

4. None of these 

 

 

Answer: Measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory 

 

7. Euclidean distance measure is 

 

1. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection. 

2. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some pre-defined order and then testing them 

3. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem 

4. none of above 

 

Answer: The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem 

 

8. Hybrid is 

 

1. Combining different types of method or information Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. Approach to the design of learning algorithms that is structured along the lines of the theory of evolution. 

3. Decision support systems that contain an information base filled with the knowledge of an expert formulated in terms of if-then rules. 

4. none of above 

 

Answer: Combining different types of method or information 

 

9. Decision trees use , in that they always choose the option that seems the best available at that moment. 

 

1. Greedy Algorithms 

2. divide and conquer 

3. Backtracking 

4. Shortest path algorithm 

 

Answer: Greedy Algorithms 

 

10. Discovery is 

 

1. It is hidden within a database and can only be recovered if one is given certain clues (an example IS encrypted information). 

2. The process of executing implicit previously unknown and potentially useful information from data 

3. An extremely complex molecule that occurs in human chromosomes and that carries genetic 

information in the form of genes. 

4. None of these 

 Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

Answer: The process of executing implicit previously unknown and potentially useful information from data 

 

11. Hidden knowledge referred to 

 

1. A set of databases from different vendors, possibly using different database paradigms 

2. An approach to a problem that is not guaranteed to work but performs well in most cases 

3. Information that is hidden in a database and that cannot be recovered by a simple SQL query. 

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Information that is hidden in a database and that cannot be recovered by a simple SQL query. 

 

12. Decision trees cannot handle categorical attributes with many distinct values, such as country codes for telephone numbers. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: False 

 

15. CNMICHMENT IS 

 

1. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection 

2. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some pre-defined order and then testing them 

3. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem. 

4. None of these Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection 

 

14. are easy to implement and can execute efficiently even without prior knowledge of the data, they are among the most popular algorithms for classifying text documents. 

 

1. 1D3 

2. Naive Bayes classifiers 

3. CART 

4. None of above 

 

Answer: Naive Bayes classifiers 

 

15. High entropy means that the partitions in classification are 

 

1. Pure 

2. Not Pure 

3. Usefull 

4. useless 

 

Answer: Uses a single processor or computer 

 

16. Which of the following statements about Naive Bayes is incorrect? 

 

1. Attributes are equally important. 

2. Attributes are statistically dependent of one another given the class value. 

3. Attributes are statistically independent of one another given the class value. Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

4. Attributes can be nominal or numeric 

 

Answer: Attributes are statistically dependent of one another given the class value. 

 

17. The maximum value for entropy depends on the number of classes so if we have 8 Classes what will be the max entropy. 

 

1. Max Entropy is 1 

2. Max Entropy is 2 

3. Max Entropy is 3 

4. Max Entropy is 4 

 

Answer: Max Entropy is 3 

 

18. Point out the wrong statement. 

 

1. k-nearest neighbor is same as k-means 

2. k-means clustering is a method of vector quantization 

3. k-means clustering aims to partition n observations into k clusters 

4. none of the mentioned 

 

Answer: k-nearest neighbor is same as k-means 

 

19. Consider the following example “How we can divide set of articles such that those articles have the same theme (we do not know the theme of the articles ahead of time) ” is this: 

 

1. Clustering 

2. Classification Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

3. Regression 

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Clustering 

 

20. Can we use K Mean Clustering to identify the objects in video? 

 

1. Yes 

2. No 

 

Answer: Yes 

 

21. Clustering techniques are in the sense that the data scientist does not determine, in advance, the labels to apply to the clusters. 

 

1. Unsupervised 

2. supervised 

3. Reinforcement 

4, Neural network 

 

Answer: Unsupervised 

 

22. metric is examined to determine a reasonably optimal value of k. 

 

1. Mean Square Error 

2. Within Sum of Squares (WSS) 

3. Speed Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Within Sum of Squares (WSS) 

 

23. If an itemset is considered frequent, then any subset of the frequent itemset must also be frequent. 

 

1. Apriori Property 

2. Downward Closure Property 

3. Either 1 or 2 

4. Both 1 and 2 

 

Answer: Both 1 and 2Z 

 

24. if {bread,eggs,milk} has a support of 0.15 and {bread,eggs} also has a support of 0.15, the confidence of rule {bread,eggs} = {milk} is 

 

1.0 

2.1 

3.2 

4.3 

 

Answer: 1 

 

25. Confidence is a measure of how X and Y are really related rather than coincidentally happeningtogether. 

 

1. True Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. False 

 

Answer: False 

 

26. recommend items based on similarity measures between users and/or items. 

 

1. Content Based Systems 

2. Hybrid System 

3. Collaborative Filtering Systems 

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Collaborative Filtering Systems 

 

27. There are major Classification of Collaborative Filtering Mechanisms 

 

1.1 

2.2 

3.3 

4. none of above 

 

Answer: 2 

 

28. Movie Recommendation to people is an example of 

 

1. User Based Recommendation 

2. Item Based Recommendation 

3. Knowledge Based Recommendation Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

4. content based recommendation 

 

Answer: Item Based Recommendation 

 

29. recommenders rely on an explicitely defined set of recommendation rules 

 

1. Constraint Based 

2. Case Based 

3. Content Based 

4. User Based 

 

Answer: Case Based 

 

30. Parallelized hybrid recommender systems operate dependently of one another and produce separate recommendation lists. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: False

Data Analytics 

     Unit 1:  

 

1. Data Analysis is a process of? 

 

A. inspecting data B. cleaning data C. transforming data D. All of the above 

 

 

2. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 

 

A. Data Mining B. Predictive Intelligence C. Business Intelligence D. Text Analytics 

 

 

3. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis? 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 

 

 

4. In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with ? 

 

A. integer descriptors B. floating descriptors C. numerical descriptors D. decimal descriptors View Answer 

 

 

5. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 

 

A. William S. B. Hans Peter Luhn C. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro D. John Tukey 

 

 

6. Which of the following is true about hypothesis testing? 

 

A. answering yes/no questions about the data B. estimating numerical characteristics of the data C. describing associations within the data D. modeling relationships within the data 

 

 

7. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say 

 

 

8. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as 

 

A. industry statistics B. economic statistics C. applied statistics D. applied statistics 


 

 

9. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? 

 

A. answering yes/no questions about the data B. estimating numerical characteristics of the data C. modeling relationships within the data D. describing associations within the data 

 

 

10. Text Analytics, also referred to as Text Mining? 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say 

 

 

11. In an Internet context, this is the practice of tailoring Web pages to individual users’ characteristics or preferences. 1. Web services 2. customer-facing 3. client/server 4. personalization 

 

12. This is the processing of data about customers and their relationship with the enterprise in order to improve the enterprise’s future sales and service and lower cost. 1. clickstream analysis 2. database marketing 3. customer relationship management 4. CRM analytics 

 

 

13. This is a broad category of applications and technologies for gathering, storing, analyzing, and providing access to data to help enterprise users make better business decisions. 1. best practice 2. data mart 

3. business information warehouse 4. business intelligence 

 

 

14. This is a systematic approach to the gathering, consolidation, and processing of consumer data (both for customers and potential customers) that is maintained in a company’s databases 1. database marketing 2. marketing encyclopedia 3. application integration 4. service oriented integration 

 

 

15. This is an arrangement in which a company outsources some or all of its customer relationship management functions to an application service provider (ASP). 1. spend management 2. supplier relationship management 3. hosted CRM 4. Customer Information Control System 

 

16. What are the five V’s of Big Data? 1. Volume 2. velocity 3. Variety 4. All of the above 

 

17. ____ hides the limitations of Java behind a powerful and concise Clojure API for Cascading.” 1. Scalding 2. Cascalog 3. Hcatalog 4. Hcalding 

 

 

18. What are the main components of Big Data? 1. MapReduce 2. HDFS 3. YARN 

4. All of these 

 

19. What are the different features of Big Data Analytics? 1. Open-Source 2. Scalability 3. Data Recovery 4. All the above 

 

 

20. Define the Port Numbers for NameNode, Task Tracker and Job Tracker 1. NameNode 2. Task Tracker 3. Job Tracker 4. All of the above 

 

21. Facebook Tackles Big Data With ____ based on Hadoop 1. Project Prism 2. Prism 3. ProjectData 4. ProjectBid 

 

22. Which of the following is not a phase of Data Analytics Life Cycle? 1. Communication 2. Recall 3. Data Preparation 4. Model Planning 

 

 UNIT 2: DATA ANALYSIS 

 

 

1. In regression, the equation that describes how the response variable (y) is related to the explanatory variable (x) is:  a. the correlation model  b. the regression model  c. used to compute the correlation coefficient  d. None of these alternatives is correct. 

      2.    The relationship between number of beers consumed (x) and blood alcohol content (y) was               s tu died in 16 male college students by using least squares regression. The following regression equation was obtained from this study: != -0.0127 + 0.0180x The above equation implies that:  

                a. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by 1.27%  

                b. on average it takes 1.8 beers to increase blood alcohol content by 1% 

 c. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by an average of amount of 1.8%  

d. each beer consumed increases blood alcohol by exactly 0.018 

  

3      . SSE can never be 

 a. larger than SST  

b. smaller than SST 

 c. equal to 1  

d. equal to zero  

 

4. Regression modeling is a statistical framework for developing a mathematical equation that describes how  

a. one explanatory and one or more response variables are related 

 b. several explanatory and several response variables response are related 

 c. one response and one or more explanatory variables are related 

 d. All of these are correct. 

5. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is the 

 a. response, or dependent, variable 

 b. independent variable 

 c. intervening variable 

 d. is usually x 

 

 6  Regression analysis was applied to return rates of sparrowhawk colonies. Regression analysis was used to study the relationship between return rate (x: % of birds that return to the colony in a given year) and immigration rate (y: % of new adults that join the colony per year). The following regression equation 

was obtained. ! = 31.9 – 0.34x Based on the above estimated regression equation, if the return rate were to decrease by 10% the rate of immigration to the colony would: 

 a. increase by 34%  

b. increase by 3.4% 

 c. decrease by 0.34% 

 d. decrease by 3.4%  

 

7. In least squares regression, which of the following is not a required assumption about the error term ε? 

 a. The expected value of the error term is one.  

b. The variance of the error term is the same for all values of x. 

 c. The values of the error term are independent. 

 d. The error term is normally distributed. 

 

 8. Larger values of r 2 (R2 ) imply that the observations are more closely grouped about the  

a. average value of the independent variables 

 b. average value of the dependent variable 

 c. least squares line  

d. origin  

 

9. In a regression analysis if r 2 = 1, then 

 a. SSE must also be equal to one  

b. SSE must be equal to zero  

c. SSE can be any positive value  

d. SSE must be negative 


 

 

10.Which type of multivariate analysis should be used when a researcher wants to reduce a Set of variables to a smaller set of composite variables by identifying underlying dimensions of the data?  

A)Conjoint analysis 

 B)Cluster analysis 

 C)Multiple regression analysis 

 D)Factor analysis  

 

11. Which type of multivariate analysis should be used when a researcher wants to estimate The utility that consumers associate with different product features?  

A)Conjoint analysis 

 B)Cluster analysis\                                                    A 

 C)Multiple regression analysis  

D)Factor analysis  

 

12. Which type of multivariate analysis should be used when a researcher wants to identify Subgroups of individuals that are homogeneous within subgroups and different from other subgroups? 

 A)Conjoint analysis 

 B)Cluster analysis                                                                    

 C)Multiple regression analysis  

D)Factor analysis  

 

13. Which type of multivariate analysis should be used when a researcher wants predict Group membership on the basis of two or more independent variables? 

 A)Conjoint analysis 

 B)Cluster analysis 

 C)Multiple regression analysis 

 D)Multiple discriminant analysis                                                                 

 

14. Support vector machine (SVM) is a _________ classifier? Discriminative 

Generative 

15. SVM can be used to solve ___________ problems. Classification 

Regression 

Clustering 

Both Classification and Regression 

16. SVM is a ___________ learning algorithm Supervised 

Unsupervised 

17. SVM is termed as ________ classifier Minimum margin 

Maximum margin 

 18. The training examples closest to the separating hyperplane are called as _______ Training vectors 

Test vectors 

 

19. A factor analysis is…, while a principal components analysis is… 

    A broad term, the most commonly used technique for doing factor analysis. 

    B  The most commonly used technique for doing factor analysis, a broad term. 

     C  Both of the above. 

D NONE OF THE ABOVE 

 

20. Dimension Reduction is defined as- 

• A It is a process of converting a data set having vast dimensions into a data set with lesser dimensions. • B It ensures that the converted data set conveys similar information concisely. C  ALL OF ABOVE  

D   NONE OF THE ABOVE 

 

21.. What is the form of Fuzzy logic? a) Two-valued logic b) Crisp set logic c) Many-valued logic d) Binary set logic 

 

22. Traditional set theory is also known as Crisp Set theory. a) True b) False 

 

23. The truth values of traditional set theory is ____________ and that of fuzzy set is __________ a) Either 0 or 1, between 0 & 1 b) Between 0 & 1, either 0 or 1 c) Between 0 & 1, between 0 & 1 d) Either 0 or 1, either 0 or 1 

 

24. Fuzzy logic is extension of Crisp set with an extension of handling the concept of Partial Truth. a) True b) False 

 

25. The room temperature is hot. Here the hot (use of linguistic variable is used) can be represented by _______ a) Fuzzy Set b) Crisp Set c) Fuzzy & Crisp Set 

d) None of the mentioned 

 

26. The values of the set membership is represented by ___________ a) Discrete Set b) Degree of truth c) Probabilities d) Both Degree of truth & Probabilities 

 

27. Japanese were the first to utilize fuzzy logic practically on high-speed trains in Sendai. a) True b) False 

 

28. Fuzzy Set theory defines fuzzy operators. Choose the fuzzy operators from the following. a) AND b) OR c) NOT d) All of the mentioned 

 

29. There are also other operators, more linguistic in nature, called __________ that can be applied to fuzzy set theory. a) Hedges b) Lingual Variable c) Fuzz Variable d) None of the mentioned 

 

30. Fuzzy logic is usually represented as ___________ a) IF-THEN-ELSE rules b) IF-THEN rules c) Both IF-THEN-ELSE rules & IF-THEN rules d) None of the mentioned 

 

31. Like relational databases there does exists fuzzy relational databases. a) True b) False 

 

32. ______________ is/are the way/s to represent uncertainty. a) Fuzzy Logic b) Probability c) Entropy d) All of the mentioned 

 

33. ____________ are algorithms that learn from their more complex environments (hence eco) to generalize, approximate and simplify solution logic. a) Fuzzy Relational DB b) Ecorithms c) Fuzzy Set d) None of the mentioned 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Unit 3: 

 

1 : What do you mean by sampling of stream data? 

1. Sampling reduces the amount of data fed to a subsequent data mining algorithm. 2. Sampling reduces the diversity of the data stream 3. Sampling aims to keep statistical properties of the data intact. 4. Sampling algorithms often doesn't need multiple passes over the data 

  

 

Question 2 : if Distance measure d(x, y)= d(y, x) then it is called 

1. Symmetric 2. identical 3. positiveness 4. triangle inequality 

 

Question 3 : NOSQL is 

1. Not only SQL 2. Not SQL 3. Not Over SQL 4. No SQL 

  

 

Question 4 : Find the L1 and L2 distances between the points (5, 6, 7) and (8, 2, 4). 

1. L1 =10 , L2 = 5.83 2. L1 =10 , L2 = 5 3. L1 =11 , L2 = 4.9 

4. L1 =9 , L2 = 5.83 

   

 

Question 5 : The time between elements of one stream 

1. need not be uniform 2. need to be uniform 3. must be 1ms. 4. must be 1ns 

      

 

Question 6 : A Reduce task receives 

1. one or more keys and their associated value list 2. key value pair 3. list of keys and their associated values 4. list of key value pairs 

 

Question 7 : Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? 

1. Stream data is always unstructured data. 2. Stream data often has a high velocity. 3. Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. 4. Stream data is always structured data. 

       

 

Question 8 : Hadoop is the solution for: 

1. Database software 2. Big Data Software 3. Data Mining software 4. Distribution software 

    

 

Question 9 : ETL stands for ________________ 

1. Extraction transformation and loading 2. Extract Taken Lend 3. Enterprise Transfer Load 4. Entertainment Transference Load 

 

Question 10 : “Sharding” a database across many server instances can be achieved with _______________ 

1. MAN 2. LAN 3. WAN 4. SAN 

 

Question 11 : Neo4j is an example of which of the following NoSQL architectural pattern? 

1. Key-value store 2. Graph Store 3. Document Store 4. Column-based Store 

 

Question 12 : CSV and JSON can be described as 

1. Structured data 2. Unstructured data 3. Semi-structured data 4. Multi-structured data 

      

 

Question 13 : The hardware term used to describe Hadoop hardware requirements is 

1. Commodity firmware 

2. Commodity software 3. Commodity hardware 4. Cluster hardware 

 

Question 14 : Which of the following is not a Hadoop Distributions? 

1. MAPR 2. Cloudera 3. Hortonworks 4. RMAP 

 

Question 15 : Which of the following Operation can be implemented with Combiners? 

1. Selection 2. Projection 3. Natural Join 4. Union 

 

Question 16 : ________ stores are used to store information about networks, such as social connections. 

1. Key-value 2. Wide-column 3. Document 4. graph 

     

 

Question 17 : The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last k bits of a stream window N. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? 

1. The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. 2. The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error 

3. To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. 4. Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. 

 

Question 18 : If size of file is 4 GB and block size is 64 MB then number of mappers required for MapReduce task is 

1. 8 2. 16 3. 32 4. 64 

 

Question 19 : Which of the following is not the default daemon of Hadoop? 

1. Namenode 2. Datanode 3. Job Tracker 4. Job history server 

 

Question 20 : In Bloom filter an array of n bits is initialized with 

1. all 0s 2. all 1s 3. half 0s and half 1s 4. all -1 

  

 

Question 21 : _____________is a batch-based, distributed computing framework modeled after Google’s paper. 

1. MapCompute 2. MapReuse 3. MapCluster 

4. MapReduce 

       

 

Question 22 : What is the edit distance between A=father and B=feather ? 

1. 5 2. 1 3. 4 4. 2 

 

Question 23 : Sliding window operations typically fall in the category 

1. OLTP Transactions 2. Big Data Batch Processing 3. Big Data Real Time Processing 4. Small Batch Processing 

 

Question 24 : _________ systems focus on the relationship between users and items for recommendation. 

1. DGIM 2. Collaborative-Filtering 3. Content Based and Collaborative Filtering 4. Content Based 

     

 

Question 25 : Find Hamming Distance for vectors A=100101011 B=100010010 

1. 2 2. 4 3. 3 4. 1 

 

Question 26 : During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. 

1. Datanode 2. Namenode 3. Secondary Namenode 4. Rack awereness policy 

 

Question 27 : What is the finally produced by Hierarchical Agglomerative Clustering? 

1. final estimate of cluster centroids 2. assignment of each point to clusters 3. tree showing how close things are to each other 4. Group of clusters 

 

Question 28 : The Jaccard similarity of two non-binary sets A and B, is defined by__________ 

1. Jaccard Index 2. Primary Index 3. Secondary Index 4. Clustered Index 

  

 

Question 29 : Following is based on grid like street geography of the New York: 

1. Manhattan Distance 2. Edit Distance 3. Hamming distance 4. Lp distance 

    

 

Question 30 : The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: 

1. Estimate the number of distinct elements. 2. Sample data with a time-sensitive window. 3. Estimate the frequent elements. 4. Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. 

 

 31 : Pick a hash function h that maps each of the N elements to at least log2 N bits, Estimated number of distinct elements is 

1. 2^R 2. 2^(-R) 3. 1-(2^R) 4. 1-(2^(-R)) 

    

 

Question 32 : which of the following is not the characterstic of stream data? 

1. Continuous 2. ordered 3. persistant 4. huge 

 

Question 33 : Which of the following is a column-oriented database that runs on top of HDFS 

1. Hive 2. Sqoop 3. Hbase 4. Flume 

     

 

Question 34 : Which of the following decides the number of partitions that are created on the local file system of the worker nodes? 

1. Number of map tasks 2. Number of reduce tasks 3. Number of file input splits 4. Number of distinct keys in the intermediate key-value pairs 

    

 

Question 35 : Which of the following is not the class of points in BFR algorithm 

1. Discard Set (DS) 2. Compression Set (CS) 3. Isolation Set (IS) 4. Retained Set (RS) 

 

Question 36 : Which of the following is not true for 5v? 

1. Volume 2. variable 3. Velocity 4. value 

 

Question 37 : Which algorithm isused to find fully connected subgraph in soial media mining? 

1. CURE 2. CPM 3. SimRank 4. Girvan-Newman Algorithm 

 

Question 38 : A ________________ query Q is a query that is issued once over a database D, and then logically runs continuously over the data in D until Q is terminated. 

1. One-time Query 2. Standing Query 3. Adhoc Query 

4. General Query 

 

Question 39 : Effect of Spider trap on page rank 

1. perticular page get the highest page rank 2. All the pages of web will get 0 page rank 3. no effect on any page 4. affects a perticular set of pages 

 

Question 40 : Which of the following is correct option for MongoDB 

1. MongoDB is column oriented data store 2. MongoDB uses XML more in comparison with JSON 3. MongoDB is a document store database 4. MongoDB is a key-value data store 

 

Question 41 : _________ systems focus on the relationship between users and items for recommendation. 

1. DGIM 2. Collaborative-Filtering 3. Content Based and Collaborative Filtering 4. Content Based 

   

 

Question 42 : The graphical representation of an SNA is made up of links and _____________. 

1. People 2. Networks 3. Nodes 4. Computers 

 

Question 43 : Hadoop is a framework that works with a variety of related tools. Common hadoop ecosystem include ____________ 

1. MapReduce, Hummer and Iguana 2. MapReduce, Hive and HBase 3. MapReduce, MySQL and Google Apps 4. MapReduce, Heron and Trumpet 

 

Question 44 : About data streaming, Which of the following statements is true? 

1. Stream data is always unstructured data. 2. Stream data often has a high velocity. 3. Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. 4. Stream data is always structured data. 

 

Question 45 : Which of the following is a NoSQL Database Type ? 

1. SQL 2. JSON 3. Document databases 4. CSV 

      

 

Question 46 : Techniques for fooling search engines into believing your page is about something it is not, are called _____________. 

1. term spam 2. page rank 3. phishing 4. dead ends 

     

 

Question 47 : The police set up checkpoints at randomly selected road locations, then inspected every driver at those locations. What type of sample is this? 

1. Simple Random Sample 2. Startified Random Sample 3. Cluster Random Sample 4. Uniform sampling 

 

Question 48 : Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? 

1. It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. 2. A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. 3. It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more space. 4. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element. 

  

 

Question 49 : Which of the following is responsible for managing the cluster resources and use them for scheduling users’ applications? 

1. Hadoop Common 2. YARN 3. HDFS 4. MapReduce 

   

 

Question 50 : ___________is related with an inconsistency possessed by data and this in turn hampers the data analization process or creates hurdle in the way for those wish to analyze this form of data. 

1. Variability 2. Variety 3. Volume 4. Complexity 

 

 


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Unit 4: 

 

Question 1 This  clustering algorithm terminates when mean values computed for the current iteration of the algorithm are identical to the computed mean values for the previous iteration Select one:  

a. K-Means clustering 

 b. conceptual clustering 

 c. expectation maximization  

d. agglomerative clustering Show Answer  

 

Question 2 This clustering approach initially assumes that each data instance represents a single cluster. Select one: 

 a. expectation maximization  

b. K-Means clustering 

 c. agglomerative clustering 

 d. conceptual clustering Show Answer  

 

Question 3 The correlation coefficient for two real-valued attributes is – 0.85. What does this value tell you? Select one: 

 a. The attributes are not linearly related. 

 b. As the value of one attribute decreases the value of the second attribute increases.  

c. As the value of one attribute increases the value of the second attribute also increases. 

 d. The attributes show a linear relationship Show Answer  

 

Question 4 Time Complexity of k-means is given by Select one:  

a. O(mn)  

b. O(tkn) 

 c. O(kn)  

d. O(t2kn) Show Answer 

 

 Question 5 Given a rule of the form IF X THEN Y, rule confidence is defined as the conditional probability that Select one: 

 a. Y is false when X is known to be false. 

 b. Y is true when X is known to be true. 

 c. X is true when Y is known to be true 

 d. X is false when Y is known to be false.  

 

 Question 6 Chameleon is Select one: 

 a. Density based clustering algorithm  

b. Partitioning based algorithm  

c. Model based algorithm  

d. Hierarchical clustering algorithm  

 

 Question 7 In _________ clusterings, points may belong to multiple clusters Select one:  

a. Non exclusivce 

 b. Partial 

 c. Fuzzy  

d. Exclusive Show Answer  

 

Question 8 Find odd man out Select one: 

 a. DBSCAN  

b. K mean  

c. PAM  

d. K medoid  

Question 9 Which statement is true about the K-Means algorithm? Select one: 

 a. The output attribute must be cateogrical. 

 b. All attribute values must be categorical. 

 c. All attributes must be numeric 

 d. Attribute values may be either categorical or numeric  

 

 Question 10 This data transformation technique works well when minimum and maximum values for a real-valued attribute are known. Select one: 

 a. z-score normalization  

b. min-max normalization 

 c. logarithmic normalization 

 d. decimal scaling  

 

 Question 11 The number of iterations in apriori ___________ Select one: 

 a. increases with the size of the data 

 b. decreases with the increase in size of the data 

 c. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set  

d. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set Show Answer 

 

 Question 12 Which of the following are interestingness measures for association rules? Select one: 

 a. recall  

b. lift  

c. accuracy 

 d. compactness Show Answer 

 

 Question 13 Which one of the following is not a major strength of the neural network approach? Select one 

: a. Neural network learning algorithms are guaranteed to converge to an optimal solution 

 b. Neural networks work well with datasets containing noisy data.  

c. Neural networks can be used for both supervised learning and unsupervised clustering 

 d. Neural networks can be used for applications that require a time element to be included in the data Show Answer 

 

 Question 14 Find odd man out Select one:  

a. K medoid 

 b. K mean  

c. DBSCAN  

d. PAM  

 

Question 15 Given a frequent itemset L, If |L| = k, then there are Select one:  

a. 2k   – 1 candidate association rules  

b. 2k   candidate association rules  

c. 2k   – 2 candidate association rules 

 d. 2k -2 candidate association rules Show Answer  

 

Question 16 . _________ is an example for case based-learning Select one: 

 a. Decision trees  

b. Neural networks 

 c. Genetic algorithm 

 d. K-nearest neighbor Show Answer 


 

 Question 17 The average positive difference between computed and desired outcome values. Select one:  

a. mean positive error 

 b. mean squared error 

 c. mean absolute error 

 d. root mean squared error Show Answer 

 Question 18 Frequent item sets is Select one: 

 a. Superset of only closed frequent item sets 

 b. Superset of only maximal frequent item sets 

 c. Subset of maximal frequent item sets 

 d. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets Show Answer 

 

 Question 19 1. Assume that we have a dataset containing information about 200 individuals.  A supervised data mining session has discovered the following rule: IF  age < 30 & credit card insurance = yes   THEN life insurance = yes Rule Accuracy:    70%   and  Rule Coverage:   63% How many individuals in the class life insurance= no have credit card insurance and are less than 30 years old? Select one: 

 a. 63 

 b. 30  

c. 38  

d. 70 Show Answer 

 

 Question 20 Use the three-class confusion matrix below to answer percent of the instances were correctly classified? Computed Decision Class 1 Class 2 Class 3 Class 1 10 5 3 Class 2 5 15 3 Class 3 2 2 5 Select one: 

 a. 60  

b. 40 

 c. 50 

 d. 30 Show Answer  

 

Question 21 Which of the following is cluster analysis? Select one: 

 a. Simple segmentation 

 b. Grouping similar objects  

c. Labeled classification  

d. Query results grouping Show Answer 

 

 Question 22 A good clustering method will produce high quality clusters with Select one: 

 a. high inter class similarity 

 b. low intra class similarity  

c. high intra class similarity 

 d. no inter class similarity Show Answer  

 

Question 23 Which two parameters are needed for DBSCAN Select one:  

a. Min threshold 

 b. Min points and eps 

 c. Min sup and min confidence 

 d. Number of centroids Show Answer 

 Question 24 Which statement is true about neural network and linear regression models? Select one:  

a. Both techniques build models whose output  is determined by a  linear sum of weighted input attribute values.  

b. The output of both models is a categorical attribute value.  

c. Both models require numeric attributes to range between 0 and 1. 

 d. Both models require input attributes to be numeric. Show Answer 

 

 Question 25 In Apriori algorithm, if 1 item-sets are 100, then the number of candidate 2 item-sets are Select one:  

a. 100 

 b. 4950 

 c. 200 

 d. 5000  

Show Answer  

 

Question 26 Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is Select one: 

 a. Finding frequent itemsets  

b. Pruning  

c. Candidate generation  

d. Number of iterations Show Answer  

 

Question 27 The concept of core, border and noise points fall into this category? Select one: 

 a. DENCLUE  

b. Subspace clustering 

 c. Grid based  

d. DBSCAN Show Answer  

 

Question 28 The correlation coefficient for two real-valued attributes is –0.85. What does this value tell you? Select one: 

 a. The attributes show a linear relationship  

b. The attributes are not linearly related. 

 c. As the value of one attribute increases the value of the second attribute also increases.  

d. As the value of one attribute decreases the value of the second attribute increases. Show Answer  

 

Question 29 Machine learning techniques differ from statistical techniques in that machine learning methods Select one: 

 a. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data 

 b. typically assume an underlying distribution for the data 

 c. have trouble with large-sized datasets 

 d. are not able to explain their behavior. Show Answer  

 

Question 30 The probability of a hypothesis before the presentation of evidence. Select one:  

a. a priori 

 b. posterior  

c. conditional  

d. subjective Show Answer 

 Question 31 KDD represents extraction of Select one:  

a. data  

b. knowledge 

 c. rules 

 d. model Show Answer 

 

 Question 32 Which statement about outliers is true? Select one 

: a. Outliers should be part of the training dataset but should not be present in the test data. 

 b. Outliers should be identified and removed from a dataset 

. c. The nature of the problem determines how outliers are used 

 d. Outliers should be part of the test dataset but should not be present in the training data. Show Answer  

 

Question 33 The most general form of distance is Select one:  

a. Manhattan  

b. Eucledian  

c. Mean 

 d. Minkowski Show Answer 

 

 Question 34 Arbitrary shaped clusters can be found by using Select one:  

a. Density methods 

 b. Partitional methods  

c. Hierarchical methods 

 d. Agglomerative Show Answer 

 

 Question 35 Which Association Rule would you prefer Select one 

: a. High support and medium confidence  

b. High support and low confidence  

c. Low support and high confidence  

d. Low support and low confidence Show Answer  

 

Question 36 With Bayes theorem the probability of hypothesis H¾ specified by P(H) ¾ is referred to as Select one:  

a. a conditional probability 

 b. an a priori probability 

 c. a bidirectional probability 

 d. a posterior probability Show Answer  

 

Question 37 In a Rule based classifier, If there is a rule for each combination of attribute values, what do you called that rule set R Select one: 

 a. Exhaustive 

 b. Inclusive  

c. Comprehensive 

 d. Mutually exclusive Show Answer  

 

Question 38 The apriori property means Select one 

: a. If a set cannot pass a test, its supersets will also fail the same test 

 b. To decrease the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets  

c. To improve the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets 

 d. If a set can pass a test, its supersets will fail the same test Show Answer 

 

 Question 39 If  an item set ‘XYZ’ is a frequent item set, then all subsets of that frequent item set are Select one: 

 a. Undefined 

 b. Not frequent 

 c. Frequent  

d. Can not say Show Answer 

 

 Question 40 Clustering is ___________ and is example of ____________learning Select one:  

a. Predictive and supervised  

b. Predictive and unsupervised  

c. Descriptive and supervised  

d. Descriptive and unsupervised Show Answer 

 Question 41 The probability that a person owns a sports car given that they subscribe to automotive magazine is 40%.  We also know that 3% of the adult population subscribes to automotive magazine. The probability of a person owning a sports car given that they don’t subscribe to automotive magazine is 30%.  Use this information to compute the probability that a person subscribes to automotive magazine given that they own a sports car Select one 

: a. 0.0368 

 b. 0.0396  

c. 0.0389  

d. 0.0398 Show Answer  

 

Question 42 Simple regression assumes a __________ relationship between the input  attribute and output attribute. Select one:  

a. quadratic  

b. inverse  

c. linear  

d. reciprocal Show Answer 

 

 Question 43 Which of the following algorithm comes under the classification Select one:  

a. Apriori  

b. Brute force 

 c. DBSCAN  

d. K-nearest neighbor Show Answer  

Question 44 Hierarchical agglomerative clustering is typically visualized as? Select one:  

a. Dendrogram 

 b. Binary trees 

 c. Block diagram  

d. Graph Show Answer Question 

 

 45 The _______ step eliminates the extensions of (k-1)-itemsets which are not found to be frequent,from being considered for counting support Select one:  

a. Partitioning 

 b. Candidate generation 

 c. Itemset eliminations  

d. Pruning Show Answer  

 

Question 46 To determine association rules from frequent item sets Select one: 

 a. Only minimum confidence needed 

 b. Neither support not confidence needed 

 c. Both minimum support and confidence are needed 

 d. Minimum support is needed Show Answer  

 

Question 47 What is the final resultant cluster size in Divisive algorithm, which is one of the hierarchical clustering approaches? Select one: 

 a. Zero  

b. Three  

c. singleton 

 d. Two Show Answer 

 

 Question 48 If {A,B,C,D} is a frequent itemset, candidate rules which is not possible is Select one:  

a. C –> A  

b. D –>ABCD  

c. A –> BC  

d. B –> ADC Show Answer 

 

 Question 49 Which Association Rule would you prefer Select one:  

a. High support and low confidence 

 b. Low support and high confidence 

 c. Low support and low confidence 

 d. High support and medium confidence Show Answer  

 

Question 50 The probability that a person owns a sports car given that they subscribe to automotive magazine is 40%.  We also know that 3% of the adult population subscribes to automotive magazine. The probability of a person owning a sports car given that they don’t subscribe to automotive magazine is 30%.  Use this information to compute the probability that a person subscribes to automotive magazine given that they own a sports car 

 Select one:  

a. 0.0398 

 b. 0.0389  

c. 0.0368 

 d. 0.0396 Show Answer 

 

 

 


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Unit 5: 

 

1. What is true about Data Visualization? 

 

A. Data Visualization is used to communicate information clearly and efficiently to users by the usage of information graphics such as tables and charts. B. Data Visualization helps users in analyzing a large amount of data in a simpler way. C. Data Visualization makes complex data more accessible, understandable, and usable. D. All of the above 

 

 

2. Data can be visualized using? 

 

A. graphs B. charts C. maps D. All of the above 

 


 

 

3. Data visualization is also an element of the broader _____________. 

 

A. deliver presentation architecture B. data presentation architecture C. dataset presentation architecture D. data process architecture 

 

 

4. Which method shows hierarchical data in a nested format? 

 

A. Treemaps B. Scatter plots C. Population pyramids D. Area charts 

 

 

5. Which is used to inference for 1 proportion using normal approx? 

 

A. fisher.test() B. chisq.test() C. Lm.test() D. prop.test() 

 

 

6. Which is used to find the factor congruence coefficients? 

 

A. factor.mosaicplot B. factor.xyplot C. factor.congruence D. factor.cumsum 

 

 

7. Which of the following is tool for checking normality? 

 

A. qqline() B. qline() C. anova() D. lm() 


 

 

8. Which of the following is false? 

 

A. data visualization include the ability to absorb information quickly B. Data visualization is another form of visual art C. Data visualization decrease the insights and take solwer decisions D. None Of the above 

 

 

9. Common use cases for data visualization include? 

 

A. Politics B. Sales and marketing C. Healthcare D. All of the above 

 

 

10. Which of the following plots are often used for checking randomness in time series? 

 

A. Autocausation B. Autorank C. Autocorrelation D. None of the above 

 

 

11. Which are pros of data visualization? 

 

A. It can be accessed quickly by a wider audience. B. It can misrepresent information C. It can be distracting D. None Of the above 

 

 

12. Which are cons of data visualization? 

 

A. It conveys a lot of information in a small space. B. It makes your report more visually appealing. 

C. visual data is distorted or excessively used. D. None Of the above 

 

 

13. Which of the intricate techniques is not used for data visualization? 

 

A. Bullet Graphs B. Bubble Clouds C. Fever Maps D. Heat Maps 

 

 

14. Which one of the following is most basic and commonly used techniques? 

 

A. Line charts B. Scatter plots C. Population pyramids D. Area charts 

 

 

15. Which is used to query and edit graphical settings? 

 

A. anova() B. par() C. plot() D. cum() 

 

 

16. Which of the following method make vector of repeated values? 

 

A. rep() B. data() C. view() D. read() 

 

 

17. Who calls the lower level functions lm.fit? 

 

A. lm() B. col.max 

C. par D. histo 

 

 

18. Which of the following lists names of variables in a data.frame? 

 

A. par() B. names() C. barchart() D. quantile() 

 

 

19. Which of the folllowing statement is true? 

 

A. Scientific visualization, sometimes referred to in shorthand as SciVis B. Healthcare professionals frequently use choropleth maps to visualize important health data. C. Candlestick charts are used as trading tools and help finance professionals analyze price movements over time D. All of the above 

 

20. ________is used for density plots? 

 

A. par B. lm C. kde D. C 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Answer key: 

 


 Unit :1 

 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Data Analysis is a process of inspecting, cleaning, transforming and modelling data with the goal of discovering useful information, suggesting conclusions and supporting decision-making. 

 

 

2.  Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Predictive Analytics is major data analysis approaches not Predictive Intelligence. 

 

 

3.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: In data analysis, two main statistical methodologies are used Descriptive statistics and Inferential statistics. 

 

 

4.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with numerical descriptors. 

 

 

5.  Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Data Analysis is defined by the statistician John Tukey in 1961 as "Procedures for analyzing data. 

 

 

6.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: answering yes/no questions about the data (hypothesis testing) 

 

 

7.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 

 

 

8. Ans : D 

 

Explanation: The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as applied statistics. 

 

 

9.  

 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: modeling relationships within the data (E.g. regression analysis). 

 

 

10 Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Text Data Mining is the process of deriving high-quality information from text. 

 

11 personalization 

12.  

 

CRM analytics 

13.  

Advertisement 

business intelligence 

14.  database marketing 

15.  hosted CRM 

16.  All of the above 

17.  Cascalog 

18.  All of these 

19.  All the above 

20.  All of the above 

21. 

 

Project Prism 

22. 

Recall 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

UNIT 2: 

 

1. b  

2. c  

3. A  

4. c  

5. a  

6. b  

 7. a  

 8. c 

9. B 

10. D 

11. A 

12. B 

13. D 

14.A 

15. D 

16. A  

17. B  

18. C 

19. A broad term, the most commonly used technique for doing factor analysis. 

20. C 

21. Answer: c Explanation: With fuzzy logic set membership is defined by certain value. Hence it could have many values to be in the set. 

22. Answer: a Explanation: Traditional set theory set membership is fixed or exact either the member is in the set or not. There is only two crisp values true or false. In case of fuzzy logic there are many values. With weight say x the member is in the set. 23. Answer: a Explanation: Refer the definition of Fuzzy set and Crisp set. 24. Answer: a Explanation: None. 25. Answer: a Explanation: Fuzzy logic deals with linguistic variables. 26. Answer: b Explanation: Both Probabilities and degree of truth ranges between 0 – 1. 27. Answer: a Explanation: None. 28. Answer: d Explanation: The AND, OR, and NOT operators of Boolean logic exist in fuzzy logic, usually defined as the minimum, maximum, and complement; 29. Answer: a Explanation: None. 

30. Answer: b Explanation: Fuzzy set theory defines fuzzy operators on fuzzy sets. The problem in applying this is that the appropriate fuzzy operator may not be known. For this reason, fuzzy logic usually uses IF-THEN rules, or constructs that are equivalent, such as fuzzy associative matrices. Rules are usually expressed in the form: IF variable IS property THEN action 31. Answer: a Explanation: Once fuzzy relations are defined, it is possible to develop fuzzy relational databases. The first fuzzy relational database, FRDB, appeared in Maria Zemankova dissertation. 32. Answer: d Explanation: Entropy is amount of uncertainty involved in data. Represented by H(data). 33. Answer: c Explanation: Local structure is usually associated with linear rather than exponential growth in complexity. 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Unit 4:  

1. Feedback: K-Means clustering  2. Feedback: 3. As the value of one attribute decreases the value of the second attribute increases. 4.  O(tkn)  5. Y is true when X is known to be true 6. Hierarchical clustering algorithm  

7.  Fuzzy 8. dbscan  9. All attributes must be numeric  10. : min-max normalization  11.  increases with the size of the maximum frequent set  12. : lift  13.  Neural network learning algorithms are guaranteed to converge to an optimal solution  14. DBSCAN  15. 2k -2 candidate association rules  16. : K-nearest neighbor  17. mean absolute error  18. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets  19. 38  20. 60  21. Grouping similar objects  22. high intra class similarity  23. Min points and eps  24.  Both models require input attributes to be numeric.  25. 4950  26. Candidate generation  27. DBSCAN  28. As the value of one attribute decreases the value of the second attribute increases.  29. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data  30. a priori  31. knowledge  32. The nature of the problem determines how outliers are used  33. Minkowski  34.  Density methods  35. Low support and high confidence 36. an a priori probability  37.  Exhaustive  38. If a set cannot pass a test, its supersets will also fail the same test  39.  Frequent  40.  Descriptive and unsupervised  41. 0.0396  42. linear  43. K-nearest neighbor  44.  Dendrogram  45.  Pruning  46. Both minimum support and confidence are needed  47.  singleton  48. D –>ABCD  49. Low support and high confidence  50. Answer Feedback: 0.0396 

 

 

 

 


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Unit 5: 

 

1.  Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Data Visualization is used to communicate information clearly and efficiently to users by the usage of information graphics such as tables and charts. It helps users in analyzing a large amount of data in a simpler way. It makes complex data more accessible, understandable, and usable. 


 

 

2.  

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Data visualization is a graphical representation of quantitative information and data by using visual elements like graphs, charts, and maps. 

 

 

3.  Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Data visualization is also an element of the broader data presentation architecture (DPA) discipline, which aims to identify, locate, manipulate, format and deliver data in the most efficient way possible. 

 

 

4.  

 

Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Treemaps are best used when multiple categories are present, and the goal is to compare different parts of a whole. 

 

 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: prop.test() is used to inference for 1 proportion using normal approx. 

 

 

6.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: factor.congruence is used to find the factor congruence coefficients. 

 

 

7.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: qqnorm is another tool for checking normality. 

 

 

8.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Data visualization decrease the insights andtake solwer decisions is false statement. 

 

 

9.  Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All option are Common use cases for data visualization. 


 

 

10.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: If the time series is random, such autocorrelations should be near zero for any and all timelag separations. 

 

11.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Pros of data visualization : it can be accessed quickly by a wider audience. 

 

 

12.  

 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: It can be distracting : if the visual data is distorted or excessively used. 

 

 

13.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Fever Maps is not is not used for data visualization instead of that Fever charts is used. 

 

 

14.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Line charts. This is one of the most basic and common techniques used. Line charts display how variables can change over time. 

 

 

15.  Ans : B 

 

Explanation: par() is used to query and edit graphical settings. 

 

 

16 Ans : B 

 

Explanation: data() load (often into a data.frame) built-in dataset. 

 

 

17.  Ans : A 

 

Explanation: lm calls the lower level functions lm.fit. 

 

 

18.  

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: names function is used to associate name with the value in the vector. 

 

 

19.  

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All option are correct. 

 

 

20.  Ans : C 

 

Explanation: kde is used for density plots. 

 

 

MCQ for UNIT 5 

  

1. Point out the correct statement. a) Hadoop is an ideal environment for extracting and transforming small volumes of data b) Hadoop stores data in HDFS and supports data compression/decompression c) The Giraph framework is less useful than a MapReduce job to solve graph and machine learning d) None of the mentioned 

2. Which of the following genres does Hadoop produce? a) Distributed file system b) JAX-RS c) Java Message Service d) Relational Database Management System 

3. Which of the following platforms does Hadoop run on? a) Bare metal b) Debian c) Cross-platform d) Unix-like 

4. Hadoop achieves reliability by replicating the data across multiple hosts and hence does not require ________ storage on hosts. a) RAID b) Standard RAID levels c) ZFS d) Operating system 

5. The Hadoop list includes the HBase database, the Apache Mahout ________ system, and matrix operations. a) Machine learning b) Pattern recognition c) Statistical classification d) Artificial intelligence 

6. As companies move past the experimental phase with Hadoop, many cite the need for additional capabilities, including _______________ a) Improved data storage and information retrieval b) Improved extract, transform and load features for data integration c) Improved data warehousing functionality d) Improved security, workload management, and SQL support 

7. Point out the correct statement. a) Hadoop do need specialized hardware to process the data b) Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real-time data c) In the Hadoop programming framework output files are divided into lines or records d) None of the mentioned 

8. According to analysts, for what can traditional IT systems provide a foundation when they’re integrated with big data technologies like Hadoop? a) Big data management and data mining b) Data warehousing and business intelligence c) Management of Hadoop clusters d) Collecting and storing unstructured data 

9. Hadoop is a framework that works with a variety of related tools. Common cohorts include ____________ a) MapReduce, Hive and HBase b) MapReduce, MySQL and Google Apps c) MapReduce, Hummer and Iguana d) MapReduce, Heron and Trumpet 

10. Point out the wrong statement. a) Hardtop processing capabilities are huge and its real advantage lies in the ability to process terabytes & petabytes of data b) Hadoop uses a programming model called “MapReduce”, all the programs should conform to this model in order to work on the Hadoop platform c) The programming model, MapReduce, used by Hadoop is difficult to write and test d) All of the mentioned 

11. What was Hadoop named after? a) Creator Doug Cutting’s favorite circus act b) Cutting’s high school rock band c) The toy elephant of Cutting’s son d) A sound Cutting’s laptop made during Hadoop development 

12. All of the following accurately describe Hadoop, EXCEPT ____________ a) Open-source b) Real-time c) Java-based d) Distributed computing approach 

13. __________ can best be described as a programming model used to develop Hadoopbased applications that can process massive amounts of data. a) MapReduce b) Mahout 

c) Oozie d) All of the mentioned 

14. __________ has the world’s largest Hadoop cluster. a) Apple b) Datamatics c) Facebook d) None of the mentioned 

15. Facebook Tackles Big Data With _______ based on Hadoop. a) ‘Project Prism’ b) ‘Prism’ c) ‘Project Big’ d) ‘Project Data’ 

16. ________ is a platform for constructing data flows for extract, transform, and load (ETL) processing and analysis of large datasets. a) Pig Latin b) Oozie c) Pig d) Hive 

17. Point out the correct statement. a) Hive is not a relational database, but a query engine that supports the parts of SQL specific to querying data b) Hive is a relational database with SQL support c) Pig is a relational database with SQL support d) All of the mentioned 

18. Hive also support custom extensions written in ____________ a) C# b) Java c) C d) C++ 

19. Point out the wrong statement. a) Elastic MapReduce (EMR) is Facebook’s packaged Hadoop offering b) Amazon Web Service Elastic MapReduce (EMR) is Amazon’s packaged Hadoop offering c) Scalding is a Scala API on top of Cascading that removes most Java boilerplate d) All of the mentioned 

20. ___________ is general-purpose computing model and runtime system for distributed data analytics. a) Mapreduce b) Drill 

c) Oozie d) None of the mentioned 

21. The Pig Latin scripting language is not only a higher-level data flow language but also has operators similar to ____________ a) SQL b) JSON c) XML d) All of the mentioned 

22. _______ jobs are optimized for scalability but not latency. a) Mapreduce b) Drill c) Oozie d) Hive 

23. A ________ node acts as the Slave and is responsible for executing a Task assigned to it by the JobTracker. a) MapReduce b) Mapper c) TaskTracker d) JobTracker 

24. Point out the correct statement. a) MapReduce tries to place the data and the compute as close as possible b) Map Task in MapReduce is performed using the Mapper() function c) Reduce Task in MapReduce is performed using the Map() function d) All of the mentioned 

25. ___________ part of the MapReduce is responsible for processing one or more chunks of data and producing the output results. a) Maptask b) Mapper c) Task execution d) All of the mentioned 

26. _________ function is responsible for consolidating the results produced by each of the Map() functions/tasks. a) Reduce b) Map c) Reducer d) All of the mentioned 

27. ________ is a utility which allows users to create and run jobs with any executables as the mapper and/or the reducer. 

a) Hadoop Strdata b) Hadoop Streaming c) Hadoop Stream d) None of the mentioned 

28. __________ maps input key/value pairs to a set of intermediate key/value pairs. a) Mapper b) Reducer c) Both Mapper and Reducer d) None of the mentioned 

29. The number of maps is usually driven by the total size of ____________ a) inputs b) outputs c) tasks d) None of the mentioned 

30. Running a ___________ program involves running mapping tasks on many or all of the nodes in our cluster. a) MapReduce b) Map c) Reducer d) All of the mentioned 

31. A ________ serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster. a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication 

32. Point out the correct statement. a) DataNode is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks b) Each incoming file is broken into 32 MB by default c) Data blocks are replicated across different nodes in the cluster to ensure a low degree of fault tolerance d) None of the mentioned 

33. HDFS works in a __________ fashion. a) master-worker b) master-slave c) worker/slave d) all of the mentioned 

34. Point out the wrong statement. a) Replication Factor can be configured at a cluster level (Default is set to 3) and also at a file level b) Block Report from each DataNode contains a list of all the blocks that are stored on that DataNode c) User data is stored on the local file system of DataNodes d) DataNode is aware of the files to which the blocks stored on it belong to 

35. Which of the following scenario may not be a good fit for HDFS? a) HDFS is not suitable for scenarios requiring multiple/simultaneous writes to the same file b) HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access c) HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access d) None of the mentioned 

36. The need for data replication can arise in various scenarios like ____________ a) Replication Factor is changed b) DataNode goes down c) Data Blocks get corrupted d) All of the mentioned 

37. ________ is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks. a) DataNode b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication 

38. HDFS provides a command line interface called __________ used to interact with HDFS. a) “HDFS Shell” b) “FS Shell” c) “DFS Shell” d) None of the mentioned 

39. HDFS is implemented in _____________ programming language. a) C++ b) Java c) Scala d) None of the mentioned 

40. For YARN, the ___________ Manager UI provides host and port information. a) Data Node b) NameNode 

c) Resource d) Replication 

41. During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. a) DataNode b) NameNode c) ActionNode d) None of the mentioned 

42. Point out the correct statement. a) A Hadoop archive maps to a file system directory b) Hadoop archives are special format archives c) A Hadoop archive always has a *.har extension d) All of the mentioned 

43. Using Hadoop Archives in __________ is as easy as specifying a different input filesystem than the default file system. a) Hive b) Pig c) MapReduce d) All of the mentioned 

44. Pig operates in mainly how many nodes? a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five 

45. Point out the correct statement. a) You can run Pig in either mode using the “pig” command b) You can run Pig in batch mode using the Grunt shell c) You can run Pig in interactive mode using the FS shell d) None of the mentioned 

46. You can run Pig in batch mode using __________ a) Pig shell command b) Pig scripts c) Pig options d) All of the mentioned 

47. Pig Latin statements are generally organized in one of the following ways? a) A LOAD statement to read data from the file system b) A series of “transformation” statements to process the data 

c) A DUMP statement to view results or a STORE statement to save the results d) All of the mentioned 

48. Point out the wrong statement. a) To run Pig in local mode, you need access to a single machine b) The DISPLAY operator will display the results to your terminal screen c) To run Pig in mapreduce mode, you need access to a Hadoop cluster and HDFS installation d) All of the mentioned 

49. Which of the following function is used to read data in PIG? a) WRITE b) READ c) LOAD d) None of the mentioned 

50. You can run Pig in interactive mode using the ______ shell. a) Grunt b) FS c) HDFS d) None of the mentioned 

51. HBase is a distributed ________ database built on top of the Hadoop file system. a) Column-oriented b) Row-oriented c) Tuple-oriented d) None of the mentioned 

52. Point out the correct statement. a) HDFS provides low latency access to single rows from billions of records (Random access) b) HBase sits on top of the Hadoop File System and provides read and write access c) HBase is a distributed file system suitable for storing large files d) None of the mentioned 

53. HBase is ________ defines only column families. a) Row Oriented b) Schema-less c) Fixed Schema d) All of the mentioned 

54. Apache HBase is a non-relational database modeled after Google’s _________ a) BigTop b) Bigtable 

c) Scanner d) FoundationDB 

55. Point out the wrong statement. a) HBase provides only sequential access to data b) HBase provides high latency batch processing c) HBase internally provides serialized access d) All of the mentioned 

56. The _________ Server assigns regions to the region servers and takes the help of Apache ZooKeeper for this task. a) Region b) Master c) Zookeeper d) All of the mentioned 

57. Which of the following command provides information about the user? a) status b) version c) whoami d) user 

58. Which of the following command does not operate on tables? a) enabled b) disabled c) drop d) all of the mentioned 

59. _________ command fetches the contents of a row or a cell. a) select b) get c) put d) none of the mentioned 

60. HBaseAdmin and ____________ are the two important classes in this package that provide DDL functionalities. a) HTableDescriptor b) HDescriptor c) HTable d) HTabDescriptor 

61. Which of the following is not a NoSQL database? a) SQL Server b) MongoDB 

c) Cassandra d) None of the mentioned 

62. Point out the correct statement. a) Documents can contain many different key-value pairs, or key-array pairs, or even nested documents b) MongoDB has official drivers for a variety of popular programming languages and development environments c) When compared to relational databases, NoSQL databases are more scalable and provide superior performance d) All of the mentioned 

63. Which of the following is a NoSQL Database Type? a) SQL b) Document databases c) JSON d) All of the mentioned 

64. Which of the following is a wide-column store? a) Cassandra b) Riak c) MongoDB d) Redis 

65. Point out the wrong statement. a) Non Relational databases require that schemas be defined before you can add data b) NoSQL databases are built to allow the insertion of data without a predefined schema c) NewSQL databases are built to allow the insertion of data without a predefined schema d) All of the mentioned 

66. Most NoSQL databases support automatic __________ meaning that you get high availability and disaster recovery. a) processing b) scalability c) replication d) all of the mentioned 

67. Which of the following are the simplest NoSQL databases? a) Key-value b) Wide-column c) Document d) All of the mentioned 

68. ________ stores are used to store information about networks, such as social connections. a) Key-value b) Wide-column c) Document d) Graph 

69. NoSQL databases is used mainly for handling large volumes of ______________ data. a) unstructured b) structured c) semi-structured d) all of the mentioned 

70. Point out the wrong statement? a) Key feature of R was that its syntax is very similar to S b) R runs only on Windows computing platform and operating system c) R has been reported to be running on modern tablets, phones, PDAs, and game consoles d) R functionality is divided into a number of Packages 

71. R functionality is divided into a number of ________ a) Packages b) Functions c) Domains d) Classes 

72. Which Package contains most fundamental functions to run R? a) root b) child c) base d) parent 

73. Point out the wrong statement? a) One nice feature that R shares with many popular open source projects is frequent releases b) R has sophisticated graphics capabilities c) S’s base graphics system allows for very fine control over essentially every aspect of a plot or graph d) All of the mentioned 

74. Which of the following is a base package for R language? a) util b) lang 

c) tools d) spatial 

75. Which of the following is “Recommended” package in R? a) util b) lang c) stats d) spatial 

76. What is the output of getOption(“defaultPackages”) in R studio? a) Installs a new package b) Shows default packages in R c) Error d) Nothing will prin 

77. Which of the following is used for Statistical analysis in R language? a) RStudio b) Studio c) Heck d) KStudio 

78. In R language, a vector is defined that it can only contain objects of the ________ a) Same class b) Different class c) Similar class d) Any class 

79. A list is represented as a vector but can contain objects of ___________ a) Same class b) Different class c) Similar class d) Any class 

80. How can we define ‘undefined value’ in R language? a) Inf b) Sup c) Und d) NaN 

81. What is NaN called? a) Not a Number b) Not a Numeric c) Number and Number d) Number a Numeric 

82. How can we define ‘infinity’ in R language? a) Inf b) Sup c) Und d) NaN 

83. Which one of the following is not a basic datatype? a) Numeric b) Character c) Data frame d) Integer 

84. Matrices can be created by row-binding with the help of the following function. a) rjoin() b) rbind() c) rowbind() d) rbinding() 

85. What is the function used to test objects (returns a logical operator) if they are NA? a) is.na() b) is.nan() c) as.na() d) as.nan() 

86. What is the function used to test objects (returns a logical operator) if they are NaN? a) as.nan() b) is.na() c) as.na() d) is.nan() 

87. What is the function to set column names for a matrix? a) names() b) colnames() c) col.names() d) column name cannot be set for a matrix 

88. The most convenient way to use R is at a graphics workstation running a ________ system. a) windowing b) running c) interfacing d) matrix 

89. Point out the wrong statement? a) Setting up a workstation to take full advantage of the customizable features of R is a 

straightforward thing b) q() is used to quit the R program c) R has an inbuilt help facility similar to the man facility of UNIX d) Windows versions of R have other optional help systems also 

90. Point out the wrong statement? a) Windows versions of R have other optional help system also b) The help.search command (alternatively ??) allows searching for help in various ways c) R is case insensitive as are most UNIX based packages, so A and a are different symbols and would refer to different variables d) $ R is used to start the R program 

91. Elementary commands in R consist of either _______ or assignments. a) utilstats b) language c) expressions d) packages 

92. How to install for a package and all of the other packages on which for depends? a) install.packages (for, depends = TRUE) b) R.install.packages (“for”, depends = TRUE) c) install.packages (“for”, depends = TRUE) d) install (“for”, depends = FALSE) 

93. __________ function is used to watch for all available packages in library. a) lib() b) fun.lib() c) libr() d) library() 

94. Attributes of an object (if any) can be accessed using the ______ function. a) objects() b) attrib() c) attributes() d) obj() 

95. R objects can have attributes, which are like ________ for the object. a) metadata b) features c) expression d) dimensions 

96. ________ generate random Normal variates with a given mean and standard deviation. a) dnorm b) rnorm 

c) pnorm d) rpois 

97. Point out the correct statement? a) R comes with a set of pseudo-random number generators b) Random number generators cannot be used to model random inputs c) Statistical procedure does not require random number generation d) For each probability distribution there are typically three functions 

98. ______ evaluate the cumulative distribution function for a Normal distribution. a) dnorm b) rnorm c) pnorm d) rpois 

99. _______ generate random Poisson variates with a given rate. a) dnorm b) rnorm c) pnorm d) rpois 

100. Point out the wrong statement? a) For each probability distribution there are typically three functions b) For each probability distribution there are typically four functions c) r function is sufficient for simulating random numbers d) R comes with a set of pseudo-random number generators 

101. _________ is the most common probability distribution to work with. a) Gaussian b) Parametric c) Paradox d) Simulation 

102. Point out the correct statement? a) When simulating any random numbers it is not essential to set the random number seed b) It is not possible to generate random numbers from other probability distributions like the Poisson c) You should always set the random number seed when conducting a simulation d) Statistical procedure does not require random number generation 

103. _______ function is used to simulate binary random variables. a) dnorm b) rbinom() c) binom() d) rpois 

104. Point out the wrong statement? a) Drawing samples from specific probability distributions can be done with “s” functions b) The sample() function draws randomly from a specified set of (scalar) objects allowing you to sample from arbitrary distributions of numbers c) The sampling() function draws randomly from a specified set of objects d) You should always set the random number seed when conducting a simulation 

105. _______ grammar makes a clear distinction between your data and what gets displayed on the screen or page. a) ggplot1 b) ggplot2 c) d3.js d) ggplot3 

106. Point out the wrong statement? a) mean_se is used to calculate mean and standard errors on either side b) hmisc wraps up a selection of summary functions from Hmisc to make it easy to use c) plot is used to create a scatterplot matrix (experimental) d) translate_qplot_base is used for translating between qplot and base graphics 

107. Which of the following cuts numeric vector into intervals of equal length? a) cut_interval b) cut_time c) cut_number d) cut_date 

108. Which of the following is a plot to investigate the order in which observations were recorded? a) ggplot b) ggsave c) ggpcp d) ggorder 

109. ________ is used for translating between qplot and base graphics. a) translate_qplot_base b) translate_qplot_gpl c) translate_qplot_lattice d) translate_qplot_ggplot 

110. Which of the following is discrete state calculator? a) discrete_scale b) ggpcp c) ggfluctuation d) ggmissing 

111. Which of the following creates fluctuation plot? a) ggmissplot b) ggmissing c) ggfluctuation d) ggpcp 

112. __________ create a complete ggplot appropriate to a particular data type. a) autoplot b) is.ggplot c) printplot d) qplot_ggplot 

113. Which of the following creates a new ggplot plot from a data frame? a) qplot_ggplot b) ggplot.data.frame c) ggfluctuation d) ggmissplot 

 

 

 

 

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DATA ANALYTICS – KIT601 – Question Bank 

 

UNIT-1 

1. Data originally collected in the process of investigation are known as a) Foreign data b) Primary data c) Third data d) Secondary data e) None of these 

 

2. Statistical enquiry means 1. It is science for knowledge 2. Search for knowledge 3. Collection of anything 4. Search for knowledge with the help of statistical methods. e) None of these 

 

3. Cluster sampling means a) Sample is divided into number of sub-groups b) Sample are selected at regular interval c) Sample is obtained by conscious selection d) Universe is divided into groups e) None of these 

 

4. What is Secondary data? a) Data collected in the process of investigation b) Data collected from some other agency c) Data collected from questionnaire of a person d) Both A & B e) None of these 

 

5. What is information? a) Raw facts b) Processed data c) Understanding facts d) Knowing action on data e) None of these 

 

6. Data about rocks is an example of a) Time dependent data b) Time Independent data c) Location dependent data d) Location independent data e) None of these 

 

7. Range on temperature scale is termed as  a) Nominal data b) Ordinal data 

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c) Interval data d) Ratio data e) None of these 

 

8. Data in XML and CSV format is an example of a) Structure data b) Un-structure data c) Semi-structure data d) Both A & B e) None of these 

 

9. Which is not the characteristic of data a) Accuracy b) Consistency c) Granularity d) Redundant e) None of these 

 

10. Hadoop is a framework that works with a variety of related tools. Common cohorts include: a) MapReduce, Hive and HBase b) MapReduce, MySQL and Google Apps c) MapReduce, Hummer and Iguana d) MapReduce, Heron and Trumpet e) None of these 

 

11. Which is not the V in BIG data a) Volume b) Veracity c) Vigor d) Velocity e) None of these 

 

12. Which is not true about Traditional decision making? a) Does not require human intervention b) Takes a long time to come to decision c) Lacks systematic linkage in planning d) Provides limited scope of data analytics e) None of these 

 

13. Cloudera is a product of  a) Microsoft b) Apache c) Google d) Facebook e) None of these 

 

14. What is not true about MPP architecture a) Tightly coupled nodes b) High speed connection among nodes c) Disk are not shared 

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d) Uses lot of processors e) None of these 

 

15. The process of organizing and summarizing data in an easily readable format to communicate important information is known as a) Analysis b) Reporting c) Clustering d) Mining e) None of these 

 

16. Out of the following which is not a type of report a) Canned b) Dashboard c) Ad hoc response d) Alerts e) None of these 

 

17. Data Analysis is a process of? a) inspecting data b) cleaning data c) transforming data d) All of above e) None of these 

 

18. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? a) Data Mining b) Predictive Intelligence c) Business Intelligence d) Text Analytics e) None of these 

 

19. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e)  None of these 

 

20. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? a) answering yes/no questions about the data b) estimating numerical characteristics of the data c) modeling relationships within the data d) describing associations within the data e) None of these 

 

21. __________ may be defined as the data objects that do not comply with the general behavior or model of the data available. a) Outlier Analysis b) Evolution Analysis 

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c) Prediction d) Classification e) None of these 

 

22. What is the use of data cleaning? a) to remove the noisy data b) correct the inconsistencies in data c) transformations to correct the wrong data. d) All of the above e) None of these 

 

23. In data mining, this is a technique used to predict future behavior and anticipate the consequences of change. a) predictive technology b) disaster recovery c) phase change d) predictive modeling e) None of these 

 

24. What are the main components of Big Data? a) MapReduce b) HDFS c) HBASE d) All of these e) None of these 

 

25. ———- data that depends on data model and resides in a fixed field within a record. a) Structured data b) Un-Structured data c) Semi-Structured data d) Scattere e) None of these 

 

26. —————- is about developing code to enable the machine to learn to perform tasks and its basic principle is the automatic modeling of underlying that have generated the collected data. a) Data Science b) Data Analytics c) Data Mining d) Data Warehousing e) None of these 

 

27. —————– is an example of human generated unstructured data. a) YouTube data b) Satellite data c) Sensor data d) Seismic imagery data e) None of these 

 

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28. Height is an example of which type of attribute a) Nominal b) Binary c) Ordinal d) Numeric e) None of these 

 

29. ————-type of analytics describes what happened in past a) Descriptive b) Prescriptive c) Predictive d) Probability e) None of these 

 

30.   ————– data does not fits into a data model due to variations in contents a) Structured data b) Un - Structured data c) Semi Structured data d) Both B & C e) None of these 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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UNIT-2 

 

31. A and B are two events. If P(A, B) decreases while P(A) increases, which of the following is true? a) P(A|B) decreases b) P(B|A) decreases c) P(B) decreases d) All of above e) None of these 

 

32. Suppose we like to calculate P(H|E, F) and we have no conditional independence information. Which of the following sets of numbers are sufficient for the calculation? a) P(E, F), P(H), P(E|H), P(F|H) b) P(E, F), P(H), P(E, F|H) c) P(H), P(E|H), P(F|H) d) P(E, F), P(E|H), P(F|H) e) None of these 

 

33. Suppose you are given an EM algorithm that finds maximum likelihood estimates for a model with latent variables. You are asked to modify the algorithm so that it finds MAP estimates instead. Which step or steps do you need to modify? a) Expectation b) Maximization c) No modification necessary d) Both A & B e) None of these 

 

34. Compared to the variance of the Maximum Likelihood Estimate (MLE), the variance of the Maximum A Posteriori (MAP) estimate is ________ a) higher b) same c) lower d) it could be any of the above e) None of these 

 

35. Bayesian methods are important to our study of machine learning is that they provide a useful perspective for understanding many learning algorithms that do not ............................ manipulate probabilities. a) explicitly b) implicitly c) both a & b d) approximately e) None of these 

 

36. The results that we get after we apply Bayesian Theorem to a problem are, a) 100% accurate b) Estimated values c) Wrong values d) Only positive values e) None of these 

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37. The previous probabilities in Bayes theorem that are changed with the help of new available information are classified as a) independent probabilities b) posterior probabilities c) interior probabilities d) dependent probabilities e) None of these 

 

38. In contrast to the naive Bayes classifier, Bayesian belief networks allow stating conditional independence assumptions that apply to ............................... of the variables. a) subsets b) super sets c) empty set d) All of above e) None of these 

 

39. The naive Bayes classifier applies to learning tasks where each instance x is described by a conjunction of attribute values and where the target function f ( x ) can take on ................. value from some................... set V. a) one, finite b) any, infinite c) one, infinite d) any, finite e) None of these 

 

40. Bayes rule can be used to........................conditioned on one piece of evidence. a) solve queries b) increase complexity of a query c) decrease complexity of a query d) answer probabilistic queries e) None of these 

 

41.  Among which of the following mentioned statements can the Bayesian probability be applied? (i) In the cases, where we have one event (ii) In the cases, where we have two events (iii) In the cases, where we have three events (iv) In the cases, where we have more than three events 

 

Options: 

 

a) Only iv. b) All i., ii., iii. and iv. c) ii. and iv. d) Only ii. e) None of these 

 

42. How the Bayesian network can be used to answer any query? a) Full distribution b) Joint distribution 

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c) Partial distribution d) All of the mentioned above e) None of these 

 

43.  Which of the following methods do we use to find the best fit line for data in Linear Regression? a) Least Square Error b) Maximum Likelihood c) Logarithmic Loss d) Both A and B e) None of these 

 

44.  Linear Regression is a ..................... machine learning algorithm. a) supervised b) unsupervised c) reinforcement d) Both A & B e) None of these 

 

45. Which of the following statement is true about outliers in Linear regression? a) Linear regression is not sensitive to outliers b) Linear regression is sensitive to outliers c) Can’t say d) There are no outliers e) None of these 

 

46. Which of the following sentence is FALSE regarding regression? a) It relates inputs to outputs. b) It is used for prediction. c) It may be used for interpretation. d) It discovers causal relationships. e) None of these 

 

47. Which of the following methods do we use to best fit the data in Logistic Regression? a) Least Square Error b) Maximum Likelihood c) Jaccard distance d) Both A & B e) None of these 

 

48. Which of the following option is true? a) Linear Regression errors values has to be normally distributed but in case of Logistic Regression it is not the case b) Logistic Regression errors values has to be normally distributed but in case of Linear Regression it is not the case c) Both Linear Regression and Logistic Regression error values have to be normally distributed d) Both Linear Regression and Logistic Regression error values have not to be normally distributed e) None of these 

 

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49. A decision tree is also known as a) general tree b) binary tree c) prediction tree d) fuzzy tree e) None of these 

 

50. The confusion matrix is a useful tool for analyzing a) Regression b) Classification c) Sampling d) Cross Validation e) None of these 

 

51. In regression the independent variable is also called as ———– a) Regressor b) Continuous c) Regressand d) Estimated e) None of these 

 

52. ————— searches for the linear optimal separating hyperplane for separation of the data using essential training tuples called support vectors a) Decision tree b) Association Rule Mining c) Clustering d) Support vector machines e) None of these 

 

53. Which of the following is used as attribute selection measure in decision tree algorithms? a) Information Gain b) Posterior probability c) Prior probability d) Support e) None of these 

 

54. ———- is unsupervised technique aiming to divide a multivariate dataset into clusters or groups. a) KNN b) SVM c) Regression d) Cluster Analysis e) None of these 

 

55. A perfect negative correlation is signified by ————- a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) 2 

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e) None of these 

 

56. ———— rule mining is a technique to identify underlying relations between different items. a) Classification b) Regression c) Clustering d) Association e) None of these 

 

57. ———– is supervised machine learning algorithm outputs an optimal hyperplane for given labeled training data a) KNN b) SVM c) Regression d) Decision Tree e) None of these 

 

58. Which of the following is measure used in decision trees while selecting splitting criteria that partitions data into the best possible manner. a) Probability b) Gini Index c) Regression d) Confusion matrix e) None of these 

 

59. Which of the following is not a type of clustering algorithm? a) Density clustering b) K-Means clustering c)  Centroid clustering d) Simple clustering e) None of these 

 

60.  —— answers the questions like ” How can we make it happen?” a) Descriptive b) Prescriptive c) Predictive d) Probability e) None of these 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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UNIT-3 

 

61. Some company wants to divide their customers into distinct groups to send offers this is an example of a) Data Extraction b) Data Classification c) Data Discrimination d) Data Selection e) None of these 

 

62. When do we use Manhattan distance in data mining? a) Dimension of the data decreases b) Dimension of the data increases c) Under fitting d) Moderate size of the dimensions e) None of these 

 

63. When there is no impact on one variable when increase or decrease on other variable then it is ———— a) Perfect correlation b) Positive correlation c) Negative correlation d) No correlation e) None of these 

 

64. Apriori algorithm uses breadth first search and ————structure to count candidate item sets efficiently. a) Decision tree b) Hash Tree c) Red-Black Tree d) AVL Tree e) None of these 

 

65. To determine basic salary of an employee when his qualification is given is a ———– problem a) Correlation b) Regression c) Association d) Qualitative e) None of these 

 

66. ————the step is performed by data scientist after acquiring the data. a) Data Cleansing b) Data Integration c) Data Replication d) Data loading e) None of these 

 

67. ———– is an indication of how often the rule has been found to be true in association rule mining. a) Confidence 

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b) Support c) Lift d) Accuracy e) None of these 

 

68. Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? a) Stream data is always unstructured data. b) Stream data often has a high velocity. c) Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. d) Stream data is always structured data. e) None of these 

 

69. A Bloom filter guarantees no a) false positives b) false negatives c) false positives and false negatives d) false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type e) None of these 

 

70. The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: a) Estimate the number of distinct elements. b) Sample data with a time-sensitive window. c) Estimate the frequent elements. d) Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. e) None of these 

 

71 The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last k bits of a stream window N. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? a) The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. b) The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. c) To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. d) Only 1’s can be estimated not 0’s e) None of these 

 

72. What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? a) DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% b) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% c) DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% d) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% e) None of these 

 

73. Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? a) Misra-Gries b) Alon-Matias-Szegedy c) DGIM d) Apriori e) None of these 

74. Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? a) It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. b) A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. c) It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more space. d) A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element. e) None of these 

 

75. ETL stands for ________________ a) Extraction transformation and loading b) Extract Taken Lend c) Enterprise Transfer Load d) Entertainment Transference Load e) None of these 

 

76. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches?  a) Data Mining b) Predictive Intelligence c).Business Intelligence  d) Text Analytics e) None of these 

 

77. What do you mean by Real Time ANALYTICS  platform. a) Manages and process data and helps timely decision making b helps to develop dynamic analysis application c) leads to evolution of  non business intelligence d) hadoop e)None of these 

 

78. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician?  a)  William S. b)Hans Peter Luhn c) Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro d) John Tukey e)None of these 

79 Which of the following is a wrong statement. a). The big volume actually represents Big Data b). Big Data is just about tons of data c). The data growth and social media explosion have improved that how we look at the data d). All of these e). None of these 

 

80 Which of the following emphases on the discovery of earlier properties that are not known on the data? a) Machine Learning b). Big Data c). Data wrangling d). Data mining e)None of these 

 

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81 What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? a)DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% b)DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% c)DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% d)DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% e)None of these 

82 A Bloom filter guarantees no a)false positives b)false negatives c)false positives and false negatives d)false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter e)None of these 

 

83. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a) DGIM operates on a time-based window.  b) In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  c) The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand.  d) The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream.  e)None of these 

 

84  What are two differences between large-scale computing and big data processing? a)hardware b) Data is more suitable for finding new patterns in data than Large Scale Computing c) amount of processing time available d) amount of data processed e)None of these 

 

85 In Flajolet-Martin algorithm if the stream contains n elements with m of them unique, this algorithm runs in a) O(n) time  b) constant time c) O(2n) time d) O(3n)time e)None of these 

 

86 What are two differences between large-scale computing and big data processing? a) hardware  b) Data is more suitable for finding new patterns in data than Large Scale Computing  c) amount of processing time available  d) number of passes made over the data  e)None of these 

 

87 what does it mean when an algorithm is said to 'scale well'? a) The running time does not increase exponentially when data becomes longer.  b)The result quality goes up when the data becomes larger.  c) The memory usage does not increase exponentially when data becomes larger.  d) The result quality remains the same when the data becomes larger.  e)None of these 

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89The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: a)Estimate the number of distinct elements. b)Sample data with a time-sensitive window. c)Estimate the frequent elements. d)Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. e)None of these 

 

90Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming? a)Limited amount of memory b)Limited amount of processing time c)Limited amount of input data d)Limited amount of processing power e)None of these 

 

UNIT 4 

 

91 Which of the following clustering type has characteristic shown in the below figure? 

 

a) Exploratory b) Inferential c) Causal d) Hierarchical Clustering e)None of these 

 

92 Which of the following dimension type graph is shown in the below figure? 

 

 

a) one-dimensional b) two-dimensional c) three-dimensional d) four-dimensional e)None of these 

 

93 Which of the following gave rise to need of graphs in data analysis? a)Data visualization b) Communicating results 

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c) Decision making d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 

 

94Which of the following is characteristic of exploratory graph? a) Made slowly b) Axes are not cleaned up c) Color is used for personal information d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 

 

95Color and shape are used to add dimensions to graph data. a)True b) False c)Dilemma d)Incorrect Statement e)None of these 

 

96.Which of the following information is not given by five-number summary? a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 

 

97.Which of the following is also referred to as overlayed 1D plot? a)lattice b) barplot c) gplot d) all of the mentioned e)None of these 

 

98.Spinning plots can be used for two dimensional data. a)True b) False c)Incorrect d)Not Sure e)None of these 

 

99 Point out the correct statement. a) coplots are one dimensional data graph b) Exploratory graphs are made quickly c) Exploratory graphs are made relatively less in number d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 

 

100 Which of the following clustering technique is used by K- Means Algorithm a)HierarchicalTechnique b)Partitional technique  c)Divisive 

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d) Agglomerative  e)None of these 

 

101.SON algorithm is also known as  a)PCY Algorithm b MultistageAlgorithm c)Multihash Algorithm d)Partition Algorithm D e)None of these 

 

102. Which technique is used to filter unnecessary itemset in PCY algorithm a )Association Rule  b)Hashing Technique  c)Data Mining  d)Market basket B e)None of these 

 

103 In association rule, which of the following indicates the measure of how frequently the items occur in a dataset ? a)Support  b)Confidence  c)Basket  d)Itemset e)None of these 

 

104.Which term indicated the degree of corelation in dataset between X and Y, if the given association rule given is X-->Y a)Confidence  b)Monotonicity  c)Distinct  d)Hashing e)None of these 

 

105.During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. a) DataNode b) NameNode c) ActionNode d) Data Action Node e)None of these 

 

106 Which of the following scenario may not be a good fit for HDFS?  a) HDFS is not suitable for scenarios requiring multiple/simultaneous writes to thesame file b) HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access c) HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access d) HDFS is suitable for scenarios requiring multiple/simultaneous writes to thesame file e)None of these 

 

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107________ is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks. a) DataNode b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e)None of these 

 

108.HDFS provides a command line interface called __________ used to interact with HDFS. a) “HDFS Shell” b) “FS Shell” c) “DFS Shell” d) None of the mentioned e)None of these   109 What is CLIQUE ? a)CLIQUE is a grid based method for finding density based clusters in subspaces. b)CLIQUE is a click method c)used to prune non- promising cells and to improve efficiency d)used to measure distance e)None of these 

 

110 CLIQUE stands for ?  a) Clustering in QUEst b) Common in Quest c)Calculate in Quest d)Click in Quest e)None of these 

 

111What is approaches for high dimensional data clustering  a)Subspace clustering b)Projected clustering and Biclustering. c) Data Clustering d)Space Clustering e)None of these 

 

112Applications of frequent itemset analysis  a) Related concepts ,Plagiarism , Biomarkers b)CLUSTERING c)Design d)Operation e)None of these 

 

113. k-means is a ………..based algorithm or distance based algorithm where we calculate the distances to assign a point to a cluster a) centroid b)Distance c)Neuron d)Dendron e) None of these 

 

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114--------is an algorithm for frequent item set mining and association rule learning       over relational databases a)Confidence b) Apriori c)Disadvantage d)Market basket e) None of these 

 

115 The HBase database includes the Hadoop list, the Apache Mahout ________ system, and matrix operations. A.  Statistical classification B. Pattern recognition C. Machine learning D. Artificial intelligence E. All of these 

 

116 To discover interesting relations between objects in larger databases is a objective of ---- a) Freqent Set Mining b)Market basket Mining c) association rules mining d) Confidence Gain e) None of these 

 

117 Different methods for storing itemset count in  main memory. a)The triangular matrix method  b)The triples method c)Angular method d)Square Method e) None of these 

 

118 ------used to prune non- promising cells and to improve efficiency. a)market basket b)frequent itemset c)Support d) aprioriproperty e) None of these 

 

119 dentify the algorithm in which, on the first pass we count the item themselves and then determine which items are frequent. On the second pass we count only the pairs of item both of which are found frequent on first pass  a)DGIM  b)CURE  c)Pagerank  d)Apriori  e)None of these 120 A resource used for sharing data globally by all nodes is a)Distributed b) Cache Centralised Cache  c)secondry memory d)primarymemory e) None of these 

Department of Information Technology 

 

Unit 5 121.Input to the                is the sorted output of the mappers.  a) Reducer b) Mapper c) Shuffle  d) All of the above e)None of these 

 

122. Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? a)Stream data is always unstructured data. b)Stream data often has a high velocity. c)Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. d)Stream data is always structured data. e)None of these 

 

123 The output of the                is not sorted in the Mapreduce framework for Hadoop.  (A) Mapper (B) Cascader (C) Scalding (D) None of the above e) None of these 

 

124: Which of the following phases occur simultaneously?  (A) Reduce and Sort (B) Shuffle and Sort (C) Shuffle and Map d)sort and ruduce  e) None of these 

 

125.A ________ serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster. a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e) None of these 

 

126.HDFS works in a __________ fashion. a) master-worker b) master-slave c) worker/slave d) all of the mentioned e) None of these 

 

127.________ NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down. a) Rack b) Data c) Secondary d) None of the mentioned e) None of these 

 

Department of Information Technology 

128 Point out the wrong statement. a) Replication Factor can be configured at a cluster level (Default is set to 3) and also at a file level b) Block Report from each DataNode contains a list of all the blocks that are stored on that DataNode c) User data is stored on the local file system of DataNodes d) DataNode is aware of the files to which the blocks stored on it belong to e) None of these 

 

129 The need for data replication can arise in various scenarios like ____________ a) Replication Factor is changed b) DataNode goes down c) Data Blocks get corrupted d) All of the mentioned e) None of these 

 

130.For YARN, the ___________ Manager UI provides host and port information. a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Resource d) Replication e) None of these   131 HDFS works in a __________ fashion.  a)worker-master fashion  b)master-slave fashion  c)master-worker fashion  d)slave-master e)None of these 

 

132HDFS is implemented in _____________ language. a) C  b)Perl  c)Python  d)Java  e)none of these 

 

133 The default block size in hadoop is ______.  a)16MB b) 32MB  c)64MB  d)128MB e) none of these 

 

134. ____ can best be described as a programming model used to develop Hadoop-based applications that can process massive amounts of data.  a)MapReduce  b)Mahout  c)Oozie  d)Hbase  e)None of these 

 

Department of Information Technology 

135 Mapper and Reducer implementations can use the                   to report progress or just indicate that they are alive. (A) Partitioner (B) OutputCollector (C) Reporter (D) All of the above e) None of these 

 

136                      is a generalization of the facility provided by the MapReduce framework to collect data output by the Mapper or the Reducer. (A) Partitioner (B) OutputCollector (C) Reporter (D) All of the above e) None of these 

 

137 A                  serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster.  a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e) None of these 

 

138 HDFS works in a                       fashion. (A)a)masterworker   b) master-slave c) worker/slave d) All of the above e) None of these 

 

139                   NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down.  a) Rack b) Data c) Secondary d) None e)none of these 

 

140 HDFS is implemented in                             programming language. ( a) C++ b) Java c) Scala d) None e) None of these 

 

141 Hadoop developed by _______________  a)Larry Page  b)Doug Cutting  c)Mark  d)Bill Gates  e) None of these 

 

Department of Information Technology 

142.The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely __________.  a)mapped, reduce  b)mapping, Reduction c) Map, Reduction d) Map, Reduce e)None of these 

 

143.mapper and reducer classes extends classes from the package a) org.apache.hadd  op.mapreduce  b)apache.hadoop  c)org.mapreduce  d)hadoop.mapreduce e) None of these 

 

144.HDFS inherited from ------------- file system.  a)Yahoo b) FTFS  c)Google  d)Rediff  e) none of these 

 

145                NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down.  a) Rack b) Data c) Secondary d) Primary e) None of these 

 

146 HDFS works in a                      fashion. a) master-worker  b) master-slave  c) worker/slave d) All of the above e) None of these 

 

147: A                  serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster.  a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e) None of these 

 

148 HDFS provides a command line interface called                       used to interact with HDFS. a) HDFS Shell b) FS Shell c) DFSA Shell d) NO shell e) None of these 

 

 

Department of Information Technology 

149                 is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks. a) DataNode  b) NameNode  c) Data lock  d) Replication e) None of these 

 

150.                    is the primary interface for a user to describe a MapReduce job to the Hadoop framework for execution.  a) Map Parameters b) JobConf c) MemoryConf d) All of the above e) None of these 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Department of Information Technology 

Data Analytics KIT-601 Answer key 

UNIT-1 UNIT-2 UNIT-3 UNIT-4 UNIT-5 1-b 31-b 61-b 91-d 121-a 2-d 32-b 62-b 92-b 122-b 3-d 33-b 63-d 93-d 123-d 4-b 34-c 64-b 94-c 124-a 5-b 35-a 65-d 95-a 125-b 6-c 36-b 66-a 96-c 126-a 7-c 37-b 67-a 97-a 127-c 8-c 38-a 68-b 98-a 128-a 9-d 39-d 69-b 99-a 129-d 10-a 40-d 70-a 100-b 130-c 11-c 41-d 71-b 101-d 131-b 12-a 42-b 72-b 102-b 132-d 13-b 43-a 73-e 103-a 133-c 14-a 44-a 74-d 104-a 134-a 15-b 45-b 75-a 105-b 135-c 16-c 46-d 76-b 106-a,d 136-b 17-d 47-b 77-a,b 107-a 137-b 18-b 48-a 78-d 108-b 138-a 19-a 49-c 79-b 109-a 139-c 20-c 50-b 80-d 110-a 140-b 21-a 51-a 81-b 111-a,b 141-b 22-d 52-d 82-b 112-a 142-d 23-d 53-a 83-c,d 113-a 143-a 24-d 54-d 84-a,b 114-b 144-c 25-a 55-c 85-a 115-c,d 145-c 26-b 56-d 86-b 116-c 146-b 27-a 57-b 87-a,b 117-a,b 147-b 28-d 58-b 88-c 118-b 148-b 29-a 59-d 89-a,d 119-d 149-a 30-b 60-b 90-c 120-a 150-b 

***************Data Analytics MCQs Set - 1*************** 

 

1. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods 

is classified as 

 

1. industry statistics 

2. economic statistics 

3. applied statistics 

4. applied statistics 

 

Answer: applied statistics 

 

2. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? 

 

1. answering yes/no questions about the data 

2. estimating numerical characteristics of the data 

3. modeling relationships within the data 

4. describing associations within the data 

 

Answer: modeling relationships within the data 

 

3. Text Analytics, also referred to as Text Mining? 

 

1. True Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. False 

3. Can be true or False 

4. Can not say 

 

Answer: True 

 

4. What is a hypothesis? 

 

1. A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study. 

2. A research question the results will answer. 

3. A theory that underpins the study. 

4. A statistical method for calculating the extent to which the results could have happened by 

chance. 

 

Answer: A statement that the researcher wants to test through the data collected in a study. 

 

5. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analysing data during a single research 

study called? 

 

1. Interim Analysis 

2. Inter analysis 

3. inter item analysis 

4. constant analysis 

 

Answer: Interim Analysis 

 

6. The process of quantifying data is referred to as ____ Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

1. Topology 

2. Digramming 

3. Enumeration 

4. coding 

 

Answer: Enumeration 

 

7. An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they _ 

 

1. Can reduce time required to analyse data (i.e., after the data are transcribed) 

2. Help in storing and organising data 

3. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time constraints 

4. All of the above 

 

Answer: All of the Above 

 

8. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: True 

 

9. ______ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data. 

 

1. Categories Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. Units 

3. Individuals 

4. None of the above 

 

Answer: Categories 

 

10. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written interviews or field notes into typed text. 

 

1. Segmenting 

2. Coding 

3. Transcription 

4. Mnemoning 

 

Answer: Transcription 

 

11. A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that are unwieldy and complex; it is a major challenge to make sense of the large pool of data. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: True 

 

12. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics. 

 

1. True 

2. False Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: False 

 

13. A set of data organised in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns) format is known as a “data set.” 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: True 

 

14. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ___ 

 

1. Line graph 

2. Bar graph 

3. Scatterplot 

4. Vertical graph 

 

Answer: Bar graph 

 

15. ____ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two 

quantitative variables. 

 

1. Bar graph 

2. pie graph 

3. line graph 

4. Scatterplot Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: Scatterplot 

 

16. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is 

 

1. The standard deviation 

2. The difference between a score and the mean 

3. The range 

4. The mean 

 

Answer: The standard deviation 

 

17. Which of these distributions is used for a testing hypothesis? 

 

1. Normal Distribution 

2. Chi-Squared Distribution 

3. Gamma Distribution 

4. Poisson Distribution 

 

Answer: Chi-Squared Distribution 

 

18. A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called? 

 

1. Statistic 

2. Hypothesis 

3. Level of Significance 

4. Test-Statistic Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: Hypothesis 

 

19. If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be true is called? 

 

1. Null Hypothesis 

2. Statistical Hypothesis 

3. Simple Hypothesis 

4. Composite Hypothesis 

 

Answer: Null Hypothesis 

 

20. If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted? 

 

1. Null Hypothesis 

2. Positive Hypothesis 

3. Negative Hypothesis 

4. Alternative Hypothesis. 

 

Answer: Alternative Hypothesis. 

 

21. Alternative Hypothesis is also called as? 

 

1. Composite hypothesis 

2. Research Hypothesis 

3. Simple Hypothesis 

4. Null Hypothesis Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: Research Hypothesis 

 

 

******** Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum ******** 

 

*************** Data Analytics MCQs Set – 2 *************** 

 

 

1. What is the minimum no. of variables/ features required to perform clustering? 

 

1.0 

2.1 

3.2 

4.3 

 

Answer: 1 

 

2. For two runs of K-Mean clustering is it expected to get same clustering results? 

 

1. Yes 

2. No 

 

Answer: No 

 

3. Which of the following algorithm is most sensitive to outliers? Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

1. K-means clustering algorithm 

2. K-medians clustering algorithm 

3. K-modes clustering algorithm 

4. K-medoids clustering algorithm 

 

Answer: K-means clustering algorithm 

 

4. The discrete variables and continuous variables are two types of 

 

1. Open end classification 

2. Time series classification 

3. Qualitative classification 

4. Quantitative classification 

 

Answer: Quantitative classification 

 

5. Bayesian classifiers is 

 

1. A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory. 

2. Any mechanism employed by a learning system to constrain the search space of a hypothesis 

3. An approach to the design of learning algorithms that is inspired by the fact that when people encounter new situations, they often explain them by reference to familiar experiences, adapting the explanations to fit the new situation. 

4. None of these 

 Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

Answer: A class of learning algorithm that tries to find an optimum classification of a set of examples using the probabilistic theory. 

 

6. Classification accuracy is 

 

1. A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes 

2. Measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory 

3. The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples 

4. None of these 

 

 

Answer: Measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory 

 

7. Euclidean distance measure is 

 

1. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection. 

2. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some pre-defined order and then testing them 

3. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem 

4. none of above 

 

Answer: The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem 

 

8. Hybrid is 

 

1. Combining different types of method or information Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. Approach to the design of learning algorithms that is structured along the lines of the theory of evolution. 

3. Decision support systems that contain an information base filled with the knowledge of an expert formulated in terms of if-then rules. 

4. none of above 

 

Answer: Combining different types of method or information 

 

9. Decision trees use , in that they always choose the option that seems the best available at that moment. 

 

1. Greedy Algorithms 

2. divide and conquer 

3. Backtracking 

4. Shortest path algorithm 

 

Answer: Greedy Algorithms 

 

10. Discovery is 

 

1. It is hidden within a database and can only be recovered if one is given certain clues (an example IS encrypted information). 

2. The process of executing implicit previously unknown and potentially useful information from data 

3. An extremely complex molecule that occurs in human chromosomes and that carries genetic 

information in the form of genes. 

4. None of these 

 Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

Answer: The process of executing implicit previously unknown and potentially useful information from data 

 

11. Hidden knowledge referred to 

 

1. A set of databases from different vendors, possibly using different database paradigms 

2. An approach to a problem that is not guaranteed to work but performs well in most cases 

3. Information that is hidden in a database and that cannot be recovered by a simple SQL query. 

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Information that is hidden in a database and that cannot be recovered by a simple SQL query. 

 

12. Decision trees cannot handle categorical attributes with many distinct values, such as country codes for telephone numbers. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: False 

 

15. CNMICHMENT IS 

 

1. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection 

2. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some pre-defined order and then testing them 

3. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem. 

4. None of these Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum


 

Answer: A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection 

 

14. are easy to implement and can execute efficiently even without prior knowledge of the data, they are among the most popular algorithms for classifying text documents. 

 

1. 1D3 

2. Naive Bayes classifiers 

3. CART 

4. None of above 

 

Answer: Naive Bayes classifiers 

 

15. High entropy means that the partitions in classification are 

 

1. Pure 

2. Not Pure 

3. Usefull 

4. useless 

 

Answer: Uses a single processor or computer 

 

16. Which of the following statements about Naive Bayes is incorrect? 

 

1. Attributes are equally important. 

2. Attributes are statistically dependent of one another given the class value. 

3. Attributes are statistically independent of one another given the class value. Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

4. Attributes can be nominal or numeric 

 

Answer: Attributes are statistically dependent of one another given the class value. 

 

17. The maximum value for entropy depends on the number of classes so if we have 8 Classes what will be the max entropy. 

 

1. Max Entropy is 1 

2. Max Entropy is 2 

3. Max Entropy is 3 

4. Max Entropy is 4 

 

Answer: Max Entropy is 3 

 

18. Point out the wrong statement. 

 

1. k-nearest neighbor is same as k-means 

2. k-means clustering is a method of vector quantization 

3. k-means clustering aims to partition n observations into k clusters 

4. none of the mentioned 

 

Answer: k-nearest neighbor is same as k-means 

 

19. Consider the following example “How we can divide set of articles such that those articles have the same theme (we do not know the theme of the articles ahead of time) ” is this: 

 

1. Clustering 

2. Classification Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

3. Regression 

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Clustering 

 

20. Can we use K Mean Clustering to identify the objects in video? 

 

1. Yes 

2. No 

 

Answer: Yes 

 

21. Clustering techniques are in the sense that the data scientist does not determine, in advance, the labels to apply to the clusters. 

 

1. Unsupervised 

2. supervised 

3. Reinforcement 

4, Neural network 

 

Answer: Unsupervised 

 

22. metric is examined to determine a reasonably optimal value of k. 

 

1. Mean Square Error 

2. Within Sum of Squares (WSS) 

3. Speed Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Within Sum of Squares (WSS) 

 

23. If an itemset is considered frequent, then any subset of the frequent itemset must also be frequent. 

 

1. Apriori Property 

2. Downward Closure Property 

3. Either 1 or 2 

4. Both 1 and 2 

 

Answer: Both 1 and 2Z 

 

24. if {bread,eggs,milk} has a support of 0.15 and {bread,eggs} also has a support of 0.15, the confidence of rule {bread,eggs} = {milk} is 

 

1.0 

2.1 

3.2 

4.3 

 

Answer: 1 

 

25. Confidence is a measure of how X and Y are really related rather than coincidentally happeningtogether. 

 

1. True Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

2. False 

 

Answer: False 

 

26. recommend items based on similarity measures between users and/or items. 

 

1. Content Based Systems 

2. Hybrid System 

3. Collaborative Filtering Systems 

4. None of these 

 

Answer: Collaborative Filtering Systems 

 

27. There are major Classification of Collaborative Filtering Mechanisms 

 

1.1 

2.2 

3.3 

4. none of above 

 

Answer: 2 

 

28. Movie Recommendation to people is an example of 

 

1. User Based Recommendation 

2. Item Based Recommendation 

3. Knowledge Based Recommendation Join:- https://t.me/AKTU_Notes_Books_Quantum

4. content based recommendation 

 

Answer: Item Based Recommendation 

 

29. recommenders rely on an explicitely defined set of recommendation rules 

 

1. Constraint Based 

2. Case Based 

3. Content Based 

4. User Based 

 

Answer: Case Based 

 

30. Parallelized hybrid recommender systems operate dependently of one another and produce separate recommendation lists. 

 

1. True 

2. False 

 

Answer: False 

Department of IT 

COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 1 DataAnalytics(KIT601)

1. The data with no pre-defined organizational form or specific format is  

a. Semi-structured data b. Unstructured data c. Structured data d. None of these 

Ans. b 

 

a. Categorical data  b. Interval data c. Ordinal data  d. Ratio data  

 

Ans. c 

 

Ans. c 

 

2. The data which can be ordered or ranked according to some relationship to one another is  

 

3. Predict the future by examining historical data, detecting patterns or relationships in these data, and then extrapolating these relationships forward in time. a. Prescriptive model b. Descriptive model      c. Predictive model d. None of these 

 

Ans. b 

 

Ans. a 

 

Ans. c 

Ans. d 

4. Person responsible for the genesis of the project,  providing the impetus for the project and core business  problem, generally provides the funding and will gauge  the degree of value from the final outputs of the working  team is a. Business User b. Project Sponsor c. Business  Intelligence  Analyst d. Data Engineer 

 

5. Deep technical skills to assist with tuning SQL queries for  data management, extraction and support data ingest to  analytic sandbox is handled by ___________.  a. Data Engineer b. Business User c. Project Sponsor d. Business  Intelligence  Analyst 

 

6. Business domain expertise with deep understanding of the data, KPIs, key metrics and business intelligence from a reporting perspective is key role of ____________. 

 

a. Business User b. Project Sponsor c. Business  Intelligence  Analyst d. Data Engineer 

 

7. _____________ is concerned with uncertainty or inaccuracy of the data. 

 

a.  Volume b. Velocity c. Variety  d. Veracity 

 

Ans. d 

 

Ans. d 

Ans. True 

11. The process of exploring data and reports in order to extract meaningful insights, which can be used to better understand and improve business performance. 

a. Reporting  b. Analysis  c. Summarizing d. None of these  

 

Ans. b 

Ans. a 

8. What are the V’s in the characteristics of Big data? a. Volume b. Velocity c. Variety  d. All of these 

 

9. What are the types of reporting in data analytics? 

a. Canned reports  b. Dashboard reports c. Alert reports     d. All of above 

 

10.Massive Parallel Processing (MPP) database breaks the data into independent chunks with independent disk and CPU resources. 

a. True  b. False 

 

12. The key components of an analytical sandbox are:  (i) Business analytics (ii) Analytical sandbox platform  (iii) Data access and delivery  (iv) Data sources  

 

a. True  b. False 

 


 

Ans. b 

 

14. Which phase Prepare an analytic sandbox, in which you can work for the duration of the project. Perform ELT and ETL to get data into the sandbox, and begin transforming the data so you can work with it and analyze it. Familiarize yourself with the data thoroughly and take steps to condition the data.  

a. Data preparation  b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building  Ans. a 

 

Ans.b 

Ans. a 

13. The ____________phase learn the business domain, including relevant history, such as whether the organization or business unit has attempted similar projects in the past, from which you can learn. Assess the resources you will have to support the project, in terms of people, technology, time, and data. Frame the business problem as an analytic challenge that can be addressed in subsequent phases. Formulate initial hypotheses (IH) to test and begin learning the data.  a. Data preparation b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 

 

15. Which phase uses SQL, Python, R, or excel to perform various data modifications and transformations.  

 

a. Data preparation  b. Data cleaning c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 

 

16. By definition, Database Administrator is a person who ___________ 

 

a. Provisions and configures database environment to support the analytical needs of the working team. b. Ensure key milestones and objectives are met on time and at expected quality. c. Deep technical skills to assist with tuning SQL queries for data management, extraction and support data ingest to analytic sandbox. d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

Ans. c 

Ans. b 

Ans .b 

17. ETL stands for  

 

a. Extract, Load, Transform b. Evaluate, Transform ,Load c. Extract , Loss , Transform d. None of the above 

 

18. The phase Develop data sets for testing, training, and production purposes. Get the best environment you can for executing models and workflows, including fast hardware and parallel processing is referred to as  

 

a. Data preparation  b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 

 

19. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 

a. Data Mining  b. Predictive Intelligence c. Business Intelligence d. Text Analytics 

 

20. User rating given to a movie in a scale 1-10, can be considered as an attribute of type? 

a. Nominal  b. Ordinal  c. Interval  d. Ratio 

 

Ans. d 

22. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 

a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Can be true or false  d. Cannot say 

 

Ans. a 

Ans. b 

Ans.b 

 

25. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 

a. Analytics b. Data mining c. Big Data d. Data Warehouse 

21. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 

a. William S.  b. Hans Peter Luhn  c. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro  d.  John Tukey 

 

23. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 

a. Data Mining  b. Predictive Intelligence c. Business Intelligence d. Text Analytics 

 

24. Which of the following step is performed by data scientist after acquiring the data? 

a. Data Cleansing b. Data Integration c. Data Replication d. All of the mentioned 

 


 

Ans. c 

 

26. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data. Is this true or False. a. TRUE b. FALSE 

 

Ans. a 

27. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 

a. TRUE b. FALSE 

 

Ans. b 

28. _____________ have a structure but cannot be stored in a database. 

 

a. Structured b. Semi-Structured c. Unstructured d. None of these 

 

Ans. b 

29. ____________refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business. 

 

a. Velocity b. Variety c. Value d. Volume 

 

Ans. c 

30. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy. 

 

a. TRUE b. FALSE 

 

Ans.b 

NPTEL Questions 

31. Analysing the data to answer why some phenomenon related to learning happened is a type of  

a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics 

c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 

Ans. B 

32. Analysing the data to answer what will happen next is a type of  

a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 

Ans. D 

33. Learning analytics at institutions/University, regional or national level is termed as  

a. Educational data mining  b. Business intelligence  c. Academic analytics d. None of the above 

Ans. C 

34. Which of the following questions is not a type of Predictive Analytics? 

a. What is the average score of all students in the CBSE 10th Maths Exam? b. What will be the performance of a students in next questions? c. Which courses will the student take in the next semester? d. What is the average attendance of the class over the semester 

Ans A,D 

35. A courses instructor has data about students attendance in her course in the past semester. Based on this data, she constructs a line graph type of analytics is she doing? 

a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 

Ans. A 

36. she then correlates the attendance with their final exam scores. She realizes that students who score 90% and above also have an attandence of more then 75%. What type of analytics is she doing? 

a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 

Ans. B 


 

 

 

 

38. Why one should not go for sampling?  

a. Less costly to administer than a census.  b. The person authorizing the study is comfortable with the sample.  c. Because the research process is sometimes destructive  d. None of the above 

Ans. d 

39. Stratified random sampling is a method of selecting a sample in which:  

a. the sample is first divided into strata, and then random samples are taken from each stratum  b. various strata are selected from the sample  c. the population is first divided into strata, and then random samples are drawn from each stratum  d. None of these alternatives is correct. 

Ans. c 

SET II 

1. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 

e. William S.  f. Hans Peter Luhn  g. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro  h.  John Tukey 

Ans D 

2. What is classification? 

 

a) deciding what features to use in a pattern recognition problem b) deciding what class an input pattern belongs to c) deciding what type of neural network to use d) none of the mentioned 

Ans. B 

 

3. Data in ___________ bytes size is called Big Data. 

 

A. Tera B. Giga C. Peta D. Meta 

 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: data in Peta bytes i.e. 10^15 byte size is called Big Data. 4. How many V's of Big Data 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Big Data was defined by the “3Vs” but now there are “5Vs” of Big Data which are Volume, Velocity, Variety, Veracity, Value 

 

5. Transaction data of the bank is? 

 

A. structured data B. unstructured datat C. Both A and B D. None of the above 

 

Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Data which can be saved in tables are structured data like the transaction data of the bank. 6. In how many forms BigData could be found? 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 

 

Ans : B 

 

Explanation: BigData could be found in three forms: Structured, Unstructured and Semistructured. 7. Which of the following are Benefits of Big Data Processing? 

 

A. Businesses can utilize outside intelligence while taking decisions B. Improved customer service C. Better operational efficiency D. All of the above 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All of the above are Benefits of Big Data Processing. 

 

8. Which of the following are incorrect Big Data Technologies? 

 

A. Apache Hadoop B. Apache Spark C. Apache Kafka D. Apache Pytarch 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Apache Pytarch is incorrect Big Data Technologies. 9. The overall percentage of the world’s total data has been created just within the past two years is ? 

 

A. 80% B. 85% C. 90% D. 95% 

 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The overall percentage of the world’s total data has been created just within the past two years is 90%. 10. Apache Kafka is an open-source platform that was created by? 

 

A. LinkedIn B. Facebook 

C. Google D. IBM 

 

Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Apache Kafka is an open-source platform that was created by LinkedIn in the year 2011. 

 

11. What was Hadoop named after? 

 

A. Creator Doug Cutting’s favorite circus act B. Cuttings high school rock band C. The toy elephant of Cutting’s son D. A sound Cutting’s laptop made during Hadoop development 

 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Doug Cutting, Hadoop creator, named the framework after his child’s stuffed toy elephant. 12. What are the main components of Big Data? 

 

A. MapReduce B. HDFS C. YARN D. All of the above 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All of the above are the main components of Big Data. 

 

13. Point out the correct statement. 

 

A. Hadoop do need specialized hardware to process the data B. Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data C. In Hadoop programming framework output files are divided into lines or records D. None of the above 

 

Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Hadoop batch processes data distributed over a number of computers ranging in 100s and 1000s. 14. Which of the following fields come under the umbrella of Big Data? 

 

A. Black Box Data B. Power Grid Data 

C. Search Engine Data D. All of the above 

 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All options are the fields come under the umbrella of Big Data. 

 

15. Which of the following is not an example of Social Media? 1. Twitter 2. Google 3. Instagram 4. Youtube 

 

ANs: 2 (Google) 

16. By 2025, the volume of digital data will increase to 1. TB 2. YB 3. ZB 4. EB Ans: 3  ZB 

17. Data Analysis is a process of 1. inspecting data 2. cleaning data 3. transforming data 4. All of Above 

 

Ans. 4 All of above 

18. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 1. Data Mining 2. Predictive Intelligence 3. Business Intelligence 4. Text Analytics 

 

Ans. 2 Predictive Intelligence 

19. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 1. Analytics 2. Data mining 3. Big data 4. Data warehouse 

 

Ans. 3 Big data 

20. In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with ? 

1. Integer descriptor 2. floating descriptor 3. numerical descriptor 4. decimal descriptor 

 

Ans. 3 numerical descriptor 

21. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 

 

TRUE 

22. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 1. True 2. False 

 

False 

23. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 

 

False 

24. Hortonworks was introduced by Cloudera and owned by Yahoo 1. True 2. False 

 

False 

25. ____ refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business 1. Velocity 2. variety 3. Value 4. Volume 

 

Ans. 3 Value 

26. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 1. William S. 2. Hans Peter Luhn 3.  Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro 4.  John Tukey 

 

Ans. 4 John Tukey 

27. Files are divided into ____ sized Chunks. 1. Static 2. Dynamic 3. Fixed 4. Variable 

 

Ans. 3 Fixed 

28. _____ is an open source framework for storing data and running application on clusters of commodity hardware. 1. HDFS 2. Hadoop 3. MapReduce 4. Cloud 

 

Ans. 2 Hadoop 

29. ____ is factors considered before Adopting Big Data Technology 1. Validation 2. Verification 3. Data 4. Design 

 

Ans. 1 Validation 

30. Which among the following is not a Data mining and analytical applications? 1. profile matching 2. social network analysis 3. facial recognition 4. Filtering 

 

Ans. 4 Filtering 

31. Which storage subsystem can support massive data volumes of increasing size. 1. Extensibility 2. Fault tolerance 3. Scalability 4. High-speed I/O capacity 

 

Ans. 3 Scalability 

32. ______ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. 

1. HDFS 2. MAP REDUCE 3. HADOOP 4. HIVE Ans. MAP REDUCE 

 

 

33. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis? 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 

 

Ans : A 

 

Explanation: In data analysis, two main statistical methodologies are used Descriptive statistics and Inferential statistics. 

 

34. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say 

 

Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 

 

35. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as 1. industry statistics 2. economic statistics 3. applied statistics 4. applied statistics 

 

Ans. applied statistics 

36. Point out the correct statement. a) Descriptive analysis is first kind of data analysis performed b) Descriptions can be generalized without statistical modelling 

c) Description and Interpretation are same in descriptive analysis d) None of the mentioned 

 

Answer: b Explanation: Descriptive analysis describe a set of data. 

 

37. What are the five V’s of Big Data? 

A. Volume 

B. Velocity 

C. Variety 

D. All the above 

Answer: Option D 

 

38. What are the main components of Big Data? 

A. MapReduce 

B. HDFS 

C. YARN 

D. All of these 

Answer: Option D 

 

39. What are the different features of Big Data Analytics? 

A. Open-Source 

B. Scalability 

C. Data Recovery 

D. All the above 

Answer: Option D 

40.  Which of the following refers to the problem of finding abstracted patterns (or structures) in the unlabeled data? 

A. Supervised learning 

B. Unsupervised learning 

C. Hybrid learning 

D. Reinforcement learning 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Unsupervised learning is a type of machine learning algorithm that is generally used to find the hidden structured and patterns in the given unlabeled data. 

41. Which one of the following refers to querying the unstructured textual data? 

A. Information access 

B. Information update 

C. Information retrieval 

D. Information manipulation 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Information retrieval refers to querying the unstructured textual data. We can also understand information retrieval as an activity (or process) in which the tasks of obtaining information from system recourses that are relevant to the information required from the huge source of information. 

42. For what purpose, the analysis tools pre-compute the summaries of the huge amount of data? 

A. In order to maintain consistency 

B. For authentication 

C. For data access 

D. To obtain the queries response 

Answer: d 

Explanation: Whenever a query is fired, the response of the query would be put very earlier. So, for the query response, the analysis tools pre-compute the summaries of the huge amount of data. To understand it in more details, consider the following example: 

43. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the data cleaning? 

It refers to the process of data cleaning 

It refers to the transformation of wrong data into correct data 

It refers to correcting inconsistent data 

All of the above 

Answer: d 

Explanation: Data cleaning is a kind of process that is applied to data set to remove the noise from the data (or noisy data), inconsistent data from the given data. It also involves the process of transformation where wrong data is transformed into the correct data as well. In other words, we can also say that data cleaning is a kind of pre-process in which the given set of data is prepared for the data warehouse. 

44. Any data with unknown form or the structure is classified as _ data. a. Structured b. Unstructured c. Semi-structured d. None of above Ans. b 

 

45.____ means relating to the issuing of reports. a. Analysis b. Reporting c. Reporting and Analysis d. None of the above 

 

Ans. b 

 

46.Veracity involves the reliability of the data this is ________due to the numerous data sources of big data a) Easy and difficulty b) Easiness c) Demanding d) none of these 

 

Ans. c 47. ____is a process of defining the measurement of a phenomenon that is not directly measurable, though its existence is implied by other phenomena. a. Data preparation b. Model planning c. Communicating results d. Operationalization 

 

Ans. d 

 

48. _____data is data whose elements are addressable for effective analysis. 

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 

Ans. a 

49. ______data is information that does not reside in a relational database but that have some organizational properties that make it easier to analyze. 

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 

Ans. b 

50. ______data is a data which is not organized in a predefined manner or does not have a predefined data model, thus it is not a good fit for a mainstream relational database. 

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 

Ans. c 

51. There are ___ types of big data. 

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 

Ans. b 

52. Google search is an example of _________ data. 

a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 

Ans. c 

 Department of IT 

COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 2 DataAnalytics(KIT601)

1. Maximum aposteriori classifier is also known as: a. Decision tree classifier b. Bayes classifier c. Gaussian classifier   d. Maximum margin classifier 

 

Ans. B 

2. Which of the following sentence is FALSE regarding regression? 

 

a. It relates inputs to outputs. b. It is used for prediction. c. It may be used for interpretation. d.  It discovers causal relationships. 

 

Ans. d 

3. Suppose you are working on stock market prediction, and you would like to predict the price of a particular stock tomorrow (measured in dollars). 

You want to use a learning algorithm for this. 

 

a. Regression b. Classification  c. Clustering d. None of these  

 

Ans. a 

4. In binary logistic regression: 

 

a. The dependent variable is divided into two equal subcategories. b. The dependent variable consists of two categories. c. There is no dependent variable. d. The dependent variable is continuous. 

 

Ans. b 

 

5. A fair six-sided die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting 4 on the first roll and not getting 6 on the second roll? 

 

a. 1/36 b. 5/36 c. 1/12 d. 1/9 

 

Ans. b 

 

6. The parameter β0 is termed as intercept term and the parameter β1 is termed as slope parameter. These parameters are usually called as _________ 

 

     a  Regressionists      b. Coefficients      c. Regressive      d. Regression coefficients 

 

Ans. d 

 

7. ________ is a simple approach to supervised learning. It assumes that the dependence of Y on X1, X2… Xp is linear. 

 

a. Gradient Descent b. Linear regression 

c. Logistic regression d. Greedy algorithms 

 

Ans. c 

8. What makes the interpretation of conditional effects extra challenging in logistic regression? 

 

a. It is not possible to model interaction effects in logistic regression b. The maximum likelihood estimation makes the results unstable c. The conditional effect is dependent on the values of all X-variables d. The results has to be raised by its natural logarithm. 

 

Ans. c 9. If there were a perfect positive correlation between two interval/ratio variables, the Pearson's r test would give a correlation coefficient of: 

 

a. - 0.328  b. +1  c. +0.328  d. – 1 

 

Ans.b 

10. Logistic Regression transforms the output probability to in a range of [0, 1]. Which of the following function is used for this purpose? 

 

a. Sigmoid b. Mode  c. Square  d. All of these 

 

Ans.a 

 

12. Generally which of the following method(s) is used for predicting continuous dependent variable? 

1. Linear Regression 2. Logistic Regression 

a. 1 and 2  

b. only 1  c. only 2  d. None of these 

 

Ans.b 

 

13. Mean of the set of numbers {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is? 

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 

 

Ans.b 

14. Name of a movie, can be considered as an attribute of type? 

 

a. Nominal  

b. Ordinal 

c. Interval 

   d. Ratio 

 

Ans.a 

 

15. Let A be an example, and C be a class. The probability P(C) is known as: 

 

a.  Apriori probability   

b.  Aposteriori probability   

c.  Class conditional probability 

 d. None of the above 

 

Ans.a 


 

16. Consider two binary attributes X and Y. We know that the attributes are independent and probability P(X=1) = 0.6, and P(Y=0) = 0.4. What is the probability that both X and Y have values 1? 

 

a. 0. 0.06  b. 0.16  c. 0.26  d.  0.36 

 

Ans. d 

17. In regression the output is a. Discrete  b. Continuous  c. Continuous and always lie in same range d. May be discrete and continuous  

 

Ans. b 

18. The probabilistic model that finds the most probable prediction using the training data and space of hypotheses to make a prediction for a new data instance.  

 

a. Concept learning  b. Bayes optimal classifier  c. EM algorithm  d. Logistic regression  

 

Ans. b 

19 . State whether the following condition is true or not. “In Bayesian theorem , it is important to find the probability of both the events occurring simultaneously”  

a. True  b. False  

 

Ans. b 20 .If the correlation coefficient is a positive value, then the slope of the regression line  

 

a. can be either negative or positive  

b. must also be positive c. can be zero d. cannot be zero 

 

Ans. b 

21. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? 

 

a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent c. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important and are independent. d. None of the above options 

 

Ans. c 

22. Previous probabilities in Bayes Theorem that are changed with help of new available information are classified as _______   

a. independent probabilities b. posterior probabilities c. interior probabilities d. dependent probabilities 

 

Ans. b 

23. Which of the following methods do we use, to find the best fit line for data in Linear Regression? 

 

a. Least Square Error b. Maximum Likelihood c. Logarithmic Loss d. Both A and B 

 

Ans. a 

24. What is the consequence between a node and its predecessors while creating Bayesian network? 

 

a. Conditionally dependent b.  Dependent c. Conditionally independent d. Both a & b 

 

Ans. c 25. Bayes rule can be used to __________conditioned on one piece of evidence. 

 

a. Solve queries b. Answer probabilistic queries c. Decrease complexity of queries d. Increase complexity of queries 

 

Ans.b 

 

26. Which of the following options is/are correct in reference to Bayesian Learning? 

 

a. New instances can be classified by combining the predictions of multiple hypotheses, weighted by their probabilities. b. Bayesian methods can accommodate hypotheses that make probabilistic predictions. c. Each observed training example can incrementally decrease or increase the estimated probability that a hypothesis is correct. d. All of the mentioned 

 

Ans. d 

27. When the cell is said to be fired? a. if potential of body reaches a steady threshold values b. if there is impulse reaction c. during upbeat of heart d. none of the mentioned 

 

Ans.a 28. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? 

a.  answering yes/no questions about the data b. estimating numerical characteristics of the data c. modeling relationships within the data d. describing associations within the data  

 

Ans.c 

29. Suppose you are building a SVM model on data X. The data X can be error prone which means that you should not trust any specific data point too much. Now think that you want to build a SVM model which has quadratic kernel function of polynomial degree 2 that uses Slack variable C as one of its hyper parameter. Based upon that give the answer for following question.  What would happen when you use very large value of C? 

a. We can still classify data correctly for given setting of hyper parameter C b. We cannot classify data correctly for given setting of hyper parameter C. c. Can’t Say 

d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

30. What is/are true about kernel in SVM? 

(a) Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space  (b) It’s a similarity function 

 

a. Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space b. It’s a similarity function  c. Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space and It’s a similarity function d. None of these   

 

Ans. c 

 31. Suppose you have trained an SVM with linear decision boundary after training SVM, you correctly infer that your SVM model is under fitting.                                        (a) Which of the following option would you more likely to consider iterating SVM next time? Tasks a. You want to increase your data points. b. You want to decrease your data points. c. You will try to calculate more variables. d. You will try to reduce the features. 

 

Ans. c 

32. Suppose you are using RBF kernel in SVM with high Gamma value. What does this signify? 

a. The model would consider even far away points from hyperplane for modeling  b. The model would consider only the points close to the hyperplane for modeling. c. The model would not be affected by distance of points from hyperplane for modeling. d. None of these 

 

Ans.b 

33. Which of the following can only be used when training data are linearly separable? 

a. Linear Logistic Regression. b. Linear Soft margin SVM c. Linear hard-margin SVM d. Parzen windows. 

 

Ans.c 

 

34. Using the kernel trick, one can get non-linear decision boundaries using algorithms designed originally for linear models. 

a. True  b. False  

 

Ans. a 

 

35. Support vectors are the data points that lie closest to the decision surface. 

a. True b. False 

 

Ans. True  

36. Which of the following statement is true for a multilayered perceptron? 

a. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the next layer b. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the same layer c.  Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the previous layer d. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the output layer 

Ans. a 

37. Which of the following is/are true regarding an SVM? 

a. For two dimensional data points, the separating hyperplane learnt by a linear SVM will be a straight line. b. In theory, a Gaussian kernel SVM cannot model any complex separating hyperplane. c. For every kernel function used in a SVM, one can obtain an equivalent closed form basis expansion. d. Overfitting in an SVM is not a function of number of support vectors. 

 

Ans. a 

38. The function of distance that is used to determine the weight of each training example in instance based learning is known as______________ 

a. Kernel Function b. Linear Function c. Binomial distribution d. All of the above 

 

Ans. a 39. What is the name of the function in the following statement “A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0”? 

a. Step function b. Heaviside function c. Logistic function d. Binary function  

 

Ans. b 

40. Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. 

 

a. All of the mentioned are true b. (ii) and (iii) are true c. (i) and (ii) are true d. Only (i) is true  

Ans. a 

41. Which of the following is an application of NN (Neural Network)? 

 

a. Sales forecasting b. Data validation c. Risk management d. All of the mentioned 

 

Ans. d 

42. A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0. 

 

a. True b. False 

 

Ans. a 

43. In what ways can output be determined from activation value in ANN? 

 

a. Deterministically 

b. Stochastically c. both deterministically & stochastically d. none of the mentioned 

 

Ans. c 

45. In ANN, the amount of output of one unit received by another unit depends on what? 

 

a. output unit b. input unit c. activation value d. weight 

 

Ans. d 

46. Function of dendrites in ANN is  

 

a. receptors b. transmitter c. both receptor & transmitter d. none of the mentioned 

 

Ans. a 

47. Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. 

 

 

a. All of the mentioned are true b. (ii) and (iii) are true c. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true d. Only (i) is true  

 

Ans. a 48. What is the name of the function in the following statement “A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0”? 

 

a. Step function b. Heaviside function 

c. Logistic function d. Binary function  

 

Ans. b 

49. 4 input neuron has weight 1, 2, 3 and 4. The transfer function is linear with the constant of proportionality being equal to 2.  The inputs are 4,10,5 and 20 respectively. The output will be 

 

a. 238  b. 76 c. 119  d. 123 

 

Ans. a 

50. Which of the following are real world applications of the SVM? 

a. Text and Hypertext Categorization b. Image Classification c. Clustering of News Articles d. All of the above 

 

Ans.d 

51. Support vector machine may be termed as: 

a. Maximum apriori classifier  

b. Maximum margin classifier 

c. Minimum apriori classifier   

d.  Minimum margin classifier 

 

Ans.b 

52. What is purpose of Axon? a.  receptors b. transmitter c. transmission d. none of the mentioned 

 


 

 

53. The model developed from sample data having the form of Å· = b0 + b1X is known as: Ans: - C – estimated regression equation 

54. In regression analysis, which of the following is not a required assumption about the error term ε? 

Ans: - A – The expected value of the error term is one 

55. ____________ are algorithms that learn from their more complex environments (hence eco) to generalize, approximate and simplify solution logic. 

a. Fuzzy Relational DB 

b. Ecorithms 

c. Fuzzy Set 

d. None of the mentioned 

Ans. c 

 

56. The truth values of traditional set theory is ____________ and that of fuzzy set is __________ 

a. Either 0 or 1, between 0 & 1 

b. Between 0 & 1, either 0 or 1 

c. Between 0 & 1, between 0 & 1 

d. Either 0 or 1, either 0 or 1 

Ans. a 

57. What is the form of Fuzzy logic? 

a. Two-valued logic 

b. Crisp set logic 

Ans.c 

c. Many-valued logic 

d. Binary set logic 

Ans. c 

58. Fuzzy logic is usually represented as ___________ 

a. IF-THEN rules 

b. IF-THEN-ELSE rules 

c. Both IF-THEN-ELSE rules & IF-THEN rules 

d. None of the mentioned 

Ans. a 

59. ______________ is/are the way/s to represent uncertainty. 

a. Fuzzy Logic 

b. Probability 

c. Entropy 

d. All of the mentioned 

Ans.d 

60. Fuzzy Set theory defines fuzzy operators. Choose the fuzzy operators from the following. 

a. AND 

b. OR  

c. NOT 

d. All of mentioned 

Ans. d 

61. The values of the set membership is represented by ___________ 

a. Discrete Set 

b. Degree of truth 

c. Probabilities 

d. Both Degree of truth & Probabilities View Answer 

Ans. b 

62. Fuzzy logic is extension of Crisp set with an extension of handling the concept of Partial Truth. 

a. True  

b. False 

Ans. a 

 SET II 

 

1. Sentiment Analysis is an example of 1. Regression 2. Classification 3. clustering 4. Reinforcement Learning 

 

1. 1, 2 and 4 2. 1, 2 and 3 3. 1 and 3 4. 1 and 2 Show Answer Ans. 1, 2 and 4 

2. The self-organizing maps can also be considered as the instance of _________ type of learning. 

A. Supervised learning B. Unsupervised learning C. Missing data imputation D. Both A & C 

 

Answer: B Explanation: The Self Organizing Map (SOM), or the Self Organizing Feature Map is a kind of Artificial Neural Network which is trained through unsupervised learning. 

3.  The following given statement can be considered as the examples of_________ 

Suppose one wants to predict the number of newborns according to the size of storks' population by performing supervised learning 

A. Structural equation modeling B. Clustering C. Regression D. Classification 

Answer: C 

Explanation: The above-given statement can be considered as an example of regression. Therefore the correct answer is C. 

4. In the example predicting the number of newborns, the final number of total newborns can be considered as the _________ 

A. Features B. Observation C. Attribute 

D. Outcome 

a. Answer: d b. Explanation: In the example of predicting the total number of newborns, the result will be represented as the outcome. Therefore, the total number of newborns will be found in the outcome or addressed by the outcome. 

5. Which of the following statement is true about the classification? 

A. It is a measure of accuracy B. It is a subdivision of a set C. It is the task of assigning a classification D. None of the above 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The term "classification" refers to the classification of the given data into certain sub-classes or groups according to their similarities or on the basis of the specific given set of rules. 

6. Which one of the following correctly refers to the task of the classification? 

A. A measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory B. The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples C. A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes D. None of the above 

Answer: B 

Explanation: The task of classification refers to dividing the set into subsets or in the numbers of the classes. Therefore the correct answer is C. 

 

7. _____is an observation which contains either very low value or very high value in comparison to other observed values. It may hamper the result, so it should be avoided. a. Dependent Variable b. Independent Variable c. Outlier Variable d. None of the above Ans. c 

 

8. _______is a type of regression which models the non-linear dataset using a linear model. 

a. Polynomial Regression b. Logistic Regression c. Linear Regression d. Decision Tree Regression 

Ans. a 

9. The prediction of the weight of a person when his height is known, is a simple example of regression. The function used in R language is_____. 

a. Im() b. print() c. predict() d. summary( ) 

Ans. c 

10. There is the following syntax of lm() function in multiple regression. 

lm(y ~ x1+x2+x3...., data)   a. y is predictor and x1,x2,x3 are the dependent variables. b. y is dependent and x1,x2,x3 are the predictors. c. data is predictor variable. d. None of the above. 

Ans. b 

11. _______is a probabilistic graphical model which represents a set of variables and their conditional dependencies using a directed acyclic graph. 

a. A Bayesian network b. Bayes Network c. Bayesian Model d. All of the above 

Ans. d 

 

12. In support vector regression, _____is a function used to map lower dimensional data into higher dimensional data 

A) Boundary line B) Kernel C) Hyper Plane D) Support Vector Ans. B 

 

 

13. If the independent variables are highly correlated with each other than other variables then such condition is called___________ a) outlier b) Multicollinearity c) under fitting d) independent variable 

 

Ans. b 

 

14. The Bayesian network graph does not contain any cyclic graph. Hence, it is known as a ____ or_____. 

a. Directed Acyclic Graph or DAG b. Directed Cyclic Graph or DCG. c. Both the above. d. None of the above. 

Ans. a 

 

 

15. The hyperplane with maximum margin is called the ______ hyperplane. a. Non-optimal b. Optimal c. None of the above d. Requires one more option 

Ans. b 

16. One more _____ is needed for non-linear SVM. 

a. Dimension b. Attribute c. Both the above d. None of the above 

Ans. a 

17. A subset of dataset to train the machine learning model, and we already know the output. 

a. Training set b. Test set c. Both the above 

d. None of the above 

Ans. a 

18. ______is the final step of data preprocessing in machine learning. It is a technique to standardize the independent variables of the dataset in a specific range. In_____, we put our variables in the same range and in the same scale so that no any variable dominate the other variable 

a. Feature Sampling b. Feature Scaling c. None of the above d. Both the above 

Ans. b 

19. Principal components analysis (PCA) is a statistical technique that allows identifying underlying linear patterns in a data set so it can be expressed in terms of other data set of a significantly ____ dimension without much loss of information. a. Lower b. Higher c. Equal d. None of the above 

Ans. a 

 

20. _____ units which are internal to the network and do not directly interact with the environment. a. Input b. Output c. Hidden d. None of the above 

Ans. c 

 

21. In a ____ network there is an ordering imposed on the nodes in a network: if there is a connection from unit a to unit b then there can-not be a connection from b to a. a. Feedback b. Feed-Forward c. None of the above 

Ans. b  

 

22. _____ contains the multiple logical values and these values are the truth values of a variable or problem between 0 and 1. This concept was introduced by Lofti Zadeh in 1965 a. Boolean Logic b. Fuzzy Logic c. None of the above 

Ans. b 

 

23. ______is a module or component, which takes the fuzzy set inputs generated by the Inference Engine, and then transforms them into a crisp value. a. Fuzzification b. Defuzzification c. Inference Engine d. None of the above 

Ans. b 

 

24. The most common application of time series analysis is forecasting future values of a numeric value using the ______ structure of the ____ a. Shares,data b. Temporal,data c. Permanent,data d. None of these 

Ans. b  

 

25. Identify the component of a time series a. Temporal b. Shares c. Trend d. Policymakers 

Ans. c 

 

26. Predictable pattern that recurs or repeats over regular intervals. Seasonality is often observed within a year or less: This define the term__________ a. Trend b. Seasonality c. Cycles d. Recession 

Ans. b 


 27. ________Learning uses a training set that consists of a set of pattern pairs: an input pattern and the corresponding desired (or target) output pattern. The desired output may be regarded as the ‘network’s ‘teacher” for that input a. Unsupervised b. Supervised c. Modular d. Object  

Ans. b 

 

28. The _______ perceptron consists of a set of input units connected by a single layer of weights to a set of output units a. Multi layer b. Single layer c. Hidden layer d. None of these 

Ans. b 

 

29. If we add another layer of weights to single layer perceptron , then we find that there is a new set of units that are neither input or output units; for simplicity we consider more than 2 layers has  a. Single layer perceptron b. Multi layer perceptron c. Hidden  layer d. None of these 

Ans. b 

 

30. Patterns that repeat over a certain period of time a. Seasonal b. Trend c. None of the above d. Both of the above 

Ans. a 

31. Which of the following is characteristic of best machine learning method ? 

a. Fast b.  Accuracy c. Scalable d. All of the Mentioned 

 

Ans. d 


 

32. Supervised learning differs from unsupervised clustering in that supervised learning requires a. at least one input attribute. b. input attributes to be categorical. c. at least one output attribute. d. ouput attriubutes to be categorical. Ans. d 

 

33. Supervised learning and unsupervised clustering both require at least one a. hidden attribute. b. output attribute. c. input attribute. d. categorical attribute. Ans. c 

 

34. Which statement is true about prediction problems? a. The output attribute must be categorical. b. The output attribute must be numeric. c. The resultant model is designed to determine future outcomes. d. The resultant model is designed to classify current behavior. Ans. c 

 

35. Which statement is true about neural network and linear regression models? a. Both models require input attributes to be numeric.  b. Both models require numeric attributes to range between 0 and 1. c. The output of both models is a categorical attribute value. d. Both techniques build models whose output  is determined by a  linear sum of weighted input attribute values. Ans. a 

 

36. A feed-forward neural network is said to be  fully connected when a. all nodes are connected to each other. b. all nodes at the same layer are connected to each other. c. all nodes at one layer are connected to all nodes in the next higher layer. d. all hidden layer nodes are connected to all output layer nodes. Ans. c 

 

37. Machine learning techniques differ from statistical techniques in that machine learning methods  a. typically assume an underlying distribution for the data. 

b. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data. c. are not able to explain their behavior. d. have trouble with large-sized datasets. Ans. b 

 

38. This supervised learning technique can process both numeric and categorical input attributes. a. linear regression b. Bayes classifier c. logistic regression d. backpropagation learning Ans. b 

 

39. This technique associates a conditional probability value with each data instance. a. linear regression b. logistic regression c. simple regression d. multiple linear regression Ans. b 

 

40. Logistic regression is a ________ regression technique that is used to model data having a _____outcome.  a. linear, numeric b. linear, binary c. nonlinear, numeric d. nonlinear, binary Ans. d 

 

41. Which of the following problems is best solved using time-series analysis? a. Predict whether someone is a likely candidate for having a stroke. b. Determine if an individual should be given an unsecured loan. c. Develop a profile of a star athlete. d. Determine the likelihood that someone will terminate their cell phone contract. 

 

Ans. d 

 

42. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent 

c. Both A and B d. None of the above options Ans. c 43. Simple regression assumes a __________ relationship between the input  attribute and output attribute. a. linear b. quadratic c. reciprocal d. inverse 

 

44. With Bayes classifier, missing data items are a. treated as equal compares. b. treated as unequal compares. c. replaced with a default value. d. ignored. 45. What is Machine learning? a. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs b. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs c. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs d. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs 

 

Ans: a 

 

46. Automated vehicle is an example of ______ a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Active learning d. Reinforcement learning 

 

Ans: a 

 

47. Multilayer perceptron network is a. Usually, the weights are initially set to small random values b. A hard-limiting activation function is often used c. The weights can only be updated after all the training vectors have been presented d. Multiple layers of neurons allow for less complex decision boundaries than a single layer 

 

Ans: a 

 

48. Neural networks a. optimize a convex cost function b. cannot be used for regression as well as classification c. always output values between 0 and 1 d. can be used in an ensemble 

 

Ans: d 

 

49. In neural networks, nonlinear activation functions such as sigmoid, tanh, and ReLU a. speed up the gradient calculation in backpropagation, as compared to linear units b. are applied only to the output units c. help to learn nonlinear decision boundaries d. always output values between 0 and 1 

 

Ans: c 

 

50. Which of the following is a disadvantage of decision trees? 

a. Factor analysis b. Decision trees are robust to outliers c. Decision trees are prone to be overfit d. None of the above 

 

Ans: c 

 

51. Back propagation is a learning technique that adjusts weights in the neural network by propagating weight changes. a. Forward from source to sink b. Backward from sink to source c. Forward from source to hidden nodes d. Backward from sink to hidden nodes 

 

Ans: b 

52. Identify the following activation function : φ(V) = Z + (1/ 1 + exp (– x * V + Y) ),Z, X, Y are parameters  

a. Step function b. Ramp function c. Sigmoid function 

d. Gaussian function 

 

Ans: c 

53. An artificial neuron receives n inputs x1, x2, x3............xnwith  weights w1, w2, ..........wn attached to the input links. The weighted sum_________________ is computed to be passed on to a non-linear filter  Φ called activation function to release the output. a. Σ wi b. Σ xi c. Σ wi + Σ xi d. Σ wi* xi 

 

Ans: d 

 

54. With Bayes classifier, missing data items are a. treated as equal compares. b. treated as unequal compares. c. replaced with a default value. d. ignored. 

 

Ans:b 

 

55. Machine learning techniques differ from statistical techniques in that machine learning methods a. typically assume an underlying distribution for the data. b. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data. c. are not able to explain their behavior. d. have trouble with large-sized datasets. 

 

Ans: b 

56. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? 

a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent c. Both a and b d. None of the above options 

 

Ans: c 

57. How many terms are required for building a Bayes model? 

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 

 

Ans: c 

58. What does the Bayesian network provides? a. Complete description of the domain b. Partial description of the domain c. Complete description of the problem d. None of the mentioned 

 

Ans: a 

59. How the Bayesian network can be used to answer any query? a. Full distribution b. Joint distribution c. Partial distribution d. All of the mentioned 

 

Ans: b 

60. In which of the following learning the teacher returns reward and punishment to learner? a. Active learning b. Reinforcement learning c. Supervised learning d. Unsupervised learning 

 

Ans: b 

 

61. Which of the following is the model used for learning? a. Decision trees b. Neural networks c. Propositional and FOL rules d. All of the mentioned 

 

Ans: d 

 

 Department of IT 

COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 3 DataAnalytics(KIT601)

 

Q.1 Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming? 

A) Limited amount of memory 

B) Limited amount of processing time 

C) Limited amount of input data 

D) Limited amount of processing power 

Q.2 Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? 

A) Stream data is always unstructured data. 

B) Stream data often has a high velocity. 

C) Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. 

D) Stream data is always structured data. 

Ans. B 

 

Q.3 What is the main difference between standard reservoir sampling and min-wise sampling? 

A) Reservoir sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas minwise sampling does not. 

B) Min-wise sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas reservoir sampling does not. 

C) Reservoir sampling requires a stream to be processed sequentially, whereas minwise does not. 

D) For larger streams, reservoir sampling creates more accurate samples than minwise sampling. 

Ans. C) 

 

Q.4 A Bloom filter guarantees no 

A) false positives 

B) false negatives 

C) false positives and false negatives 

D) false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type 

Ans. B) 

 

Q,5 Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? 

A) It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. 

B) A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. 

C) It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more 

space. 

Incorrect. 

D) A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added 

element. 

Ans. D) 

 

Q.6 The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last k bits of a stream window N. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? 

A) The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. 

B) The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. 

C) To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. 

D) None of these 

Ans. B) 


 

Q.7 Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? 

 A)DGIM operates on a time-based window.  

B)  DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts.  

C)  In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  

D)  The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand.  

Ans. D) 

Q.8 Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? 

 A)DGIM operates on a time-based window.  

B)  DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts.  

C)  In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  

D) The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream 

Ans. D) 

 

Q.9 What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? A) DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% 

B) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% 

C) DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% 

D) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% 

Ans. B) 

 

Q.10 Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 

A) Misra-Gries 

B) Alon-Matias-Szegedy 

C) DGIM 

D) None of the above 

Ans. D) 

Q.11 Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 

A) Misra-Gries 

B) Alon-Matias-Szegedy 

C) DGIM 

D) Flajolet and Martin  

Ans. D) 

Q.12 Which of the following streaming windows show valid bucket representations according to the DGIM rules? 

A) 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 

B) 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 

C) 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 

D) 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 

Ans. D) 

Q.13 For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2 greater than 45? 

A)  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10  

B)  10 10 10 10 10 5 5 5 5 5  

C)  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1  

D) None of these 

Ans. B) 

 

Q.14 For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2 greater than 45? 

A)  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10  

B)  10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 

C)  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1  

D) None of these 

Ans. B) 

 

Q 15 : In Bloom filter an array of n bits is initialized with 

A) all 0s 

B) all 1s 

C) half 0s and half 1s 

D) all -1 

Ans. A) 

 

Q 16. Pick a hash function h that maps each of the N elements to at least log2 N bits, Estimated number of distinct elements is 

 

A) 2^R 

B) 2^(-R) 

C) 1-(2^R) 

D) 1-(2^(-R)) 

 

Ans. A) 

 

Q.17 Sliding window operations typically fall in the category 

A) OLTP Transactions 

B) Big Data Batch Processing 

C) Big Data Real Time Processing 

D) Small Batch Processing 

Ans. C) 

 

Q.18 What is the finally produced by Hierarchical Agglomerative Clustering? 

 

A) final estimate of cluster centroids 

B)assignment of each point to clusters 

C) tree showing how close things are to each other 

D) Group of clusters 

Ans. C) 

 

Q19 Which of the algorithm can be used for counting 1's in a stream 

A) FM Algorithm  

B) PCY Algorithm  

C) DGIM Algorithm  

D) SON Algorithm 

Ans. C) 

 

Q20 Which technique is used to filter unnecessary itemset in PCY algorithm 

A) Association Rule  

B) Hashing Technique 

C) Data Mining 

D)  Market basket 

Ans. B) 

 

Q21 In association rule, which of the following indicates the measure of how frequently the items occur in a dataset ?  

A) Support  B) Confidence  C) Basket  D) Itemset 

Ans. A) 

Q.22 which of the following clustering technique is used by K- Means Algorithm  

A) Hierarchical Technique  

B) Partitional technique  

C)Divisive  

D) Agglomerative 

Ans. B) 

 

Q.23 which of the following clustering technique is used by Agglomerative Nesting Algorithm 

A) Hierarchical Technique  

B) Partitional technique   

C) Density based  

D)None of these 

 

Q24. Which of the following Hierarchichal approach begins with each observation in a distinct (singleton) cluster, and successively merges clusters together until a stopping criterion is satisfied.  

A) Divisive  

B) Agglomerative  

C) Single Link  

D) Complete Link 

 

Q.25 Park, Chen, Yu algorithm is useful for __________in Big Data Application. 

A) Find Frequent Itemset  

B) Filtering Stream  

C) Distinct Element Find  

D) None of these 

Ans. A) 

 

Q.26 .Match the following                                                  

a) Bloom filter                   i) Frequent Pattern Mining                      

b) FM Algorithm              ii) Filtering Stream                      

c) PCY Algorithm            iii) Distinct Element Find d) DGIM Algorithm         iv) Counting 1’s in window A a)-ii), b-iii), c-i), d-iv)     

B a)-iii), b-ii), c-i), d-iv)  

C) A a)-i1), b-iii), c-ii), d-iv)  

D) None of these 

Ans. A)

SET II 

1. Which of the following can be considered as the correct process of Data Mining? a. Infrastructure, Exploration, Analysis, Interpretation, Exploitation b. Exploration, Infrastructure, Analysis, Interpretation, Exploitation c. Exploration, Infrastructure, Interpretation, Analysis, Exploitation d. Exploration, Infrastructure, Analysis, Exploitation, Interpretation 

Answer: a 

Explanation: The process of data mining contains many sub-processes in a specific order. The correct order in which all sub-processes of data mining executes is Infrastructure, Exploration, Analysis, Interpretation, and Exploitation. 

2. Which of the following is an essential process in which the intelligent methods are applied to extract data patterns? a. Warehousing b. Data Mining c. Text Mining d. Data Selection 

Answer: b 

Explanation: Data mining is a type of process in which several intelligent methods are used to extract meaningful data from the huge collection (or set) of data. 

3.  What are the functions of Data Mining? a. Association and correctional analysis classification b. Prediction and characterization 

c. Cluster analysis and Evolution analysis d. All of the above 

Answer: d 

Explanation: In data mining, there are several functionalities used for performing the different types of tasks. The common functionalities used in data mining are cluster analysis, prediction, characterization, and evolution. Still, the association and correctional analysis classification are also one of the important functionalities of data mining. 

 

 

 

 

4. Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming? 

a. Limited amount of memory b. Limited amount of processing time c. Limited amount of input data d. Limited amount of processing power 

Ans. c 

5. Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? 

a. Stream data is always unstructured data. b. Stream data often has a high velocity. c. Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. d. Stream data is always structured data. 

Ans. b 

6. Which of the following statements about sampling are correct? a. Sampling reduces the amount of data fed to a subsequent data mining algorithm b. Sampling reduces the diversity of the data stream c. Sampling increases the amount of data fed to a data mining algorithm d. Sampling algorithms often need multiple passes over the data 

Ans. a  

7. Which of the following statements about sampling are correct? a. Sampling reduces the diversity of the data stream 

b. Sampling increases the amount of data fed to a data mining algorithm c. Sampling algorithms often need multiple passes over the data d. Sampling aims to keep statistical properties of the data intact 

 

Ans. d 

 

8. What is the main difference between standard reservoir sampling and min-wise sampling? 

a. Reservoir sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas min-wise sampling does not. b. Min-wise sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas reservoir sampling does not. c. Reservoir sampling requires a stream to be processed sequentially, whereas min-wise does not. d. For larger streams, reservoir sampling creates more accurate samples than min-wise sampling. 

Ans. c 

 

9. A Bloom filter guarantees no 

a. false positives b. false negatives c. false positives and false negatives d. false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type 

Ans. b 

 

10. Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? 

a. It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. b. A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. c. It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more space. d. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element. 

Ans. d 

11. The FM-sketch algorithm uses the number of zeros the binary hash value ends in to make an estimation. Which of the following statements is true about the hash tail? 

a. Any specific bit pattern is equally suitable to be used as hash tail. 

b. Only bit patterns with more 0's than 1's are equally suitable to be used as hash tails. c. Only the bit patterns 0000000..00 (list of 0s) or 111111..11 (list of 1s) are suitable hash tails. d. Only the bit pattern 0000000..00 (list of 0s) is a suitable hash tail. 

Ans. a  

12. The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: 

a. Estimate the number of distinct elements. b. Sample data with a time-sensitive window. c. Estimate the frequent elements. d. Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. 

Ans. a 

 

13. The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last kk bits of a stream window NN. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? 

a. The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. b. The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. c. To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. d. None of above 

 

Ans. b 

 

14. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a. DGIM operates on a time-based window b. DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts c. In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two d. The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand. Ans. d 

 

15. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a. DGIM operates on a time-based window b. The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream c. DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts 

d. In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two Ans. b 

 

16. What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? 

a. DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% b. DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% c. DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% d. DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% 

Ans. b 

 

17. Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 

a. Misra-Gries b. Alon-Matias-Szegedy c. DGIM d. None of the above 

Ans. d 

 

18. Which of the following statements about Bloom filters are correct? 

 

a. A Bloom filter has the same properties as a standard Hashmap data structure in Java (java.util.HashMap).  b. A Bloom filter is full if no more hash functions can be added to it. c. A Bloom filter always returns FALSE when testing for an element that was not previously added d. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element 

 

Ans. d 

 

19. Which of the following statements about Bloom filters are correct? 

 

a. An empty Bloom filter (no elements added to it) will always return FALSE when testing for an element b. A Bloom filter has the same properties as a standard Hashmap data structure in Java (java.util.HashMap).  c. A Bloom filter is full if no more hash functions can be added to it. 

d. A Bloom filter always returns FALSE when testing for an element that was not previously added Ans. a 

 

 

20. Which of the following streaming windows show valid bucket representations according to the DGIM rules? 

a. 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 b. 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 c. 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 d. 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 

Ans. d 

For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2F2 greater than 45?  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10 ✗  10 10 10 10 10 5 5 5 5 5 ✗ This option is correct.  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1 ✓  10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 ✗ This option is correct. 

 

 

What is the space complexity of the FREQUENT algorithm? Recall that it aims to find all elements in a sequence whose frequency exceeds 1k1k of the total count. In the equations below, nn is the maximum value of each key and mm is the maximum value of each counter. 

a. O(k(logm+logn)) 

Correct! 

b. o(k(logm+logn)) c. O(logk(m+n)) d. o(logk(m+n)) 

 

 

Suppose that to get some information about something, you write a keyword in Google search. Google's analytical tools will then pre-compute large amounts of data to provide a quick output related to the keywords you have written. 

19) Which of the following statements is correct about data mining? 

a. It can be referred to as the procedure of mining knowledge from data b. Data mining can be defined as the procedure of extracting information from a set of the data c. The procedure of data mining also involves several other processes like data cleaning, data transformation, and data integration d. All of the above 

Answer: d 

Explanation: The term data mining can be defined as the process of extracting information from the massive collection of data. In other words, we can also say that data mining is the procedure of mining useful knowledge from a huge set of data. 

25) The classification of the data mining system involves: 

a. Database technology b. Information Science c. Machine learning d. All of the above 

Answer: d 

Explanation: Generally, the classification of a data mining system depends on the following criteria: Database technology, machine learning, visualization, information science, and several other disciplines. 

27) The issues like efficiency, scalability of data mining algorithms comes under_______ 

a. Performance issues b. Diverse data type issues c. Mining methodology and user interaction d. All of the above 

Answer: a 

Explanation: In order to extract information effectively from a huge collection of data in databases, the data mining algorithm must be efficient and scalable. Therefore the correct answer is A. 

Department of IT 

COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 4 DataAnalytics(KIT601)

 

 

1. What does Apriori algorithm do? a. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support b. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

 

2. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm? a. hash based techniques b. transaction reduction c. Partitioning d. All of these 

 

Ans.d 3. What do you mean by support (A)? 

 a. Total number of transactions containing A b. Total Number of transactions not containing A c. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions d. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions 

 

Ans. c 4. Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining? a. Social Network Analysis b. Market Basket Analysis c. outlier detection 

d. intrusion detection 

 

Ans. b 5. When do you consider an association rule interesting? a. If it only satisfies min_support b. If it only satisfies min_confidence c. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence d. There are other measures to check so 

 

Ans. c 

 

6. What is the difference between absolute and relative support? a. Absolute -Minimum support count threshold and Relative-Minimum support threshold b. Absolute-Minimum support threshold and Relative-Minimum support count threshold c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

 

7. What is the relation between candidate and frequent itemsets? 

 a. A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset b. A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset c. No relation between the two d. None of these 

 

Ans. b 

 

8. What is the principle on which Apriori algorithm work? 

 a. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent b. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

 

9. Which of these is not a frequent pattern mining algorithm a. Apriori b. FP growth c. Decision trees d. Eclat 

 

Ans. c 

 

10. What are closed frequent itemsets? 

 a. A closed itemset b. A frequent itemset c. An itemset which is both closed and frequent d. None of these 

 

Ans. c 

 

11. What are maximal frequent itemsets? a. A frequent item set whose no super-itemset is frequent b. A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

 

12. What is association rule mining? 

 a. Same as frequent itemset mining b. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. b 

 

13. What is frequent pattern growth? 

 a. Same as frequent itemset mining b. Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient c. Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation d. None of these 

 

Ans. c 

 

14. When is sub-itemset pruning done? 

 a. A frequent itemset ‘P’ is a proper subset of another frequent itemset ‘Q’ b. Support (P) = Support(Q) c. When both a and b is true d. When a is true and b is not 

 

Ans. c 

 

15. Our use of association analysis will yield the same frequent itemsets and strong association rules whether a specific item occurs once or three times in an individual transaction 

 a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Both a and b d. None of these 

 

Ans. a 

 

16. The number of iterations in apriori __ 

 a. increases with the size of the data b. decreases with the increase in size of the data c. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set d. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set 

 

Ans. c 

 

17. Frequent item sets is a. Superset of only closed frequent item sets b. Superset of only maximal frequent item sets c. Subset of maximal frequent item sets d. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets 

 

Ans. c 

 

18. Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is a. Finding frequent itemsets b. pruning c. Candidate generation d. Number of iterations 

 

Ans. c 

 

19. Which Association Rule would you prefer a. High support and medium confidence b. High support and low confidence c. Low support and high confidence d. Low support and low confidence 

 

Ans. c 


 20. The apriori property means a. If a set cannot pass a test, its supersets will also fail the same test b. To decrease the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets c. To improve the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets d. If a set can pass a test, its supersets will fail the same test 

 

Ans. c 

 

21. To determine association rules from frequent item sets a. Only minimum confidence needed b. Neither support not confidence needed c. Both minimum support and confidence are needed d. Minimum support is needed 

 

Ans. c 

 

22. A collection of one or more items is called as _____ 

( a ) Itemset ( b ) Support ( c ) Confidence  ( d ) Support Count Ans. a 

23. Frequency of occurrence of an itemset is called as _____ 

(a) Support (b) Confidence (c) Support Count (d) Rules Ans. c 

 

24. An itemset whose support is greater than or equal to a minimum support threshold is ______ 

(a) Itemset (b) Frequent Itemset (c) Infrequent items (d) Threshold values 

 

Ans. b 

 

25. The goal of clustering is to- a. Divide the data points into groups  b. Classify the data point into different classes  c. Predict the output values of input data points  d. All of the above 

 

Ans. a 

 

26. Clustering is a- a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Reinforcement learning d. None Ans. b 27. Which of the following clustering algorithms suffers from the problem of convergence at  local optima? a. K- Means clustering b. Hierarchical clustering c. Diverse clustering d. All of the above Ans. d 

 

28. Which version of the clustering algorithm is most sensitive to outliers? a. K-means clustering algorithm b. K-modes clustering algorithm c. K-medians clustering algorithm d. None  

 

Ans. a 29. Which of the following is a bad characteristic of a dataset for clustering analysis- 

 

a. Data points with outliers b. Data points with different densities c. Data points with non-convex shapes d. All of the above Ans. d 

 

30. For clustering, we do not require- a. Labeled data b. Unlabeled data c. Numerical data d. Categorical data 

 

Ans. a 31. The final output of Hierarchical clustering is- a.  The number of cluster centroids b. The tree representing how close the data points are to each other c. A map defining the similar data points into individual groups d. All of the above Ans. b 

 

32. Which of the step is not required for K-means clustering? 


 

a.  a distance metric b. initial number of clusters c. initial guess as to cluster centroids d. None Ans. d 

 

33. Which of the following uses merging approach? a. Hierarchical clustering b. Partitional clustering c. Density-based clustering d. All of the above Ans. a 34. When does k-means clustering stop creating or optimizing clusters? a. After finding no new reassignment of data points b. After the algorithm reaches the defined number of iterations c. Both A and B d. None  Ans. c 35.  Which of the following clustering algorithm follows a top to bottom approach? a. K-means b.  Divisible c. Agglomerative d. None Ans. b 36. Which algorithm does not require a dendrogram? a. K-means b.  Divisible c. Agglomerative d. None 

Ans. a 37. What is a dendrogram? 

 

a. A hierarchical structure b.  A diagram structure c. A graph structure d. None 

Ans. a 

 

38.  Which one of the following can be considered as the final output of the hierarchal type of clustering? a. A tree which displays how the close thing are to each other b. Assignment of each point to clusters c. Finalize estimation of cluster centroids d. None of the above 

Ans. a 

39. Which one of the following statements about the K-means clustering is incorrect? 

a. The goal of the k-means clustering is to partition (n) observation into (k) clusters b. K-means clustering can be defined as the method of quantization c. The nearest neighbor is the same as the K-means d. All of the above 

Ans. c 

40.  The self-organizing maps can also be considered as the instance of _________ type of learning. 

a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Missing data imputation d. Both A & C 

Ans. b 

41. Euclidean distance measure is can also defined as ___________ 

a. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some predefined order and then testing them 

b. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem c. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection. d. All of the above 

Ans. c 

42. Which of the following refers to the sequence of pattern that occurs frequently? 

a. Frequent sub-sequence b. Frequent sub-structure c. Frequent sub-items d. All of the above 

Ans. a 43. Which method of analysis does not classify variables as dependent or independent?  a) Regression analysis  b) Discriminant analysis  c) Analysis of variance  d) Cluster analysis  Answer: (d) 

 Department of IT 

 

COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester DataAnalytics(KIT601)

 

 

1. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 

 

a. Analytics b. Data mining c. Big Data d. Data Warehouse 

Ans C 

 

2. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data. Is this true or False. a. TRUE b. FALSE 

 

Ans. a  3. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 

 

a. TRUE b. FALSE 

Ans. b 

 

4. _____________ have a structure but cannot be stored in a database. 

 

a. Structured b. Semi-Structured c. Unstructured d. None of these 

 

Ans. b 5. ____________refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business. 

 

a. Velocity b. Variety c. Value d. Volume 

Ans. C  

 

6. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy. 

 

a. TRUE b. FALSE 

Ans. b 7. GFS consists of a ____________ Master and ___________ Chunk Servers a. Single, Single b. Multiple, Single c. Single, Multiple 

d. Multiple, Multiple 

Ans. c 

 

8. Files are divided into ____________ sized Chunks. a. Static b. Dynamic c. Fixed d. Variable Ans. c 

 

9. ____________is an open source framework for storing data and running application on clusters of commodity hardware. a. HDFS b. Hadoop c. MapReduce d. Cloud Ans. B 

 

10. HDFS Stores how much data in each clusters that can be scaled at any time? a. 32 b. 64 c. 128 d. 256 Ans. c 

 

11. Hadoop MapReduce allows you to perform distributed parallel processing on large volumes of data quickly and efficiently... is this MapReduce or Hadoop... i.e statement is True or False a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. a 

 

12. Hortonworks was introduced by Cloudera and owned by Yahoo. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. b 

 

13. Hadoop YARN is used for Cluster Resource Management in Hadoop Ecosystem. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. a 

 

14. Google Introduced MapReduce Programming model in 2004. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. A 

 

15.______________ phase sorts the data & ____________creates logical clusters. a. Reduce, YARN b. MAP, YARN c. REDUCE, MAP d. MAP, REDUCE Ans. d 

 

 

16. There is only one operation between Mapping and Reducing is it True or False... 

a. TRUE b. FALSE 

Ans. A 

 

17. __________ is factors considered before Adopting Big Data Technology. a. Validation b. Verification c. Data d. Design Ans. a 

 

18. _________ for improving supply chain management to optimize stock management, replenishment, and forecasting; a. Descriptive b. Diagnostic c. Predictive d. Prescriptive Ans. c 

 

19. which among the following is not a Data mining and analytical applications? a. profile matching b. social network analysis c. facial recognition d. Filtering Ans. d 

 

20. ________________ as a result of data accessibility, data latency, data availability, or limits on bandwidth in relation to the size of inputs. a. Computation-restricted throttling b. Large data volumes c. Data throttling d. Benefits from data parallelization Ans. c 

 

21. As an example, an expectation of using a recommendation engine would be to increase same-customer sales by adding more items into the market basket. a. Lowering costs b. Increasing revenues c. Increasing productivity d. Reducing risk Ans. b 

 

22. Which storage subsystem can support massive data volumes of increasing size. a. Extensibility b. Fault tolerance c. Scalability d. High-speed I/O capacity Ans. c 

 

23. ______________provides performance through distribution of data and fault tolerance through replication a. HDFS b. PIG c. HIVE d. HADOOP 

Ans. a 

 

24. ______________ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. a. HDFS b. MAP REDUCE c. HADOOP d. HIVE Ans. b 

 

25. _____________________ takes the grouped key-value paired data as input and runs a Reducer function on each one of them. a. MAPPER b. REDUCER c. COMBINER d. PARTITIONER Ans. b 

 

26. _______________ is a type of local Reducer that groups similar data from the map phase into identifiable sets. a. MAPPER b. REDUCER c. COMBINER d. PARTITIONER. Ans. c 

 

 

27. MongoDB is __________________ a. Column Based b. Key Value Based c. Document Based d. Graph Based Ans. c 

 

28. ____________ is the process of storing data records across multiple machines a. Sharding b. HDFS c. HIVE d. HBASE Ans. a 

 

29. The results of a hive query can be stored as a. Local File b. HDFS File c. Both d. Cannot be stored Ans. c 30. The position of a specific column in a Hive table a. can be anywhere in the table creation clause b. must match the position of the corresponding data in the data file c. Must match the position only for date time data type in the data file d. Must be arranged alphabetically Ans. b 31. The Hbase tables are A. Made read only by setting the read-only option B. Always writeable 

C. Always read-only D. Are made read only using the query to the table 

Ans. a 32. Hbase creates a new version of a record during A. Creation of a record B. Modification of a record C. Deletion of a record D. All the above Ans. d 33. Which among the following are incorrect in regards with NoSQL? a. Its Easy and ready to manage with clusters. b. Suitable for upcoming data explosions. c. It requires to keep track with data structure d. Provide easy and flexible system. Ans. c 34. Which Database Administrator job was in trends with job trends? a. MongoDB b. CouchDB c. SimpleDB d. Redis Ans. a 35. No SQL Means _________________ a. Not SQL b. No Usage of SQl c. Not Only SQL d. Not for SQL Ans. c 36. A list of 5 pulse rates is: 70, 64, 80, 74, 92. What is the median for this list?  a. 74  b. 76  c. 77  d. 80 Ans. a 37. Which of the following would indicate that a dataset is not bell-shaped? a. The range is equal to 5 standard deviations.  b. The range is larger than the interquartile range.  c. The mean is much smaller than the median.  d. There are no outliers Ans. c 38. What is the effect of an outlier on the value of a correlation coefficient?  a. An outlier will always decrease a correlation coefficient.  b. An outlier will always increase a correlation coefficient.  c. An outlier might either decrease or increase a correlation coefficient, depending on where it is in relation to the other points.  d. An outlier will have no effect on a correlation coefficient. Ans. c 39. One use of a regression line is  a. to determine if any x-values are outliers.  b. to determine if any y-values are outliers.  c. to determine if a change in x causes a change in y.  d. to estimate the change in y for a one-unit change in x. Ans. d 40. Which package contains most of the basic function in R.  a. Root b. Basic c. Parent 

d. R  

 

Ans. b 

SET II 

 

1. who was the developer of Hadoop language? 

 

A. Apache Software Foundation B. Hadoop Software Foundation C. Sun Microsystems D. Bell Labs View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Hadoop Developed by: Apache Software Foundation. 

2. The hadoop language wriiten in which language? 

 

A. C B. C++ C. Java D. Python View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The hadoop language Written in: Java. 3. What was the Initial release date of hadoop? 

 

A. 1st April 2007 B. 1st April 2006 C. 1st April 2008 D. 1st April 2005 View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Initial release: April 1, 2006; 13 years ago. 4. What license is Hadoop distributed under? 

 

A. Apache License 2.1 B. Apache License 2.2 C. Apache License 2.0 D. Apache License 1.0 View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Hadoop is Open Source, released under Apache 2 license. 

 

5. IBM and ________ have announced a major initiative to use Hadoop to support university courses in distributed computer programming. 

 

A. Google B. Apple C. Facebook D. Microsoft View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Google and IBM Announce University Initiative to Address Internet-Scale. 6. On which platfrm hadoop langauge runs? 

 

A. Bare metal B. Debian C. Cross-platform D. Unix-Like View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Hadoop has support for cross platform operating system. 

 

10. Which of the following is not Features Of Hadoop? 

 

A. Suitable for Big Data Analysis B. Scalability C. Robust D. Fault Tolerance View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Robust is is not Features Of Hadoop. 

 

1. The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely __________. 

 

A. mapped, reduce B. mapping, Reduction C. Map, Reduction D. Map, Reduce View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely Map and Reduce. 2. _____ takes a set of data and converts it into another set of data, where individual elements are broken down into tuples (key/value pairs). 

 

A. Map B. Reduce C. Both A and B D. Node View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Map takes a set of data and converts it into another set of data, where individual elements are broken down into tuples (key/value pairs). 3. ______ task, which takes the output from a map as an input and combines those data tuples into a smaller set of tuples. 

 

A. Map B. Reduce C. Node D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Reduce task, which takes the output from a map as an input and combines those data tuples into a smaller set of tuples. 4. In how many stages the MapReduce program executes? 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 View Answer 

Ans : B 

 

Explanation: MapReduce program executes in three stages, namely map stage, shuffle stage, and reduce stage. 5. Which of the following is used to schedules jobs and tracks the assign jobs to Task tracker? 

 

A. SlaveNode B. MasterNode C. JobTracker D. Task Tracker View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: JobTracker : Schedules jobs and tracks the assign jobs to Task tracker. 6. Which of the following is used for an execution of a Mapper or a Reducer on a slice of data? 

 

A. Task B. Job C. Mapper D. PayLoad View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Task : An execution of a Mapper or a Reducer on a slice of data. 7. Which of the following commnd runs a DFS admin client? 

 

A. secondaryadminnode B. nameadmin C. dfsadmin D. adminsck View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: dfsadmin : Runs a DFS admin client. 8. Point out the correct statement. 

 

A. MapReduce tries to place the data and the compute as close as possible B. Map Task in MapReduce is performed using the Mapper() function C. Reduce Task in MapReduce is performed using the Map() function D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: This feature of MapReduce is "Data Locality". 9. Although the Hadoop framework is implemented in Java, MapReduce applications need not be written in ____________ 

 

A. C B. C# C. Java D. None of the above View Answer 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Hadoop Pipes is a SWIG- compatible C++ API to implement MapReduce applications (non JNITM based). 10. The number of maps is usually driven by the total size of ____________ 

 

A. Inputs B. Output C. Task D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Total size of inputs means the total number of blocks of the input files. 1. What is full form of HDFS? 

 

A. Hadoop File System B. Hadoop Field System C. Hadoop File Search D. Hadoop Field search View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Hadoop File System was developed using distributed file system design. 2. HDFS works in a __________ fashion. 

 

A. worker-master fashion B. master-slave fashion C. master-worker fashion D. slave-master fashion View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: HDFS follows the master-slave architecture. 3. Which of the following are the Goals of HDFS? 

 

A. Fault detection and recovery B. Huge datasets C. Hardware at data D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All the above option are the goals of HDFS. 4. ________ NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down. 

 

A. Rack B. Data C. Secondary D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Secondary namenode is used for all time availability and reliability. 

5. The minimum amount of data that HDFS can read or write is called a _____________. 

 

A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. None of the above View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The minimum amount of data that HDFS can read or write is called a Block. 6. The default block size is ______. 

 

A. 32MB B. 64MB C. 128MB D. 16MB View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: The default block size is 64MB, but it can be increased as per the need to change in HDFS configuration. 7. For every node (Commodity hardware/System) in a cluster, there will be a _________. 

 

A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: For every node (Commodity hardware/System) in a cluster, there will be a datanode. 8. Which of the following is not Features Of HDFS? 

 

A. It is suitable for the distributed storage and processing. B. Streaming access to file system data. C. HDFS provides file permissions and authentication. D. Hadoop does not provides a command interface to interact with HDFS. View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: The correct feature is Hadoop provides a command interface to interact with HDFS. 9. HDFS is implemented in _____________ language. 

 

A. Perl B. Python C. Java D. C View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: HDFS is implemented in Java and any computer which can run Java can host a NameNode/DataNode on it. 

10. During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. 

 

A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. ActionNode View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: HDFS is implemented on any computer which can run Java can host a NameNode/DataNode on it. 1. Which of the following is not true about Pig? 

 

A. Apache Pig is an abstraction over MapReduce B. Pig can not perform all the data manipulation operations in Hadoop. C. Pig is a tool/platform which is used to analyze larger sets of data representing them as data flows. D. None of the above View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Pig is generally used with Hadoop; we can perform all the data manipulation operations in Hadoop using Apache Pig. 2. Which of the following is/are a feature of Pig? 

 

A. Rich set of operators B. Ease of programming C. Extensibility D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All options are the following Features of Pig. 3. In which year apache Pig was released? 

 

A. 2005 B. 2006 C. 2007 D. 2008 View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: In 2006, Apache Pig was developed as a research project. 4. Pig operates in mainly how many nodes? 

 

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: You can run Pig (execute Pig Latin statements and Pig commands) using various mode: Interactive and Batch Mode. 5. Which of the following company has developed PIG? 

 

A. Google B. Yahoo C. Microsoft D. Apple View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Apache Pig was developed as a research project at Yahoo, especially to create and execute MapReduce jobs on every dataset. 6. Which of the following function is used to read data in PIG? 

 

A. Write B. Read C. Perform D. Load View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: PigStorage is the default load function. 7. __________ is a framework for collecting and storing script-level statistics for Pig Latin. 

 

A. Pig Stats B. PStatistics C. Pig Statistics D. All of the above View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The new Pig statistics and the existing Hadoop statistics can also be accessed via the Hadoop job history file. 8. Which of the following is true statement? 

 

A. Pig is a high level language. B. Performing a Join operation in Apache Pig is pretty simple. C. Apache Pig is a data flow language. D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All option are true statement. 9. Which of the following will compile the Pigunit? 

 

A. $pig_trunk ant pigunit-jar B. $pig_tr ant pigunit-jar C. $pig_ ant pigunit-jar D. $pigtr_ ant pigunit-jar View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The compile will create the pigunit.jar file. 

10. Point out the wrong statement. 

 

A. Pig can invoke code in language like Java Only B. Pig enables data workers to write complex data transformations without knowing Java C. Pig's simple SQL-like scripting language is called Pig Latin, and appeals to developers already familiar with scripting languages and SQL D. Pig is complete, so you can do all required data manipulations in Apache Hadoop with Pig View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Through the User Defined Functions(UDF) facility in Pig, Pig can invoke code in many languages like JRuby, Jython and Java. 1. Which of the following is/are INCORRECT with respect to Hive? 

 

A. Hive provides SQL interface to process large amount of data B. Hive needs a relational database like oracle to perform query operations and store data. C. Hive works well on all files stored in HDFS D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Hive needs a relational database like oracle to perform query operations and store data is incorrect with respect to Hive. 2. Which of the following is not a Features of HiveQL? 

 

A. Supports joins B. Supports indexes C. Support views D. Support Transactions View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Support Transactions is not a Features of HiveQL. 3. Which of the following operator executes a shell command from the Hive shell? 

 

A. | B. ! C. # D. $ View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Exclamation operator is for execution of command. 4. Hive uses _________ for logging. 

 

A. logj4 B. log4l C. log4i D. log4j View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: By default Hive will use hive-log4j.default in the conf/ directory of the Hive installation. 5. HCatalog is installed with Hive, starting with Hive release is ___________ 

 

A. 0.10.0 B. 0.9.0 C. 0.11.0 D. 0.12.0 View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: hcat commands can be issued as hive commands, and vice versa. 6. _______ supports a new command shell Beeline that works with HiveServer2. 

 

A. HiveServer2 B. HiveServer3 C. HiveServer4 D. HiveServer5 View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The Beeline shell works in both embedded mode as well as remote mode. 7. The ________ allows users to read or write Avro data as Hive tables. 

 

A. AvroSerde B. HiveSerde C. SqlSerde D. HiveQLSerde View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: AvroSerde understands compressed Avro files. 8. Which of the following data type is supported by Hive? 

 

A. map B. record C. string D. enum View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: Hive has no concept of enums. 9. We need to store skill set of MCQs(which might have multiple values) in MCQs table, which of the following is the best way to store this information in case of Hive? 

 

A. Create a column in MCQs table of STRUCT data type B. Create a column in MCQs table of MAP data type C. Create a column in MCQs table of ARRAY data type D. As storing multiple values in a column of MCQs itself is a violation View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Option C is correct. 

10. Letsfindcourse is generating huge amount of data. They are generating huge amount of sensor data from different courses which was unstructured in form. They moved to Hadoop framework for storing and analyzing data. What technology in Hadoop framework, they can use to analyse this unstructured data? 

 

A. MapReduce programming B. Hive C. RDBMS D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: MapReduce programming is the right answer. 1. which of the following is correct statement? 

 

A. HBase is a distributed column-oriented database B. Hbase is not open source C. Hbase is horizontally scalable. D. Both A and C View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: HBase is a distributed column-oriented database built on top of the Hadoop file system. It is an open-source project and is horizontally scalable. 2. which of the following is not a feature of Hbase? 

 

A. HBase is lateral scalable. B. It has automatic failure support. C. It provides consistent read and writes. D. It has easy java API for client. View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Option A is incorrect because HBase is linearly scalable. 3. When did HBase was first released? 

 

A. April 2007 B. March 2007 C. February 2007 D. May 2007 View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: HBase was first released in February 2007. Later in January 2008, HBase became a sub project of Apache Hadoop. 4. Apache HBase is a non-relational database modeled after Google's _________ 

 

A. BigTop B. Bigtable C. Scanner D. FoundationDB View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Bigtable acts up on Google File System, likewise Apache HBase works on top of Hadoop and HDFS. 5. HBaseAdmin and ____________ are the two important classes in this package that provide DDL functionalities. 

 

A. HTableDescriptor B. HDescriptor C. HTable D. HTabDescriptor View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Java provides an Admin API to achieve DDL functionalities through programming 6. which of the following is correct statement? 

 

A. HBase provides fast lookups for larger tables. B. It provides low latency access to single rows from billions of records C. HBase is a database built on top of the HDFS. D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All the options are correct. 7. HBase supports a ____________ interface via Put and Result. 

 

A. bytes-in/bytes-out B. bytes-in C. bytes-out D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Input could be strings, numbers, complex objects, or even images as long as they can rendered as bytes. 8. Which command is used to disable all the tables matching the given regex? 

 

A. remove all B. drop all C. disable_all D. None of the above View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The syntax for disable_all command is as follows : hbase > disable_all 'r.*' 9. _________ is the main configuration file of HBase. 

 

A. hbase.xml B. hbase-site.xml C. hbase-site-conf.xml D. hbase-conf.xml View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Set the data directory to an appropriate location by opening the HBase home folder in /usr/local/HBase. 10. which of the following is incorrect statement? 

 

A. HBase is built for wide tables B. Transactions are there in HBase. C. HBase has de-normalized data. D. HBase is good for semi-structured as well as structured data. View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: No transactions are there in HBase. 1. R was created by? 

 

A. Ross Ihaka B. Robert Gentleman C. Both A and B D. Ross Gentleman View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: R was created by Ross Ihaka and Robert Gentleman at the University of Auckland, New Zealand, and is currently developed by the R Development Core Team. 2. R allows integration with the procedures written in the? 

 

A. C B. Ruby C. Java D. Basic View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: R allows integration with the procedures written in the C, C++, .Net, Python or FORTRAN languages for efficiency. 3. R is free software distributed under a GNU-style copy left, and an official part of the GNU project called? 

 

A. GNU A B. GNU S C. GNU L D. GNU R View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: R is free software distributed under a GNU-style copy left, and an official part of the GNU project called GNU S. 4. R made its first appearance in? 

 

A. 1992 B. 1995 C. 1993 D. 1994 View Answer 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: R made its first appearance in 1993. 5. Which of the following is true about R? 

 

A. R is a well-developed, simple and effective programming language B. R has an effective data handling and storage facility C. R provides a large, coherent and integrated collection of tools for data analysis. D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: All of the above statement are true. 6. Point out the wrong statement? 

 

A. Setting up a workstation to take full advantage of the customizable features of R is a straightforward thing B. q() is used to quit the R program C. R has an inbuilt help facility similar to the man facility of UNIX D. Windows versions of R have other optional help systems also View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: help command is used for knowing details of particular command in R. 7. Command lines entered at the console are limited to about ________ bytes 

 

A. 4095 B. 4096 C. 4097 D. 4098 View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Elementary commands can be grouped together into one compound expression by braces (‘{’ and ‘}’). 8. R language is a dialect of which of the following languages? 

 

A. s B. c C. sas D. matlab View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The R language is a dialect of S which was designed in the 1980s. Since the early 90’s the life of the S language has gone down a rather winding path. The scoping rules for R are the main feature that makes it different from the original S language. 9. How many atomic vector types does R have? 

 

A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 View Answer 

Ans : D 

 

Explanation: R language has 6 atomic data types. They are logical, integer, real, complex, string (or character) and raw. There is also a class for “raw” objects, but they are not commonly used directly in data analysis. 10. R files has an extension _____. 

 

A. .S B. .RP C. .R D. .SP View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: All R files have an extension .R. R provides a mechanism for recalling and reexecuting previous commands. All S programmed files will have an extension .S. But R has many functions than S. 1. What will be output for the following code? 

 

v <- TRUE 

print(class(v)) 

A. logical B. Numeric C. Integer D. Complex View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: It produces the following result : [1] ""logical"" 

 

2. What will be output for the following code? 

 

v <- ""TRUE"" 

print(class(v)) 

A. logical B. Numeric C. Integer D. Character View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: It produces the following result : [1] ""character"" 

 

3. In R programming, the very basic data types are the R-objects called? 

 

A. Lists B. Matrices 

C. Vectors D. Arrays View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: In R programming, the very basic data types are the R-objects called vectors 

 

4. Data Frames are created using the? 

 

A. frame() function B. data.frame() function C. data() function D. frame.data() function View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Data Frames are created using the data.frame() function 5. Which functions gives the count of levels? 

 

A. level B. levels C. nlevels D. nlevel View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Factors are created using the factor() function. The nlevels functions gives the count of levels. 6. Point out the correct statement? 

 

A. Empty vectors can be created with the vector() function B. A sequence is represented as a vector but can contain objects of different classes C. "raw” objects are commonly used directly in data analysis D. The value NaN represents undefined value View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: A vector can only contain objects of the same class. 7. What will be the output of the following R code? 

 

> x <- vector(""numeric"", length = 10) 

> x 

A. 1 0 B. 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 C. 0 1 D. 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: You can also use the vector() function to initialize vectors. 

8. What will be output for the following code? 

 

> sqrt(-17) 

A. -4.02 B. 4.02 C. 3.67 D. NAN View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: These metadata can be very useful in that they help to describe the object. 9. _______ function returns a vector of the same size as x with the elements arranged in increasing order. 

 

A. sort() B. orderasc() C. orderby() D. sequence() View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: There are other more flexible sorting facilities available like order() or sort.list() which produce a permutation to do the sorting. 10. What will be the output of the following R code? 

 

> m <- matrix(nrow = 2, ncol = 3) 

 > dim(m) 

A. 3 3 B. 3 2 C. 2 3 D. 2 2 View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Matrices are constructed column-wise. 1. Which loop executes a sequence of statements multiple times and abbreviates the code that manages the loop variable? 

 

A. for B. while C. do-while D. repeat View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: repeat loop : Executes a sequence of statements multiple times and abbreviates the code that manages the loop variable. 2. Which of the following true about for loop? 

 

A. Repeats a statement or group of statements while a given condition is true. It tests the condition before executing the loop body. B. it tests the condition at the end of the loop body. C. Both A and B D. None of the above View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: for loop : Like a while statement, except that it tests the condition at the end of the loop body. 3. Which statement simulates the behavior of R switch? 

 

A. Next B. Previous C. break D. goto View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The next statement simulates the behavior of R switch. 4. In which statement terminates the loop statement and transfers execution to the statement immediately following the loop? 

 

A. goto B. switch C. break D. label View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Break : Terminates the loop statement and transfers execution to the statement immediately following the loop. 5. Point out the wrong statement? 

 

A. Multi-line expressions with curly braces are just not that easy to sort through when working on the command line B. lappy() loops over a list, iterating over each element in that list C. lapply() does not always returns a list D. You cannot use lapply() to evaluate a function multiple times each with a different argument View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: lapply() always returns a list, regardless of the class of the input. 6. The mapply() function is a multivariate apply of sorts which applies a function in parallel over a set of arguments. 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: True, The mapply() function is a multivariate apply of sorts which applies a function in parallel over a set of arguments. 7. Which of the following is valid body of split function? 

 

A. function (x, f) B. function (x, f, drop = FALSE, …) C. function (x, drop = FALSE, …) D. function (drop = FALSE, …) View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: x is a vector (or list) or data frame 8. Which of the following character skip during execution? 

 

v <- LETTERS[1:6] 

for ( i in v) { 

    

   if (i == ""D"") { 

      next 

   } 

   print(i) 

A. A B. B C. C D. D View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: When the above code is compiled and executed, it produces the following result : [1] ""A"" [1] ""B"" [1] ""C"" [1] ""E"" [1] ""F"" 

 

9. What will be output for the following code? 

 

v <- LETTERS[1] 

for ( i in v) { 

   print(v) 

A. A B. A B C. A B C D. A B C D View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: The output for the following code : [1] ""A"" 10. What will be output for the following code? 

 

v <- LETTERS[""A""] 

for ( i in v) { 

   print(v) 

A. A B. NAN C. NA D. Error View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The output for the following code : [1] NA 1. An R function is created by using the keyword? 

 

A. fun B. function C. declare D. extends View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: An R function is created by using the keyword function.  2. What will be output for the following code? 

 

print(mean(25:82)) 

A. 1526 B. 53.5 C. 50.5 D. 55 View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: The code will find mean of numbers from 25 to 82 that is 53.5 3. Point out the wrong statement? 

 

A. Functions in R are “second class objects” B. The writing of a function allows a developer to create an interface to the code, that is explicitly specified with a set of parameters 

C. Functions provides an abstraction of the code to potential users D. Writing functions is a core activity of an R programmer View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: Functions in R are “first class objects”, which means that they can be treated much like any other R object. 4. What will be output for the following code? 

 

> paste("a", "b", se = ":") 

A. a+b B. a:b C. a-b D. None of the above View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: With the paste() function, the arguments sep and collapse must be named explicitly and in full if the default values are not going to be used. 5. Which function in R language is used to find out whether the means of 2 groups are equal to each other or not? 

 

A. f.tests () B. l.tests () C. t.tests () D. p.tests () View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: t.tests () function in R language is used to find out whether the means of 2 groups are equal to each other. It is not used most commonly in R. It is used in some specific conditions. 6. What will be the output of log (-5.8) when executed on R console? 

 

A. NA B. NAN C. 0.213 D. Error View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Executing the above on R console or terminal will display a warning sign that NaN (Not a Number) will be produced in R console because it is not possible to take a log of a negative number(-). 7. Which function is preferred over sapply as vapply allows the programmer to specific the output type? 

 

A. Lapply B. Japply C. Vapply D. Zapply View Answer 

Ans : C 

 

Explanation: Vapply is similar to sapply, but has a pre-specified type of return value, so it can be safer (and sometimes faster) to use. simplify2array() is the utility called from sapply() when simplify is not false and is similarly called from mapply(). 8. How will you check if an element is present in a vector? 

 

A. Match() B. Dismatch() C. Mismatch() D. Search() View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: It can be done using the match () function- match () function returns the first appearance of a particular element. The other way is to use %in% which returns a Boolean value either true or false. 9. You can check to see whether an R object is NULL with the _________ function. 

 

A. is.null() B. is.nullobj() C. null() D. as.nullobj() View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: It is sometimes useful to allow an argument to take the NULL value, which might indicate that the function should take some specific action. 10. In the base graphics system, which function is used to add elements to a plot? 

 

A. Boxplot() B. Text() C. Treat() D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: In the base graphics system, boxplot or text function is used to add elements to a plot. 1. Which of the following syntax is used to install forecast package? 

 

A. install.pack("forecast") B. install.packages("cast") C. install.packages("forecast") D. install.pack("forecastcast") View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: forecast is used for time series analysis 2. Which splits a data frame and returns a data frame? 

 

A. apply B. ddply 

C. stats D. plyr View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: ddply splits a data frame and returns a data frame. 3. Which of the following is an R package for the exploratory analysis of genetic and genomic data? 

 

A. adeg B. adegenet C. anc D. abd View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: This package contains Classes and functions for genetic data analysis within the multivariate framework. 4. Which of the following contains functions for processing uniaxial minute-to-minute accelerometer data? 

 

A. accelerometry B. abc C. abd D. anc View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: This package contains a collection of functions that perform operations on timeseries accelerometer data, such as identify non-wear time, flag minutes that are part of an activity about, and find the maximum 10-minute average count value. 5. ______ Uses Grieg-Smith method on 2 dimensional spatial data. 

 

A. G.A. B. G2db C. G.S. D. G1DBN View Answer Ans : C 

 

Explanation: The function returns a GriegSmith object which is a matrix with block sizes, sum of squares for each block size as well as mean sums of squares. G1DBN is a package performing Dynamic Bayesian Network Inference. 6. Which of the following package provide namespace management functions not yet present in base R? 

 

A. stringr B. nbpMatching C. messagewarning D. namespace View Answer Ans : D 

 

Explanation: The package namespace is one of the most confusing parts of building a package. nbpMatching contains functions for non-bipartite optimal matching. 7. What will be the output of the following R code? 

 

install.packages(c("devtools", "roxygen2")) 

A. Develops the tools B. Installs the given packages C. Exits R studio D. Nothing happens View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: Make sure you have the latest version of R and then run the above code to get the packages you’ll need. It installs the given packages. Confirm that you have a recent version of RStudio. 8. A bundled package is a package that’s been compressed into a ______ file. 

 

A. Double B. Single C. Triple D. No File View Answer Ans : B 

 

Explanation: A bundled package is a package that’s been compressed into a single file. A source package is just a directory with components like R/, DESCRIPTION, and so on. 9. .library() is not useful when developing a package since you have to install the package first. 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: library() is not useful when developing a package since you have to install the package first. A library is a simple directory containing installed packages. 

 

10. DESCRIPTION uses a very simple file format called DCF. 

 

A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say View Answer Ans : A 

 

Explanation: DESCRIPTION uses a very simple file format called DCF, the Debian control format. When you first start writing packages, you’ll mostly use these metadata to record what packages are needed to run your package. 

 

19. HDFS Stores how much data in each clusters that can be scaled at any time? 1. 32 2. 64 3. 128 4. 256 Show Answer 128 

33. _____ provides performance through distribution of data and fault tolerance through replication 1. HDFS 2. PIG 3. HIVE 4. HADOOP Show Answer HDFS 

34. ______ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. 1. HDFS 2. MAP REDUCE 3. HADOOP 4. HIVE Show Answer MAP REDUCE 

35.  ____ takes the grouped key-value paired data as input and runs a Reducer function on each one of them. 1. MAPPER 2. REDUCER 3. COMBINER 4. PARTITIONER Show Answer REDUCER 

36. ____ is a type of local Reducer that groups similar data from the map phase into identifiable sets. 1. MAPPER 2. REDUCER 3. COMBINER 4. PARTITIONER Show Answer COMBINER 

37. While Installing Hadoop how many xml files are edited and list them ? 1. core-site.xml 2. hdfs-site.xml 3. mapred.xml 4. yarn.xml Show Answer core-site.xml 

1.1 Information is  a.  Data                          b.  Processed Data  c.  Manipulated input      d. Computer output  1.2 Data by itself is not useful unless  a. It is massive  b. It is processed to obtain information  c. It is collected from diverse sources  d. It is properly stated 1.3 For taking decisions data must be  a Very accurate              b Massive  c Processed correctly     d Collected from diverse sources 1.4 Strategic information is needed for  a Day to day operations  b Meet government requirements  c Long range planning  d Short range planning 1.5  Strategic information is required by a Middle managers  b Line managers  c Top managers  d All workers 1.6 Tactical information is needed for  a Day to day operations  b Meet government requirements  c  Long range planning  d Short range planning 1.7 Tactical information is required by  

a Middle managers b Line managers  c Top managers  d All workers  1.8  Operational information is needed for  a Day to day operations  b Meet government requirements  c Long range planning  d Short range planning  1.9 Operational information is required by  a Middle managers  b Line managers  c Top managers  d All workers 1.10 Statutory information is needed for  a Day to day operations  b  Meet government requirements  c Long range planning  d Short range planning  1.11 In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is strategic a Decision on introducing a new model  b Scheduling production  c Assessing competitor car  d Computing sales tax collected  1.12 In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is tactical a Decision on introducing a new model  b Scheduling production  c Assessing competitor car  d Computing sales tax collected  

 

1.13  In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is operational 

a Decision on introducing a new model  b Scheduling production  c  Assessing competitor car  d  Computing sales tax collected  1.14 In motor car manufacturing the following type of information is statutory a Decision on introducing a new model  b Scheduling production  c Assessing competitor car  d  Computing sales tax collected  1.15 In a hospital information system the following type of information is strategic a Opening a new children’s ward  b Data on births and deaths  c Preparing patients’ bill  d  Buying an expensive diagnostic system such as CAT scan  1.16 In a hospital information system the following type of information is tactical a Opening a new children’s’ ward b  Data on births and deaths  c Preparing patients’ bill  d  Buying an expensive diagnostic system such as CAT scan  1.17 In a hospital information system the following type of information is  operational  a Opening a new children’s’ ward  b Data on births and deaths  c Preparing patients’ bill  d  Buying an expensive diagnostic system such as CAT scan  1.18 In a hospital information system the following type of information is statutory  a Opening a new children’s’ ward b Data on births and deaths  c Preparing patients’ bill  d Buying an expensive diagnostic system such as CAT scan  

1.19 A computer based information system is needed because                     (i) The size of organization have become large and data is massive                     (ii) Timely decisions are to be taken based on available data                     (iii) Computers are available                     (iv) Difficult to get clerks to process data  a (ii) and (iii)                               b (i) and (ii)  c (i) and (iv)                d (iii) and (iv)  1.20 Volume of strategic information is  a Condensed  b Detailed  c Summarized  d  Irrelevant  1.21 Volume of tactical information is  a  Condensed  b Detailed  c Summarized  d relevant  1.22 Volume of operational information is  a Condensed  b Detailed  c Summarized  d Irrelevant  1.23 Strategic information is  a Haphazard  b Well organized  c Unstructured  d  Partly structured  1.24 Tactical information is  a Haphazard 

b Well organized  c Unstructured  d Partly structured  1.25 Operational information is  a Haphazard  b Well organized  c Unstructured  d Partly structured  1.26 Match and find best pairing for a Human Resource Management System             (i)Policies on giving bonus      (iv)Strategic information             (ii)Absentee reduction             (v)Tactical information             (iii)Skills inventory                  (vi)Operational Information a (i) and (v)  b (i) and (iv)  c (ii) and (iv)  d (iii) and (v) 1.27  Match and find best pairing for a Production Management System              (i) Performance appraisal of machines      (iv)Strategic information to decide                                                                                      on replacement              (ii)Introducing new production                 (v)Tactical information technology              (iii)Preventive maintenance schedules      (vi)Operational information for                                                                                      machines  a (i) and (vi)  b (ii) and (v)  c (i) and (v)  d (iii) and (iv)  1.28 Match and find best pairing for a Production Management System              (i) Performance appraisal of machines       (iv)Strategic information to decide                                                                                        on replacement              (ii)Introducing new production                   (v)Tactical information technology

 (iii)Preventive maintenance schedules       (vi)Operational information for                                                                                       machines  a  (iii) and (vi)  b  (i) and (iv)  c  (ii) and (v)  d None of the above  1.29 Match and find best pairing for a Materials Management System              (i) Developing vendor performance               (iv) Strategic information                                                                                            measures              (ii) Developing vendors for critical                (v) Tactical information items              (iii)List of items rejected from a vendor        (vi)Operational information  a (i) and (v)  b (ii) and (v)  c (iii) and (iv)  d (ii) and (vi)  1.30 Match and find best pairing for a Materials Management System              (i)Developing vendor performance           (iv)Strategic information measures              (ii)Developing vendors for critical            (v)Tactical information  items              (iii)List of items rejected from a vendor    (vi)Operational information  a (i) and (iv)  b (i) and (vi)  c (ii) and (iv)  d (iii) and (v) 1.31 Match and find best pairing for a Materials Management System              (i)Developing vendor performance           (iv)Strategic information measures              (ii)Developing vendors for critical            (v)Tactical information items              (iii)List of items rejected from a vendor    (vi)Operational information  a (i) and (vi)  b (iii) and (vi)  c (ii) and (vi)  d (iii) and (iv) 

1.32 Match and find best pairing for a Finance Management System              (i)Tax deduction at source report        (iv)Strategic information              (ii)Impact of taxation on pricing         (v)Tactical information              (iii)Tax planning                                 (vi)Operational information  a (i) and (v)  b (iii) and (vi)  c (ii) and (v)  d (ii)) and (iv)  1.33  Match and find best pairing for a Finance Management System              (i)Budget status to all managers      (iv)Strategic information              (ii)Method of financing                   (v)Tactical information              (iii)Variance between budget and   (vi)Operational information expenses  a (i) and (v)  b (iii) and (vi)  c (ii) and (v)  d (ii) and (iv)  1.34 Match and find best pairing for a Marketing Management System              (i)Customer preferences surveys     (iv)Strategic information              (ii)Search for new markets              (v)Tactical information              (iii)Performance of sales outlets      (vi)Operational information  a  (i) and (iv)  b  (ii) and (v)  c (iii) and (vi)  d  (ii) and (v)  1.35  Match and find best pairing for a Marketing Management System              (i)Customer preferences surveys        (iv)Strategic information              (ii)Search for new markets                 (v)Tactical information              (iii)Performance of sales outlets         (vi)Operational information  a (iii) and (iv)  b (i) and (vi)  c (i) and (v)  

d (iii) and (v)  1.36 Match and find best pairing for a Research and Development Management System         (i)Technical collaboration decision     (iv)Strategic information         (ii)Budgeted expenses Vs actuals        (v)Tactical information         (iii)Proportion of budget to be             (vi)Operational information allocated                                                                                          to various projects                                        a (i) and (iv)  b (ii) and (v)  c (iii) and (vi)  d (iii) and (iv)  1.37 Match and find best pairing for a Research and Development Management System              (i)Technical collaboration decision     (iv)Strategic information              (ii)Budgeted expenses Vs actuals        (v)Tactical information              (iii)Proportion of budget to be             (vi)Operational information allocated to various projects  a  (i) and (v)  b (iii) and (v)  c (ii) and (v)  d (i) and (vi)  1.38 Organizations are divided into departments because  a it is convenient to do so  b each department can be assigned a specific functional responsibility  c it provides opportunities for promotion  d it is done by every organization  1.39 Organizations have hierarchical structures because  a it is convenient to do so  b it is done by every organization  c specific responsibilities can be assigned for each level  d it provides opportunities for promotions  

1.40 Which of the following functions is the most unlikely in an insurance company.  a Training  b giving loans  c bill of material  d accounting  1.41 Which of the following functions is most unlikely in a university  a admissions  b accounting  c conducting examination  d marketing  1.42 Which of the following functions is most unlikely in a purchase section of an organization.  a Production planning  b order processing  c vendor selection  d training  1.43 Which is the most unlikely function of a marketing division of an organization.  a advertising  b sales analysis  c order processing  d customer preference analysis  1.44 Which is the most unlikely function of a   finance section of a company. a Billing  b costing  c budgeting  d labor deployment  1.45 Match quality of information and how it is ensured using the following list                 QUALITY                    HOW ENSURED              (i) Accurate                     (iv) Include all data  

   (ii) Complete                   (v) Use correct input and processing rules               (iii)Timely                       (vi) Include all data up to present time a (i) and (v)  b (ii) and (vi)  c (iii) and (vi)  d (i) and (iv)  1.46 Match quality of information and how it is ensured using the following list                 QUALITY                    HOW ENSURED                  (i) Accurate                        (iv) Include all data                   (ii) Complete                       (v) Use correct input and processing rules                  (iii) Timely                           (vi) Include all data up to present time a (ii) and (v)  b (ii) and (vi)  c (ii) and (iv)  d (iii) and (iv)  1.47 Match quality of information and how it is ensured using the following list  

                   QUALITY                                 HOW ENSURED                  (i) Up-to-date                            (iv) Include all data to present time                  (ii) Brief                                    (v) Give at right time                  (iii) Significance                       (vi) Use attractive format and understandable                                                                            graphical charts 

a (i) and (v)  b (ii) and (vi)  c (iii) and (vi)  d (i) and (vi)  1.48 Match quality of information and how it is ensured using the following list            QUALITY                                  HOW ENSURED          (i)Up- to-date                             (iv) Include all data to present time          (ii)Brief                                      (v) Give at right time  

 (iii) Significance                        (vi) Use attractive format and understandable                                                                   graphical charts  a (i) and (iv)  b (ii) and (v)  c (iii) and (iv)  d (ii) and (iv)  1.49 Match quality of information and how it is ensured using the following list            QUALITY                                    HOW ENSURED                                                                (i)Brief                                         (iv) Unpleasant information not hidden                (ii)Relevant                                  (v) Summarize relevant information                (iii) Trustworthy                          (vi) Understands user needs  a (i) and (iv)  b (ii) and (v)  c (iii) and (vi)  d (i) and (v)  1.50 Match quality of information and how it is ensured using the following list            QUALITY                                     HOW ENSURED            (i)Brief                                      (iv) Unpleasant information not hidden            (ii)Relevant                               (v) Summarize relevant information            (iii)Trustworthy                        (vi) Understands user needs  a (ii) and (vi)  b (i) and (iv)  c (iii) and (v)  d (ii) and (iv)  1.51 The quality of information which does not hide any unpleasant information is known as  a Complete  b Trustworthy  c Relevant  d None of the above  1.52 The quality of information which is based on understanding user needs 

a Complete  b Trustworthy  c Relevant  d None of the above  1.53 Every record stored in a Master file has a key field because  a it is the most important field  b it acts as a unique identification of record  c it is the key to the database  d it is a very concise field  1.54 The primary storage medium for storing archival data is  a floppy disk  b magnetic disk  c magnetic tape  d CD- ROM  1.55 Master files are normally stored in  a a hard disk   b a tape  c CD – ROM  d computer’s main memory  1.56 Master file is a file containing  a all master records  b all records relevant to the application  c a collection of data items  d historical data of relevance to the organization  1.57 Edit program is required to  a authenticate data entered by an operator  b format correctly input data  c detect errors in input data  d expedite retrieving input data  1.58 Data rejected by edit program are  a corrected and re- entered  

b removed from processing  c collected for later use  d ignored during processing  1.59 Online transaction processing is used because  a it is efficient  b disk is used for storing files  c it can handle random queries.  d Transactions occur in batches 1.60 On-line transaction processing is used when                i) it is required to answer random queries                ii) it is required to ensure correct processing                iii) all files are available on-line                iv) all files are stored using hard disk  a i ,ii   b i, iii   c ii ,iii, iv  d i , ii ,iii  1.61 Off-line data entry is preferable when                  i) data should be entered without error                  ii) the volume of data to be entered is large                  iii) the volume of data to be entered is small                  iv) data is to be processed periodically  a i, ii  b ii, iii    c ii, iv   d iii, iv  1.62 Batch processing is used when                 i) response time should be short                 ii)  data processing is to be carried out at periodic intervals                  iii) transactions are in batches                    iv) transactions  do not occur periodically  

a i ,ii   b i ,iii,iv  c ii ,iii  d i , ii ,iii  1.63 Batch processing is preferred over on-line transaction processing when                  i) processing efficiency is important                  ii)  the volume of data to be processed is large                  iii) only periodic processing is needed                  iv) a large number of queries are to be processed  a i ,ii    b i, iii   c ii ,iii  d i , ii ,iii  1.64 A management information system is one which  a is required by all managers of an organization  b processes data to yield information of value in tactical management  c provides operational information  d allows better management of organizations  1.65 Data mining is used to aid in  a operational management  b analyzing past decision made by managers  c detecting patterns in operational data  d retrieving archival data  1.66 Data mining requires  a large quantities of operational data stored over a period of time  b lots of tactical data  c several tape drives to store archival data  d large mainframe computers  1.67 Data mining can not be done if  a operational data has not been archived  b earlier management decisions are not available  

c the organization is large  d all processing had been only batch processing  1.68 Decision support systems are used for  a Management decision making  b Providing tactical information to management  c Providing strategic information to management  d Better operation of an organization  1.69 Decision support systems are used by  a Line managers.  b Top-level managers.  c Middle level managers.  d System users  1.70 Decision support systems are essential for  a Day–to-day operation of an organization.  b Providing statutory information.  c Top level strategic decision making.  d Ensuring that organizations are profitable.  

 Key to Objective Questions 

 

1.1 b 1.2 b 1.3 c 1.4 c 1.5 c 1.6 d 

 

1.7 a 1.8 a 1.9 b 1.10 b 1.11 a 1.12  c 

 

1.13 b 1.14 d 1.15 d 1.16 a 1.17 c 1.18  b 

 

1.19 b 1.20 a 1.21 c 1.22 b 1.23 c 1.24  d 

 

1.25 b 1.26 b 1.27 c 1.28 a 1.29 a 1.30   c 

 

1.31 b 1.32 c 1.33 d 1.34 c 1.35 c 1.36   a 

 

1.37 b 1.38 b 1.39 c 1.40     c 1.41 d 1.42   a 

 

1.43 c 1.44 d          1.45 a 1.46 c 1.47 c 1.48   a 

 

1.49   d        1.50 a 1.51 b 1.52 c          1.53 b 1.54   c  

 

1.55 a 1.56 b 1.57 c 1.58 a 1.59 c 1.60   b  

 

1.61 c 1.62 c 1.63 d 1.64 b 1.65 c 1.66   a  

 

1.67 a 1.68 c 1.69 b 1.70 c 

UNIT 1 DataAnalytics(KIT601)
1. The data with no pre-defined organizational form or specific format is  
a. Semi-structured data b. Unstructured data c. Structured data d. None of these 
Ans. b 
 
a. Categorical data  b. Interval data c. Ordinal data  d. Ratio data  
 
Ans. c 
 
Ans. c 
 
2. The data which can be ordered or ranked according to some relationship to one another is  
 
3. Predict the future by examining historical data, detecting patterns or relationships in these data, and then extrapolating these relationships forward in time. a. Prescriptive model b. Descriptive model      c. Predictive model d. None of these 
 
Ans. b 
 
Ans. a 
 
Ans. c 
Ans. d 
4. Person responsible for the genesis of the project,  providing the impetus for the project and core business  problem, generally provides the funding and will gauge  the degree of value from the final outputs of the working  team is a. Business User b. Project Sponsor c. Business  Intelligence  Analyst d. Data Engineer 
 
5. Deep technical skills to assist with tuning SQL queries for  data management, extraction and support data ingest to  analytic sandbox is handled by ___________.  a. Data Engineer b. Business User c. Project Sponsor d. Business  Intelligence  Analyst 
 
6. Business domain expertise with deep understanding of the data, KPIs, key metrics and business intelligence from a reporting perspective is key role of ____________. 
 
a. Business User b. Project Sponsor c. Business  Intelligence  Analyst d. Data Engineer 
 
7. _____________ is concerned with uncertainty or inaccuracy of the data. 
 
a.  Volume b. Velocity c. Variety  d. Veracity 
 
Ans. d 
 
Ans. d 
Ans. True 
11. The process of exploring data and reports in order to extract meaningful insights, which can be used to better understand and improve business performance. 
a. Reporting  b. Analysis  c. Summarizing d. None of these  
 
Ans. b 
Ans. a 
8. What are the V’s in the characteristics of Big data? a. Volume b. Velocity c. Variety  d. All of these 
 
9. What are the types of reporting in data analytics? 
a. Canned reports  b. Dashboard reports c. Alert reports     d. All of above 
 
10.Massive Parallel Processing (MPP) database breaks the data into independent chunks with independent disk and CPU resources. 
a. True  b. False 
 
12. The key components of an analytical sandbox are:  (i) Business analytics (ii) Analytical sandbox platform  (iii) Data access and delivery  (iv) Data sources  
 
a. True  b. False 
 

 
Ans. b 
 
14. Which phase Prepare an analytic sandbox, in which you can work for the duration of the project. Perform ELT and ETL to get data into the sandbox, and begin transforming the data so you can work with it and analyze it. Familiarize yourself with the data thoroughly and take steps to condition the data.  
a. Data preparation  b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building  Ans. a 
 
Ans.b 
Ans. a 
13. The ____________phase learn the business domain, including relevant history, such as whether the organization or business unit has attempted similar projects in the past, from which you can learn. Assess the resources you will have to support the project, in terms of people, technology, time, and data. Frame the business problem as an analytic challenge that can be addressed in subsequent phases. Formulate initial hypotheses (IH) to test and begin learning the data.  a. Data preparation b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 
 
15. Which phase uses SQL, Python, R, or excel to perform various data modifications and transformations.  
 
a. Data preparation  b. Data cleaning c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 
 
16. By definition, Database Administrator is a person who ___________ 
 
a. Provisions and configures database environment to support the analytical needs of the working team. b. Ensure key milestones and objectives are met on time and at expected quality. c. Deep technical skills to assist with tuning SQL queries for data management, extraction and support data ingest to analytic sandbox. d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
Ans. c 
Ans. b 
Ans .b 
17. ETL stands for  
 
a. Extract, Load, Transform b. Evaluate, Transform ,Load c. Extract , Loss , Transform d. None of the above 
 
18. The phase Develop data sets for testing, training, and production purposes. Get the best environment you can for executing models and workflows, including fast hardware and parallel processing is referred to as  
 
a. Data preparation  b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 
 
19. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 
a. Data Mining  b. Predictive Intelligence c. Business Intelligence d. Text Analytics 
 
20. User rating given to a movie in a scale 1-10, can be considered as an attribute of type? 
a. Nominal  b. Ordinal  c. Interval  d. Ratio 
 
Ans. d 
22. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 
a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Can be true or false  d. Cannot say 
 
Ans. a 
Ans. b 
Ans.b 
 
25. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 
a. Analytics b. Data mining c. Big Data d. Data Warehouse 
21. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 
a. William S.  b. Hans Peter Luhn  c. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro  d.  John Tukey 
 
23. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 
a. Data Mining  b. Predictive Intelligence c. Business Intelligence d. Text Analytics 
 
24. Which of the following step is performed by data scientist after acquiring the data? 
a. Data Cleansing b. Data Integration c. Data Replication d. All of the mentioned 
 

 
Ans. c 
 
26. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data. Is this true or False. a. TRUE b. FALSE 
 
Ans. a 
27. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 
a. TRUE b. FALSE 
 
Ans. b 
28. _____________ have a structure but cannot be stored in a database. 
 
a. Structured b. Semi-Structured c. Unstructured d. None of these 
 
Ans. b 
29. ____________refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business. 
 
a. Velocity b. Variety c. Value d. Volume 
 
Ans. c 
30. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy. 
 
a. TRUE b. FALSE 
 
Ans.b 
NPTEL Questions 
31. Analysing the data to answer why some phenomenon related to learning happened is a type of  
a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics 
c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 
Ans. B 
32. Analysing the data to answer what will happen next is a type of  
a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 
Ans. D 
33. Learning analytics at institutions/University, regional or national level is termed as  
a. Educational data mining  b. Business intelligence  c. Academic analytics d. None of the above 
Ans. C 
34. Which of the following questions is not a type of Predictive Analytics? 
a. What is the average score of all students in the CBSE 10th Maths Exam? b. What will be the performance of a students in next questions? c. Which courses will the student take in the next semester? d. What is the average attendance of the class over the semester 
Ans A,D 
35. A courses instructor has data about students attendance in her course in the past semester. Based on this data, she constructs a line graph type of analytics is she doing? 
a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 
Ans. A 
36. she then correlates the attendance with their final exam scores. She realizes that students who score 90% and above also have an attandence of more then 75%. What type of analytics is she doing? 
a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 
Ans. B 
38. Why one should not go for sampling?  
a. Less costly to administer than a census.  b. The person authorizing the study is comfortable with the sample.  c. Because the research process is sometimes destructive  d. None of the above 
Ans. d 
39. Stratified random sampling is a method of selecting a sample in which:  
a. the sample is first divided into strata, and then random samples are taken from each stratum  b. various strata are selected from the sample  c. the population is first divided into strata, and then random samples are drawn from each stratum  d. None of these alternatives is correct. 
Ans. c 
SET II 
1. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 
e. William S.  f. Hans Peter Luhn  g. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro  h.  John Tukey 
Ans D 
2. What is classification? 
 
a) deciding what features to use in a pattern recognition problem b) deciding what class an input pattern belongs to c) deciding what type of neural network to use d) none of the mentioned 
Ans. B 
 
3. Data in ___________ bytes size is called Big Data. 
 
A. Tera B. Giga C. Peta D. Meta 
 
Ans : C 
 
Explanation: data in Peta bytes i.e. 10^15 byte size is called Big Data. 4. How many V's of Big Data 
 
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 
 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: Big Data was defined by the “3Vs” but now there are “5Vs” of Big Data which are Volume, Velocity, Variety, Veracity, Value 
 
5. Transaction data of the bank is? 
 
A. structured data B. unstructured datat C. Both A and B D. None of the above 
 
Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Data which can be saved in tables are structured data like the transaction data of the bank. 6. In how many forms BigData could be found? 
 
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 
 
Ans : B 
 
Explanation: BigData could be found in three forms: Structured, Unstructured and Semistructured. 7. Which of the following are Benefits of Big Data Processing? 
 
A. Businesses can utilize outside intelligence while taking decisions B. Improved customer service C. Better operational efficiency D. All of the above 
 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All of the above are Benefits of Big Data Processing. 
 
8. Which of the following are incorrect Big Data Technologies? 
 
A. Apache Hadoop B. Apache Spark C. Apache Kafka D. Apache Pytarch 
 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: Apache Pytarch is incorrect Big Data Technologies. 9. The overall percentage of the world’s total data has been created just within the past two years is ? 
 
A. 80% B. 85% C. 90% D. 95% 
 
Ans : C 
 
Explanation: The overall percentage of the world’s total data has been created just within the past two years is 90%. 10. Apache Kafka is an open-source platform that was created by? 
 
A. LinkedIn B. Facebook 
C. Google D. IBM 
 
Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Apache Kafka is an open-source platform that was created by LinkedIn in the year 2011. 
 
11. What was Hadoop named after? 
 
A. Creator Doug Cutting’s favorite circus act B. Cuttings high school rock band C. The toy elephant of Cutting’s son D. A sound Cutting’s laptop made during Hadoop development 
 
Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Doug Cutting, Hadoop creator, named the framework after his child’s stuffed toy elephant. 12. What are the main components of Big Data? 
 
A. MapReduce B. HDFS C. YARN D. All of the above 
 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All of the above are the main components of Big Data. 
 
13. Point out the correct statement. 
 
A. Hadoop do need specialized hardware to process the data B. Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data C. In Hadoop programming framework output files are divided into lines or records D. None of the above 
 
Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Hadoop batch processes data distributed over a number of computers ranging in 100s and 1000s. 14. Which of the following fields come under the umbrella of Big Data? 
 
A. Black Box Data B. Power Grid Data 
C. Search Engine Data D. All of the above 
 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All options are the fields come under the umbrella of Big Data. 
 
15. Which of the following is not an example of Social Media? 1. Twitter 2. Google 3. Instagram 4. Youtube 
 
ANs: 2 (Google) 
16. By 2025, the volume of digital data will increase to 1. TB 2. YB 3. ZB 4. EB Ans: 3  ZB 
17. Data Analysis is a process of 1. inspecting data 2. cleaning data 3. transforming data 4. All of Above 
 
Ans. 4 All of above 
18. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 1. Data Mining 2. Predictive Intelligence 3. Business Intelligence 4. Text Analytics 
 
Ans. 2 Predictive Intelligence 
19. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 1. Analytics 2. Data mining 3. Big data 4. Data warehouse 
 
Ans. 3 Big data 
20. In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with ? 
1. Integer descriptor 2. floating descriptor 3. numerical descriptor 4. decimal descriptor 
 
Ans. 3 numerical descriptor 
21. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 
 
TRUE 
22. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 1. True 2. False 
 
False 
23. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 
 
False 
24. Hortonworks was introduced by Cloudera and owned by Yahoo 1. True 2. False 
 
False 
25. ____ refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business 1. Velocity 2. variety 3. Value 4. Volume 
 
Ans. 3 Value 
26. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 1. William S. 2. Hans Peter Luhn 3.  Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro 4.  John Tukey 
 
Ans. 4 John Tukey 
27. Files are divided into ____ sized Chunks. 1. Static 2. Dynamic 3. Fixed 4. Variable 
 
Ans. 3 Fixed 
28. _____ is an open source framework for storing data and running application on clusters of commodity hardware. 1. HDFS 2. Hadoop 3. MapReduce 4. Cloud 
 
Ans. 2 Hadoop 
29. ____ is factors considered before Adopting Big Data Technology 1. Validation 2. Verification 3. Data 4. Design 
 
Ans. 1 Validation 
30. Which among the following is not a Data mining and analytical applications? 1. profile matching 2. social network analysis 3. facial recognition 4. Filtering 
 
Ans. 4 Filtering 
31. Which storage subsystem can support massive data volumes of increasing size. 1. Extensibility 2. Fault tolerance 3. Scalability 4. High-speed I/O capacity 
 
Ans. 3 Scalability 
32. ______ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. 
1. HDFS 2. MAP REDUCE 3. HADOOP 4. HIVE Ans. MAP REDUCE 
 
 
33. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis? 
 
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 
 
Ans : A 
 
Explanation: In data analysis, two main statistical methodologies are used Descriptive statistics and Inferential statistics. 
 
34. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 
 
A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say 
 
Ans : A 
 
Explanation: The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 
 
35. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as 1. industry statistics 2. economic statistics 3. applied statistics 4. applied statistics 
 
Ans. applied statistics 
36. Point out the correct statement. a) Descriptive analysis is first kind of data analysis performed b) Descriptions can be generalized without statistical modelling 
c) Description and Interpretation are same in descriptive analysis d) None of the mentioned 
 
Answer: b Explanation: Descriptive analysis describe a set of data. 
 
37. What are the five V’s of Big Data? 
A. Volume 
B. Velocity 
C. Variety 
D. All the above 
Answer: Option D 
 
38. What are the main components of Big Data? 
A. MapReduce 
B. HDFS 
C. YARN 
D. All of these 
Answer: Option D 
 
39. What are the different features of Big Data Analytics? 
A. Open-Source 
B. Scalability 
C. Data Recovery 
D. All the above 
Answer: Option D 
40.  Which of the following refers to the problem of finding abstracted patterns (or structures) in the unlabeled data? 
A. Supervised learning 
B. Unsupervised learning 
C. Hybrid learning 
D. Reinforcement learning 
Answer: B 
Explanation: Unsupervised learning is a type of machine learning algorithm that is generally used to find the hidden structured and patterns in the given unlabeled data. 
41. Which one of the following refers to querying the unstructured textual data? 
A. Information access 
B. Information update 
C. Information retrieval 
D. Information manipulation 
Answer: D 
Explanation: Information retrieval refers to querying the unstructured textual data. We can also understand information retrieval as an activity (or process) in which the tasks of obtaining information from system recourses that are relevant to the information required from the huge source of information. 
42. For what purpose, the analysis tools pre-compute the summaries of the huge amount of data? 
A. In order to maintain consistency 
B. For authentication 
C. For data access 
D. To obtain the queries response 
Answer: d 
Explanation: Whenever a query is fired, the response of the query would be put very earlier. So, for the query response, the analysis tools pre-compute the summaries of the huge amount of data. To understand it in more details, consider the following example: 
43. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the data cleaning? 
It refers to the process of data cleaning 
It refers to the transformation of wrong data into correct data 
It refers to correcting inconsistent data 
All of the above 
Answer: d 
Explanation: Data cleaning is a kind of process that is applied to data set to remove the noise from the data (or noisy data), inconsistent data from the given data. It also involves the process of transformation where wrong data is transformed into the correct data as well. In other words, we can also say that data cleaning is a kind of pre-process in which the given set of data is prepared for the data warehouse. 
44. Any data with unknown form or the structure is classified as _ data. a. Structured b. Unstructured c. Semi-structured d. None of above Ans. b 
 
45.____ means relating to the issuing of reports. a. Analysis b. Reporting c. Reporting and Analysis d. None of the above 
 
Ans. b 
 
46.Veracity involves the reliability of the data this is ________due to the numerous data sources of big data a) Easy and difficulty b) Easiness c) Demanding d) none of these 
 
Ans. c 47. ____is a process of defining the measurement of a phenomenon that is not directly measurable, though its existence is implied by other phenomena. a. Data preparation b. Model planning c. Communicating results d. Operationalization 
 
Ans. d 
 
48. _____data is data whose elements are addressable for effective analysis. 
a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 
Ans. a 
49. ______data is information that does not reside in a relational database but that have some organizational properties that make it easier to analyze. 
a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 
Ans. b 
50. ______data is a data which is not organized in a predefined manner or does not have a predefined data model, thus it is not a good fit for a mainstream relational database. 
a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 
Ans. c 
51. There are ___ types of big data. 
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 
Ans. b 
52. Google search is an example of _________ data. 
a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 
Ans. c 
 UNIT 2 DataAnalytics(KIT601)
1. Maximum aposteriori classifier is also known as: a. Decision tree classifier b. Bayes classifier c. Gaussian classifier   d. Maximum margin classifier 
 
Ans. B 
2. Which of the following sentence is FALSE regarding regression? 
 
a. It relates inputs to outputs. b. It is used for prediction. c. It may be used for interpretation. d.  It discovers causal relationships. 
 
Ans. d 
3. Suppose you are working on stock market prediction, and you would like to predict the price of a particular stock tomorrow (measured in dollars). 
You want to use a learning algorithm for this. 
 
a. Regression b. Classification  c. Clustering d. None of these  
 
Ans. a 
4. In binary logistic regression: 
 
a. The dependent variable is divided into two equal subcategories. b. The dependent variable consists of two categories. c. There is no dependent variable. d. The dependent variable is continuous. 
 
Ans. b 
 
5. A fair six-sided die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting 4 on the first roll and not getting 6 on the second roll? 
 
a. 1/36 b. 5/36 c. 1/12 d. 1/9 
 
Ans. b 
 
6. The parameter β0 is termed as intercept term and the parameter β1 is termed as slope parameter. These parameters are usually called as _________ 
 
     a  Regressionists      b. Coefficients      c. Regressive      d. Regression coefficients 
 
Ans. d 
 
7. ________ is a simple approach to supervised learning. It assumes that the dependence of Y on X1, X2… Xp is linear. 
 
a. Gradient Descent b. Linear regression 
c. Logistic regression d. Greedy algorithms 
 
Ans. c 
8. What makes the interpretation of conditional effects extra challenging in logistic regression? 
 
a. It is not possible to model interaction effects in logistic regression b. The maximum likelihood estimation makes the results unstable c. The conditional effect is dependent on the values of all X-variables d. The results has to be raised by its natural logarithm. 
 
Ans. c 9. If there were a perfect positive correlation between two interval/ratio variables, the Pearson's r test would give a correlation coefficient of: 
 
a. - 0.328  b. +1  c. +0.328  d. – 1 
 
Ans.b 
10. Logistic Regression transforms the output probability to in a range of [0, 1]. Which of the following function is used for this purpose? 
 
a. Sigmoid b. Mode  c. Square  d. All of these 
 
Ans.a 
 
12. Generally which of the following method(s) is used for predicting continuous dependent variable? 
1. Linear Regression 2. Logistic Regression 
a. 1 and 2  
b. only 1  c. only 2  d. None of these 
 
Ans.b 
 
13. Mean of the set of numbers {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is? 
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 
 
Ans.b 
14. Name of a movie, can be considered as an attribute of type? 
 
a. Nominal  
b. Ordinal 
c. Interval 
   d. Ratio 
 
Ans.a 
 
15. Let A be an example, and C be a class. The probability P(C) is known as: 
 
a.  Apriori probability   
b.  Aposteriori probability   
c.  Class conditional probability 
 d. None of the above 
 
Ans.a 

 
16. Consider two binary attributes X and Y. We know that the attributes are independent and probability P(X=1) = 0.6, and P(Y=0) = 0.4. What is the probability that both X and Y have values 1? 
 
a. 0. 0.06  b. 0.16  c. 0.26  d.  0.36 
 
Ans. d 
17. In regression the output is a. Discrete  b. Continuous  c. Continuous and always lie in same range d. May be discrete and continuous  
 
Ans. b 
18. The probabilistic model that finds the most probable prediction using the training data and space of hypotheses to make a prediction for a new data instance.  
 
a. Concept learning  b. Bayes optimal classifier  c. EM algorithm  d. Logistic regression  
 
Ans. b 
19 . State whether the following condition is true or not. “In Bayesian theorem , it is important to find the probability of both the events occurring simultaneously”  
a. True  b. False  
 
Ans. b 20 .If the correlation coefficient is a positive value, then the slope of the regression line  
 
a. can be either negative or positive  
b. must also be positive c. can be zero d. cannot be zero 
 
Ans. b 
21. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? 
 
a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent c. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important and are independent. d. None of the above options 
 
Ans. c 
22. Previous probabilities in Bayes Theorem that are changed with help of new available information are classified as _______   
a. independent probabilities b. posterior probabilities c. interior probabilities d. dependent probabilities 
 
Ans. b 
23. Which of the following methods do we use, to find the best fit line for data in Linear Regression? 
 
a. Least Square Error b. Maximum Likelihood c. Logarithmic Loss d. Both A and B 
 
Ans. a 
24. What is the consequence between a node and its predecessors while creating Bayesian network? 
 
a. Conditionally dependent b.  Dependent c. Conditionally independent d. Both a & b 
 
Ans. c 25. Bayes rule can be used to __________conditioned on one piece of evidence. 
 
a. Solve queries b. Answer probabilistic queries c. Decrease complexity of queries d. Increase complexity of queries 
 
Ans.b 
 
26. Which of the following options is/are correct in reference to Bayesian Learning? 
 
a. New instances can be classified by combining the predictions of multiple hypotheses, weighted by their probabilities. b. Bayesian methods can accommodate hypotheses that make probabilistic predictions. c. Each observed training example can incrementally decrease or increase the estimated probability that a hypothesis is correct. d. All of the mentioned 
 
Ans. d 
27. When the cell is said to be fired? a. if potential of body reaches a steady threshold values b. if there is impulse reaction c. during upbeat of heart d. none of the mentioned 
 
Ans.a 28. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? 
a.  answering yes/no questions about the data b. estimating numerical characteristics of the data c. modeling relationships within the data d. describing associations within the data  
 
Ans.c 
29. Suppose you are building a SVM model on data X. The data X can be error prone which means that you should not trust any specific data point too much. Now think that you want to build a SVM model which has quadratic kernel function of polynomial degree 2 that uses Slack variable C as one of its hyper parameter. Based upon that give the answer for following question.  What would happen when you use very large value of C? 
a. We can still classify data correctly for given setting of hyper parameter C b. We cannot classify data correctly for given setting of hyper parameter C. c. Can’t Say 
d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
30. What is/are true about kernel in SVM? 
(a) Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space  (b) It’s a similarity function 
 
a. Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space b. It’s a similarity function  c. Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space and It’s a similarity function d. None of these   
 
Ans. c 
 31. Suppose you have trained an SVM with linear decision boundary after training SVM, you correctly infer that your SVM model is under fitting.                                        (a) Which of the following option would you more likely to consider iterating SVM next time? Tasks a. You want to increase your data points. b. You want to decrease your data points. c. You will try to calculate more variables. d. You will try to reduce the features. 
 
Ans. c 
32. Suppose you are using RBF kernel in SVM with high Gamma value. What does this signify? 
a. The model would consider even far away points from hyperplane for modeling  b. The model would consider only the points close to the hyperplane for modeling. c. The model would not be affected by distance of points from hyperplane for modeling. d. None of these 
 
Ans.b 
33. Which of the following can only be used when training data are linearly separable? 
a. Linear Logistic Regression. b. Linear Soft margin SVM c. Linear hard-margin SVM d. Parzen windows. 
 
Ans.c 
 
34. Using the kernel trick, one can get non-linear decision boundaries using algorithms designed originally for linear models. 
a. True  b. False  
 
Ans. a 
 
35. Support vectors are the data points that lie closest to the decision surface. 
a. True b. False 
 
Ans. True  
36. Which of the following statement is true for a multilayered perceptron? 
a. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the next layer b. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the same layer c.  Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the previous layer d. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the output layer 
Ans. a 
37. Which of the following is/are true regarding an SVM? 
a. For two dimensional data points, the separating hyperplane learnt by a linear SVM will be a straight line. b. In theory, a Gaussian kernel SVM cannot model any complex separating hyperplane. c. For every kernel function used in a SVM, one can obtain an equivalent closed form basis expansion. d. Overfitting in an SVM is not a function of number of support vectors. 
 
Ans. a 
38. The function of distance that is used to determine the weight of each training example in instance based learning is known as______________ 
a. Kernel Function b. Linear Function c. Binomial distribution d. All of the above 
 
Ans. a 39. What is the name of the function in the following statement “A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0”? 
a. Step function b. Heaviside function c. Logistic function d. Binary function  
 
Ans. b 
40. Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. 
 
a. All of the mentioned are true b. (ii) and (iii) are true c. (i) and (ii) are true d. Only (i) is true  
Ans. a 
41. Which of the following is an application of NN (Neural Network)? 
 
a. Sales forecasting b. Data validation c. Risk management d. All of the mentioned 
 
Ans. d 
42. A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0. 
 
a. True b. False 
 
Ans. a 
43. In what ways can output be determined from activation value in ANN? 
 
a. Deterministically 
b. Stochastically c. both deterministically & stochastically d. none of the mentioned 
 
Ans. c 
45. In ANN, the amount of output of one unit received by another unit depends on what? 
 
a. output unit b. input unit c. activation value d. weight 
 
Ans. d 
46. Function of dendrites in ANN is  
 
a. receptors b. transmitter c. both receptor & transmitter d. none of the mentioned 
 
Ans. a 
47. Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. 
 
 
a. All of the mentioned are true b. (ii) and (iii) are true c. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true d. Only (i) is true  
 
Ans. a 48. What is the name of the function in the following statement “A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0”? 
 
a. Step function b. Heaviside function 
c. Logistic function d. Binary function  
 
Ans. b 
49. 4 input neuron has weight 1, 2, 3 and 4. The transfer function is linear with the constant of proportionality being equal to 2.  The inputs are 4,10,5 and 20 respectively. The output will be 
 
a. 238  b. 76 c. 119  d. 123 
 
Ans. a 
50. Which of the following are real world applications of the SVM? 
a. Text and Hypertext Categorization b. Image Classification c. Clustering of News Articles d. All of the above 
 
Ans.d 
51. Support vector machine may be termed as: 
a. Maximum apriori classifier  
b. Maximum margin classifier 
c. Minimum apriori classifier   
d.  Minimum margin classifier 
 
Ans.b 
52. What is purpose of Axon? a.  receptors b. transmitter c. transmission d. none of the mentioned 
 

 
 
53. The model developed from sample data having the form of Å· = b0 + b1X is known as: Ans: - C – estimated regression equation 
54. In regression analysis, which of the following is not a required assumption about the error term ε? 
Ans: - A – The expected value of the error term is one 
55. ____________ are algorithms that learn from their more complex environments (hence eco) to generalize, approximate and simplify solution logic. 
a. Fuzzy Relational DB 
b. Ecorithms 
c. Fuzzy Set 
d. None of the mentioned 
Ans. c 
 
56. The truth values of traditional set theory is ____________ and that of fuzzy set is __________ 
a. Either 0 or 1, between 0 & 1 
b. Between 0 & 1, either 0 or 1 
c. Between 0 & 1, between 0 & 1 
d. Either 0 or 1, either 0 or 1 
Ans. a 
57. What is the form of Fuzzy logic? 
a. Two-valued logic 
b. Crisp set logic 
Ans.c 
c. Many-valued logic 
d. Binary set logic 
Ans. c 
58. Fuzzy logic is usually represented as ___________ 
a. IF-THEN rules 
b. IF-THEN-ELSE rules 
c. Both IF-THEN-ELSE rules & IF-THEN rules 
d. None of the mentioned 
Ans. a 
59. ______________ is/are the way/s to represent uncertainty. 
a. Fuzzy Logic 
b. Probability 
c. Entropy 
d. All of the mentioned 
Ans.d 
60. Fuzzy Set theory defines fuzzy operators. Choose the fuzzy operators from the following. 
a. AND 
b. OR  
c. NOT 
d. All of mentioned 
Ans. d 
61. The values of the set membership is represented by ___________ 
a. Discrete Set 
b. Degree of truth 
c. Probabilities 
d. Both Degree of truth & Probabilities View Answer 
Ans. b 
62. Fuzzy logic is extension of Crisp set with an extension of handling the concept of Partial Truth. 
a. True  
b. False 
Ans. a 
SET II 
 
1. Sentiment Analysis is an example of 1. Regression 2. Classification 3. clustering 4. Reinforcement Learning 
 
1. 1, 2 and 4 2. 1, 2 and 3 3. 1 and 3 4. 1 and 2 Show Answer Ans. 1, 2 and 4 
2. The self-organizing maps can also be considered as the instance of _________ type of learning. 
A. Supervised learning B. Unsupervised learning C. Missing data imputation D. Both A & C 
 
Answer: B Explanation: The Self Organizing Map (SOM), or the Self Organizing Feature Map is a kind of Artificial Neural Network which is trained through unsupervised learning. 
3.  The following given statement can be considered as the examples of_________ 
Suppose one wants to predict the number of newborns according to the size of storks' population by performing supervised learning 
A. Structural equation modeling B. Clustering C. Regression D. Classification 
Answer: C 
Explanation: The above-given statement can be considered as an example of regression. Therefore the correct answer is C. 
4. In the example predicting the number of newborns, the final number of total newborns can be considered as the _________ 
A. Features B. Observation C. Attribute 
D. Outcome 
a. Answer: d b. Explanation: In the example of predicting the total number of newborns, the result will be represented as the outcome. Therefore, the total number of newborns will be found in the outcome or addressed by the outcome. 
5. Which of the following statement is true about the classification? 
A. It is a measure of accuracy B. It is a subdivision of a set C. It is the task of assigning a classification D. None of the above 
Answer: B 
Explanation: The term "classification" refers to the classification of the given data into certain sub-classes or groups according to their similarities or on the basis of the specific given set of rules. 
6. Which one of the following correctly refers to the task of the classification? 
A. A measure of the accuracy, of the classification of a concept that is given by a certain theory B. The task of assigning a classification to a set of examples C. A subdivision of a set of examples into a number of classes D. None of the above 
Answer: B 
Explanation: The task of classification refers to dividing the set into subsets or in the numbers of the classes. Therefore the correct answer is C. 
 
7. _____is an observation which contains either very low value or very high value in comparison to other observed values. It may hamper the result, so it should be avoided. a. Dependent Variable b. Independent Variable c. Outlier Variable d. None of the above Ans. c 
 
8. _______is a type of regression which models the non-linear dataset using a linear model. 
a. Polynomial Regression b. Logistic Regression c. Linear Regression d. Decision Tree Regression 
Ans. a 
9. The prediction of the weight of a person when his height is known, is a simple example of regression. The function used in R language is_____. 
a. Im() b. print() c. predict() d. summary( ) 
Ans. c 
10. There is the following syntax of lm() function in multiple regression. 
lm(y ~ x1+x2+x3...., data)   a. y is predictor and x1,x2,x3 are the dependent variables. b. y is dependent and x1,x2,x3 are the predictors. c. data is predictor variable. d. None of the above. 
Ans. b 
11. _______is a probabilistic graphical model which represents a set of variables and their conditional dependencies using a directed acyclic graph. 
a. A Bayesian network b. Bayes Network c. Bayesian Model d. All of the above 
Ans. d 
 
12. In support vector regression, _____is a function used to map lower dimensional data into higher dimensional data 
A) Boundary line B) Kernel C) Hyper Plane D) Support Vector Ans. B 
 
 
13. If the independent variables are highly correlated with each other than other variables then such condition is called___________ a) outlier b) Multicollinearity c) under fitting d) independent variable 
 
Ans. b 
 
14. The Bayesian network graph does not contain any cyclic graph. Hence, it is known as a ____ or_____. 
a. Directed Acyclic Graph or DAG b. Directed Cyclic Graph or DCG. c. Both the above. d. None of the above. 
Ans. a 
 
 
15. The hyperplane with maximum margin is called the ______ hyperplane. a. Non-optimal b. Optimal c. None of the above d. Requires one more option 
Ans. b 
16. One more _____ is needed for non-linear SVM. 
a. Dimension b. Attribute c. Both the above d. None of the above 
Ans. a 
17. A subset of dataset to train the machine learning model, and we already know the output. 
a. Training set b. Test set c. Both the above 
d. None of the above 
Ans. a 
18. ______is the final step of data preprocessing in machine learning. It is a technique to standardize the independent variables of the dataset in a specific range. In_____, we put our variables in the same range and in the same scale so that no any variable dominate the other variable 
a. Feature Sampling b. Feature Scaling c. None of the above d. Both the above 
Ans. b 
19. Principal components analysis (PCA) is a statistical technique that allows identifying underlying linear patterns in a data set so it can be expressed in terms of other data set of a significantly ____ dimension without much loss of information. a. Lower b. Higher c. Equal d. None of the above 
Ans. a 
 
20. _____ units which are internal to the network and do not directly interact with the environment. a. Input b. Output c. Hidden d. None of the above 
Ans. c 
 
21. In a ____ network there is an ordering imposed on the nodes in a network: if there is a connection from unit a to unit b then there can-not be a connection from b to a. a. Feedback b. Feed-Forward c. None of the above 
Ans. b  
 
22. _____ contains the multiple logical values and these values are the truth values of a variable or problem between 0 and 1. This concept was introduced by Lofti Zadeh in 1965 a. Boolean Logic b. Fuzzy Logic c. None of the above 
Ans. b 
 
23. ______is a module or component, which takes the fuzzy set inputs generated by the Inference Engine, and then transforms them into a crisp value. a. Fuzzification b. Defuzzification c. Inference Engine d. None of the above 
Ans. b 
 
24. The most common application of time series analysis is forecasting future values of a numeric value using the ______ structure of the ____ a. Shares,data b. Temporal,data c. Permanent,data d. None of these 
Ans. b  
 
25. Identify the component of a time series a. Temporal b. Shares c. Trend d. Policymakers 
Ans. c 
 
26. Predictable pattern that recurs or repeats over regular intervals. Seasonality is often observed within a year or less: This define the term__________ a. Trend b. Seasonality c. Cycles d. Recession 
Ans. b 

 27. ________Learning uses a training set that consists of a set of pattern pairs: an input pattern and the corresponding desired (or target) output pattern. The desired output may be regarded as the ‘network’s ‘teacher” for that input a. Unsupervised b. Supervised c. Modular d. Object  
Ans. b 
 
28. The _______ perceptron consists of a set of input units connected by a single layer of weights to a set of output units a. Multi layer b. Single layer c. Hidden layer d. None of these 
Ans. b 
 
29. If we add another layer of weights to single layer perceptron , then we find that there is a new set of units that are neither input or output units; for simplicity we consider more than 2 layers has  a. Single layer perceptron b. Multi layer perceptron c. Hidden  layer d. None of these 
Ans. b 
 
30. Patterns that repeat over a certain period of time a. Seasonal b. Trend c. None of the above d. Both of the above 
Ans. a 
31. Which of the following is characteristic of best machine learning method ? 
a. Fast b.  Accuracy c. Scalable d. All of the Mentioned 
 
Ans. d 

 
32. Supervised learning differs from unsupervised clustering in that supervised learning requires a. at least one input attribute. b. input attributes to be categorical. c. at least one output attribute. d. ouput attriubutes to be categorical. Ans. d 
 
33. Supervised learning and unsupervised clustering both require at least one a. hidden attribute. b. output attribute. c. input attribute. d. categorical attribute. Ans. c 
 
34. Which statement is true about prediction problems? a. The output attribute must be categorical. b. The output attribute must be numeric. c. The resultant model is designed to determine future outcomes. d. The resultant model is designed to classify current behavior. Ans. c 
 
35. Which statement is true about neural network and linear regression models? a. Both models require input attributes to be numeric.  b. Both models require numeric attributes to range between 0 and 1. c. The output of both models is a categorical attribute value. d. Both techniques build models whose output  is determined by a  linear sum of weighted input attribute values. Ans. a 
 
36. A feed-forward neural network is said to be  fully connected when a. all nodes are connected to each other. b. all nodes at the same layer are connected to each other. c. all nodes at one layer are connected to all nodes in the next higher layer. d. all hidden layer nodes are connected to all output layer nodes. Ans. c 
 
37. Machine learning techniques differ from statistical techniques in that machine learning methods  a. typically assume an underlying distribution for the data. 
b. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data. c. are not able to explain their behavior. d. have trouble with large-sized datasets. Ans. b 
 
38. This supervised learning technique can process both numeric and categorical input attributes. a. linear regression b. Bayes classifier c. logistic regression d. backpropagation learning Ans. b 
 
39. This technique associates a conditional probability value with each data instance. a. linear regression b. logistic regression c. simple regression d. multiple linear regression Ans. b 
 
40. Logistic regression is a ________ regression technique that is used to model data having a _____outcome.  a. linear, numeric b. linear, binary c. nonlinear, numeric d. nonlinear, binary Ans. d 
 
41. Which of the following problems is best solved using time-series analysis? a. Predict whether someone is a likely candidate for having a stroke. b. Determine if an individual should be given an unsecured loan. c. Develop a profile of a star athlete. d. Determine the likelihood that someone will terminate their cell phone contract. 
 
Ans. d 
 
42. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent 
c. Both A and B d. None of the above options Ans. c 43. Simple regression assumes a __________ relationship between the input  attribute and output attribute. a. linear b. quadratic c. reciprocal d. inverse 
 
44. With Bayes classifier, missing data items are a. treated as equal compares. b. treated as unequal compares. c. replaced with a default value. d. ignored. 45. What is Machine learning? a. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs b. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs c. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs d. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs 
 
Ans: a 
 
46. Automated vehicle is an example of ______ a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Active learning d. Reinforcement learning 
 
Ans: a 
 
47. Multilayer perceptron network is a. Usually, the weights are initially set to small random values b. A hard-limiting activation function is often used c. The weights can only be updated after all the training vectors have been presented d. Multiple layers of neurons allow for less complex decision boundaries than a single layer 
 
Ans: a 
 
48. Neural networks a. optimize a convex cost function b. cannot be used for regression as well as classification c. always output values between 0 and 1 d. can be used in an ensemble 
 
Ans: d 
 
49. In neural networks, nonlinear activation functions such as sigmoid, tanh, and ReLU a. speed up the gradient calculation in backpropagation, as compared to linear units b. are applied only to the output units c. help to learn nonlinear decision boundaries d. always output values between 0 and 1 
 
Ans: c 
 
50. Which of the following is a disadvantage of decision trees? 
a. Factor analysis b. Decision trees are robust to outliers c. Decision trees are prone to be overfit d. None of the above 
 
Ans: c 
 
51. Back propagation is a learning technique that adjusts weights in the neural network by propagating weight changes. a. Forward from source to sink b. Backward from sink to source c. Forward from source to hidden nodes d. Backward from sink to hidden nodes 
 
Ans: b 
52. Identify the following activation function : φ(V) = Z + (1/ 1 + exp (– x * V + Y) ),Z, X, Y are parameters  
a. Step function b. Ramp function c. Sigmoid function 
d. Gaussian function 
 
Ans: c 
53. An artificial neuron receives n inputs x1, x2, x3............xnwith  weights w1, w2, ..........wn attached to the input links. The weighted sum_________________ is computed to be passed on to a non-linear filter  Φ called activation function to release the output. a. Σ wi b. Σ xi c. Σ wi + Σ xi d. Σ wi* xi 
 
Ans: d 
 
54. With Bayes classifier, missing data items are a. treated as equal compares. b. treated as unequal compares. c. replaced with a default value. d. ignored. 
 
Ans:b 
 
55. Machine learning techniques differ from statistical techniques in that machine learning methods a. typically assume an underlying distribution for the data. b. are better able to deal with missing and noisy data. c. are not able to explain their behavior. d. have trouble with large-sized datasets. 
 
Ans: b 
56. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? 
a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent c. Both a and b d. None of the above options 
 
Ans: c 
57. How many terms are required for building a Bayes model? 
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 
 
Ans: c 
58. What does the Bayesian network provides? a. Complete description of the domain b. Partial description of the domain c. Complete description of the problem d. None of the mentioned 
 
Ans: a 
59. How the Bayesian network can be used to answer any query? a. Full distribution b. Joint distribution c. Partial distribution d. All of the mentioned 
 
Ans: b 
60. In which of the following learning the teacher returns reward and punishment to learner? a. Active learning b. Reinforcement learning c. Supervised learning d. Unsupervised learning 
 
Ans: b 
 
61. Which of the following is the model used for learning? a. Decision trees b. Neural networks c. Propositional and FOL rules d. All of the mentioned 
 
Ans: d 
 
 UNIT 3 DataAnalytics(KIT601)
 
Q.1 Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming? 
A) Limited amount of memory 
B) Limited amount of processing time 
C) Limited amount of input data 
D) Limited amount of processing power 
Q.2 Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? 
A) Stream data is always unstructured data. 
B) Stream data often has a high velocity. 
C) Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. 
D) Stream data is always structured data. 
Ans. B 
 
Q.3 What is the main difference between standard reservoir sampling and min-wise sampling? 
A) Reservoir sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas minwise sampling does not. 
B) Min-wise sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas reservoir sampling does not. 
C) Reservoir sampling requires a stream to be processed sequentially, whereas minwise does not. 
D) For larger streams, reservoir sampling creates more accurate samples than minwise sampling. 
Ans. C) 
 
Q.4 A Bloom filter guarantees no 
A) false positives 
B) false negatives 
C) false positives and false negatives 
D) false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type 
Ans. B) 
 
Q,5 Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? 
A) It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. 
B) A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. 
C) It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more 
space. 
Incorrect. 
D) A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added 
element. 
Ans. D) 
 
Q.6 The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last k bits of a stream window N. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? 
A) The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. 
B) The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. 
C) To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. 
D) None of these 
Ans. B) 

 
Q.7 Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? 
 A)DGIM operates on a time-based window.  
B)  DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts.  
C)  In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  
D)  The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand.  
Ans. D) 
Q.8 Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? 
 A)DGIM operates on a time-based window.  
B)  DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts.  
C)  In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  
D) The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream 
Ans. D) 
 
Q.9 What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? A) DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% 
B) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% 
C) DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% 
D) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% 
Ans. B) 
 
Q.10 Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 
A) Misra-Gries 
B) Alon-Matias-Szegedy 
C) DGIM 
D) None of the above 
Ans. D) 
Q.11 Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 
A) Misra-Gries 
B) Alon-Matias-Szegedy 
C) DGIM 
D) Flajolet and Martin  
Ans. D) 
Q.12 Which of the following streaming windows show valid bucket representations according to the DGIM rules? 
A) 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 
B) 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 
C) 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 
D) 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 
Ans. D) 
Q.13 For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2 greater than 45? 
A)  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10  
B)  10 10 10 10 10 5 5 5 5 5  
C)  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1  
D) None of these 
Ans. B) 
 
Q.14 For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2 greater than 45? 
A)  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10  
B)  10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 
C)  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1  
D) None of these 
Ans. B) 
 
Q 15 : In Bloom filter an array of n bits is initialized with 
A) all 0s 
B) all 1s 
C) half 0s and half 1s 
D) all -1 
Ans. A) 
 
Q 16. Pick a hash function h that maps each of the N elements to at least log2 N bits, Estimated number of distinct elements is 
 
A) 2^R 
B) 2^(-R) 
C) 1-(2^R) 
D) 1-(2^(-R)) 
 
Ans. A) 
 
Q.17 Sliding window operations typically fall in the category 
A) OLTP Transactions 
B) Big Data Batch Processing 
C) Big Data Real Time Processing 
D) Small Batch Processing 
Ans. C) 
 
Q.18 What is the finally produced by Hierarchical Agglomerative Clustering? 
 
A) final estimate of cluster centroids 
B)assignment of each point to clusters 
C) tree showing how close things are to each other 
D) Group of clusters 
Ans. C) 
 
Q19 Which of the algorithm can be used for counting 1's in a stream 
A) FM Algorithm  
B) PCY Algorithm  
C) DGIM Algorithm  
D) SON Algorithm 
Ans. C) 
 
Q20 Which technique is used to filter unnecessary itemset in PCY algorithm 
A) Association Rule  
B) Hashing Technique 
C) Data Mining 
D)  Market basket 
Ans. B) 
 
Q21 In association rule, which of the following indicates the measure of how frequently the items occur in a dataset ?  
A) Support  B) Confidence  C) Basket  D) Itemset 
Ans. A) 
Q.22 which of the following clustering technique is used by K- Means Algorithm  
A) Hierarchical Technique  
B) Partitional technique  
C)Divisive  
D) Agglomerative 
Ans. B) 
 
Q.23 which of the following clustering technique is used by Agglomerative Nesting Algorithm 
A) Hierarchical Technique  
B) Partitional technique   
C) Density based  
D)None of these 
 
Q24. Which of the following Hierarchichal approach begins with each observation in a distinct (singleton) cluster, and successively merges clusters together until a stopping criterion is satisfied.  
A) Divisive  
B) Agglomerative  
C) Single Link  
D) Complete Link 
 
Q.25 Park, Chen, Yu algorithm is useful for __________in Big Data Application. 
A) Find Frequent Itemset  
B) Filtering Stream  
C) Distinct Element Find  
D) None of these 
Ans. A) 
 
Q.26 .Match the following                                                  
a) Bloom filter                   i) Frequent Pattern Mining                      
b) FM Algorithm              ii) Filtering Stream                      
c) PCY Algorithm            iii) Distinct Element Find d) DGIM Algorithm         iv) Counting 1’s in window A a)-ii), b-iii), c-i), d-iv)     
B a)-iii), b-ii), c-i), d-iv)  
C) A a)-i1), b-iii), c-ii), d-iv)  
D) None of these 
Ans. A) 
 
 SET II 
1. Which of the following can be considered as the correct process of Data Mining? a. Infrastructure, Exploration, Analysis, Interpretation, Exploitation b. Exploration, Infrastructure, Analysis, Interpretation, Exploitation c. Exploration, Infrastructure, Interpretation, Analysis, Exploitation d. Exploration, Infrastructure, Analysis, Exploitation, Interpretation 
Answer: a 
Explanation: The process of data mining contains many sub-processes in a specific order. The correct order in which all sub-processes of data mining executes is Infrastructure, Exploration, Analysis, Interpretation, and Exploitation. 
2. Which of the following is an essential process in which the intelligent methods are applied to extract data patterns? a. Warehousing b. Data Mining c. Text Mining d. Data Selection 
Answer: b 
Explanation: Data mining is a type of process in which several intelligent methods are used to extract meaningful data from the huge collection (or set) of data. 
3.  What are the functions of Data Mining? a. Association and correctional analysis classification b. Prediction and characterization 
c. Cluster analysis and Evolution analysis d. All of the above 
Answer: d 
Explanation: In data mining, there are several functionalities used for performing the different types of tasks. The common functionalities used in data mining are cluster analysis, prediction, characterization, and evolution. Still, the association and correctional analysis classification are also one of the important functionalities of data mining. 
 
 
 
 
4. Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming? 
a. Limited amount of memory b. Limited amount of processing time c. Limited amount of input data d. Limited amount of processing power 
Ans. c 
5. Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? 
a. Stream data is always unstructured data. b. Stream data often has a high velocity. c. Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. d. Stream data is always structured data. 
Ans. b 
6. Which of the following statements about sampling are correct? a. Sampling reduces the amount of data fed to a subsequent data mining algorithm b. Sampling reduces the diversity of the data stream c. Sampling increases the amount of data fed to a data mining algorithm d. Sampling algorithms often need multiple passes over the data 
Ans. a  
7. Which of the following statements about sampling are correct? a. Sampling reduces the diversity of the data stream 
b. Sampling increases the amount of data fed to a data mining algorithm c. Sampling algorithms often need multiple passes over the data d. Sampling aims to keep statistical properties of the data intact 
 
Ans. d 
 
8. What is the main difference between standard reservoir sampling and min-wise sampling? 
a. Reservoir sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas min-wise sampling does not. b. Min-wise sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas reservoir sampling does not. c. Reservoir sampling requires a stream to be processed sequentially, whereas min-wise does not. d. For larger streams, reservoir sampling creates more accurate samples than min-wise sampling. 
Ans. c 
 
9. A Bloom filter guarantees no 
a. false positives b. false negatives c. false positives and false negatives d. false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type 
Ans. b 
 
10. Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? 
a. It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. b. A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. c. It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more space. d. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element. 
Ans. d 
11. The FM-sketch algorithm uses the number of zeros the binary hash value ends in to make an estimation. Which of the following statements is true about the hash tail? 
a. Any specific bit pattern is equally suitable to be used as hash tail. 
b. Only bit patterns with more 0's than 1's are equally suitable to be used as hash tails. c. Only the bit patterns 0000000..00 (list of 0s) or 111111..11 (list of 1s) are suitable hash tails. d. Only the bit pattern 0000000..00 (list of 0s) is a suitable hash tail. 
Ans. a  
12. The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: 
a. Estimate the number of distinct elements. b. Sample data with a time-sensitive window. c. Estimate the frequent elements. d. Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. 
Ans. a 
 
13. The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last kk bits of a stream window NN. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? 
a. The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. b. The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. c. To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. d. None of above 
 
Ans. b 
 
14. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a. DGIM operates on a time-based window b. DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts c. In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two d. The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand. Ans. d 
 
15. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a. DGIM operates on a time-based window b. The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream c. DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts 
d. In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two Ans. b 
 
16. What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? 
a. DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% b. DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% c. DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% d. DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% 
Ans. b 
 
17. Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 
a. Misra-Gries b. Alon-Matias-Szegedy c. DGIM d. None of the above 
Ans. d 
 
18. Which of the following statements about Bloom filters are correct? 
 
a. A Bloom filter has the same properties as a standard Hashmap data structure in Java (java.util.HashMap).  b. A Bloom filter is full if no more hash functions can be added to it. c. A Bloom filter always returns FALSE when testing for an element that was not previously added d. A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element 
 
Ans. d 
 
19. Which of the following statements about Bloom filters are correct? 
 
a. An empty Bloom filter (no elements added to it) will always return FALSE when testing for an element b. A Bloom filter has the same properties as a standard Hashmap data structure in Java (java.util.HashMap).  c. A Bloom filter is full if no more hash functions can be added to it. 
d. A Bloom filter always returns FALSE when testing for an element that was not previously added Ans. a 
 
 
20. Which of the following streaming windows show valid bucket representations according to the DGIM rules? 
a. 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 b. 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 c. 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 d. 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 
Ans. d 
For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2F2 greater than 45?  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10 ✗  10 10 10 10 10 5 5 5 5 5 ✗ This option is correct.  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1 ✓  10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 ✗ This option is correct. 
 
 
What is the space complexity of the FREQUENT algorithm? Recall that it aims to find all elements in a sequence whose frequency exceeds 1k1k of the total count. In the equations below, nn is the maximum value of each key and mm is the maximum value of each counter. 
a. O(k(logm+logn)) 
Correct! 
b. o(k(logm+logn)) c. O(logk(m+n)) d. o(logk(m+n)) 
 
 
Suppose that to get some information about something, you write a keyword in Google search. Google's analytical tools will then pre-compute large amounts of data to provide a quick output related to the keywords you have written. 
19) Which of the following statements is correct about data mining? 
a. It can be referred to as the procedure of mining knowledge from data b. Data mining can be defined as the procedure of extracting information from a set of the data c. The procedure of data mining also involves several other processes like data cleaning, data transformation, and data integration d. All of the above 
Answer: d 
Explanation: The term data mining can be defined as the process of extracting information from the massive collection of data. In other words, we can also say that data mining is the procedure of mining useful knowledge from a huge set of data. 
25) The classification of the data mining system involves: 
a. Database technology b. Information Science c. Machine learning d. All of the above 
Answer: d 
Explanation: Generally, the classification of a data mining system depends on the following criteria: Database technology, machine learning, visualization, information science, and several other disciplines. 
27) The issues like efficiency, scalability of data mining algorithms comes under_______ 
a. Performance issues b. Diverse data type issues c. Mining methodology and user interaction d. All of the above 
Answer: a 
Explanation: In order to extract information effectively from a huge collection of data in databases, the data mining algorithm must be efficient and scalable. Therefore the correct answer is A. 
COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 4 DataAnalytics(KIT601)
 
 
1. What does Apriori algorithm do? a. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support b. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
 
2. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm? a. hash based techniques b. transaction reduction c. Partitioning d. All of these 
 
Ans.d 3. What do you mean by support (A)? 
 a. Total number of transactions containing A b. Total Number of transactions not containing A c. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions d. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions 
 
Ans. c 4. Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining? a. Social Network Analysis b. Market Basket Analysis c. outlier detection 
d. intrusion detection 
 
Ans. b 5. When do you consider an association rule interesting? a. If it only satisfies min_support b. If it only satisfies min_confidence c. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence d. There are other measures to check so 
 
Ans. c 
 
6. What is the difference between absolute and relative support? a. Absolute -Minimum support count threshold and Relative-Minimum support threshold b. Absolute-Minimum support threshold and Relative-Minimum support count threshold c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
 
7. What is the relation between candidate and frequent itemsets? 
 a. A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset b. A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset c. No relation between the two d. None of these 
 
Ans. b 
 
8. What is the principle on which Apriori algorithm work? 
 a. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent b. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
 
9. Which of these is not a frequent pattern mining algorithm a. Apriori b. FP growth c. Decision trees d. Eclat 
 
Ans. c 
 
10. What are closed frequent itemsets? 
 a. A closed itemset b. A frequent itemset c. An itemset which is both closed and frequent d. None of these 
 
Ans. c 
 
11. What are maximal frequent itemsets? a. A frequent item set whose no super-itemset is frequent b. A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
 
12. What is association rule mining? 
 a. Same as frequent itemset mining b. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. b 
 
13. What is frequent pattern growth? 
 a. Same as frequent itemset mining b. Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient c. Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation d. None of these 
 
Ans. c 
 
14. When is sub-itemset pruning done? 
 a. A frequent itemset ‘P’ is a proper subset of another frequent itemset ‘Q’ b. Support (P) = Support(Q) c. When both a and b is true d. When a is true and b is not 
 
Ans. c 
 
15. Our use of association analysis will yield the same frequent itemsets and strong association rules whether a specific item occurs once or three times in an individual transaction 
 a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
 
16. The number of iterations in apriori __ 
 a. increases with the size of the data b. decreases with the increase in size of the data c. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set d. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set 
 
Ans. c 
 
17. Frequent item sets is a. Superset of only closed frequent item sets b. Superset of only maximal frequent item sets c. Subset of maximal frequent item sets d. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets 
 
Ans. c 
 
18. Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is a. Finding frequent itemsets b. pruning c. Candidate generation d. Number of iterations 
 
Ans. c 
 
19. Which Association Rule would you prefer a. High support and medium confidence b. High support and low confidence c. Low support and high confidence d. Low support and low confidence 
 
Ans. c 

 20. The apriori property means a. If a set cannot pass a test, its supersets will also fail the same test b. To decrease the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets c. To improve the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets d. If a set can pass a test, its supersets will fail the same test 
 
Ans. c 
 
21. To determine association rules from frequent item sets a. Only minimum confidence needed b. Neither support not confidence needed c. Both minimum support and confidence are needed d. Minimum support is needed 
 
Ans. c 
 
22. A collection of one or more items is called as _____ 
( a ) Itemset ( b ) Support ( c ) Confidence  ( d ) Support Count Ans. a 
23. Frequency of occurrence of an itemset is called as _____ 
(a) Support (b) Confidence (c) Support Count (d) Rules Ans. c 
 
24. An itemset whose support is greater than or equal to a minimum support threshold is ______ 
(a) Itemset (b) Frequent Itemset (c) Infrequent items (d) Threshold values 
 
Ans. b 
 
25. The goal of clustering is to- a. Divide the data points into groups  b. Classify the data point into different classes  c. Predict the output values of input data points  d. All of the above 
 
Ans. a 
 
26. Clustering is a- a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Reinforcement learning d. None Ans. b 27. Which of the following clustering algorithms suffers from the problem of convergence at  local optima? a. K- Means clustering b. Hierarchical clustering c. Diverse clustering d. All of the above Ans. d 
 
28. Which version of the clustering algorithm is most sensitive to outliers? a. K-means clustering algorithm b. K-modes clustering algorithm c. K-medians clustering algorithm d. None  
 
Ans. a 29. Which of the following is a bad characteristic of a dataset for clustering analysis- 
 
a. Data points with outliers b. Data points with different densities c. Data points with non-convex shapes d. All of the above Ans. d 
 
30. For clustering, we do not require- a. Labeled data b. Unlabeled data c. Numerical data d. Categorical data 
 
Ans. a 31. The final output of Hierarchical clustering is- a.  The number of cluster centroids b. The tree representing how close the data points are to each other c. A map defining the similar data points into individual groups d. All of the above Ans. b 
 
32. Which of the step is not required for K-means clustering? 

 
a.  a distance metric b. initial number of clusters c. initial guess as to cluster centroids d. None Ans. d 
 
33. Which of the following uses merging approach? a. Hierarchical clustering b. Partitional clustering c. Density-based clustering d. All of the above Ans. a 34. When does k-means clustering stop creating or optimizing clusters? a. After finding no new reassignment of data points b. After the algorithm reaches the defined number of iterations c. Both A and B d. None  Ans. c 35.  Which of the following clustering algorithm follows a top to bottom approach? a. K-means b.  Divisible c. Agglomerative d. None Ans. b 36. Which algorithm does not require a dendrogram? a. K-means b.  Divisible c. Agglomerative d. None 
Ans. a 37. What is a dendrogram? 
 
a. A hierarchical structure b.  A diagram structure c. A graph structure d. None 
Ans. a 
 
38.  Which one of the following can be considered as the final output of the hierarchal type of clustering? a. A tree which displays how the close thing are to each other b. Assignment of each point to clusters c. Finalize estimation of cluster centroids d. None of the above 
Ans. a 
39. Which one of the following statements about the K-means clustering is incorrect? 
a. The goal of the k-means clustering is to partition (n) observation into (k) clusters b. K-means clustering can be defined as the method of quantization c. The nearest neighbor is the same as the K-means d. All of the above 
Ans. c 
40.  The self-organizing maps can also be considered as the instance of _________ type of learning. 
a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Missing data imputation d. Both A & C 
Ans. b 
41. Euclidean distance measure is can also defined as ___________ 
a. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some predefined order and then testing them 
b. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem c. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection. d. All of the above 
Ans. c 
42. Which of the following refers to the sequence of pattern that occurs frequently? 
a. Frequent sub-sequence b. Frequent sub-structure c. Frequent sub-items d. All of the above 
Ans. a 43. Which method of analysis does not classify variables as dependent or independent?  a) Regression analysis  b) Discriminant analysis  c) Analysis of variance  d) Cluster analysis  Answer: (d)
COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester DataAnalytics(KIT601)
 
 
1. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 
 
a. Analytics b. Data mining c. Big Data d. Data Warehouse 
Ans C 
 
2. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data. Is this true or False. a. TRUE b. FALSE 
 
Ans. a  3. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 
 
a. TRUE b. FALSE 
Ans. b 
 
4. _____________ have a structure but cannot be stored in a database. 
 
a. Structured b. Semi-Structured c. Unstructured d. None of these 
 
Ans. b 5. ____________refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business. 
 
a. Velocity b. Variety c. Value d. Volume 
Ans. C  
 
6. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy. 
 
a. TRUE b. FALSE 
Ans. b 7. GFS consists of a ____________ Master and ___________ Chunk Servers a. Single, Single b. Multiple, Single c. Single, Multiple 
d. Multiple, Multiple 
Ans. c 
 
8. Files are divided into ____________ sized Chunks. a. Static b. Dynamic c. Fixed d. Variable Ans. c 
 
9. ____________is an open source framework for storing data and running application on clusters of commodity hardware. a. HDFS b. Hadoop c. MapReduce d. Cloud Ans. B 
 
10. HDFS Stores how much data in each clusters that can be scaled at any time? a. 32 b. 64 c. 128 d. 256 Ans. c 
 
11. Hadoop MapReduce allows you to perform distributed parallel processing on large volumes of data quickly and efficiently... is this MapReduce or Hadoop... i.e statement is True or False a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. a 
 
12. Hortonworks was introduced by Cloudera and owned by Yahoo. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. b 
 
13. Hadoop YARN is used for Cluster Resource Management in Hadoop Ecosystem. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. a 
 
14. Google Introduced MapReduce Programming model in 2004. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. A 
 
15.______________ phase sorts the data & ____________creates logical clusters. a. Reduce, YARN b. MAP, YARN c. REDUCE, MAP d. MAP, REDUCE Ans. d 
 
 
16. There is only one operation between Mapping and Reducing is it True or False... 
a. TRUE b. FALSE 
Ans. A 
 
17. __________ is factors considered before Adopting Big Data Technology. a. Validation b. Verification c. Data d. Design Ans. a 
 
18. _________ for improving supply chain management to optimize stock management, replenishment, and forecasting; a. Descriptive b. Diagnostic c. Predictive d. Prescriptive Ans. c 
 
19. which among the following is not a Data mining and analytical applications? a. profile matching b. social network analysis c. facial recognition d. Filtering Ans. d 
 
20. ________________ as a result of data accessibility, data latency, data availability, or limits on bandwidth in relation to the size of inputs. a. Computation-restricted throttling b. Large data volumes c. Data throttling d. Benefits from data parallelization Ans. c 
 
21. As an example, an expectation of using a recommendation engine would be to increase same-customer sales by adding more items into the market basket. a. Lowering costs b. Increasing revenues c. Increasing productivity d. Reducing risk Ans. b 
 
22. Which storage subsystem can support massive data volumes of increasing size. a. Extensibility b. Fault tolerance c. Scalability d. High-speed I/O capacity Ans. c 
 
23. ______________provides performance through distribution of data and fault tolerance through replication a. HDFS b. PIG c. HIVE d. HADOOP 
Ans. a 
 
24. ______________ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. a. HDFS b. MAP REDUCE c. HADOOP d. HIVE Ans. b 
 
25. _____________________ takes the grouped key-value paired data as input and runs a Reducer function on each one of them. a. MAPPER b. REDUCER c. COMBINER d. PARTITIONER Ans. b 
 
26. _______________ is a type of local Reducer that groups similar data from the map phase into identifiable sets. a. MAPPER b. REDUCER c. COMBINER d. PARTITIONER. Ans. c 
 
 
27. MongoDB is __________________ a. Column Based b. Key Value Based c. Document Based d. Graph Based Ans. c 
 
28. ____________ is the process of storing data records across multiple machines a. Sharding b. HDFS c. HIVE d. HBASE Ans. a 
 
29. The results of a hive query can be stored as a. Local File b. HDFS File c. Both d. Cannot be stored Ans. c 30. The position of a specific column in a Hive table a. can be anywhere in the table creation clause b. must match the position of the corresponding data in the data file c. Must match the position only for date time data type in the data file d. Must be arranged alphabetically Ans. b 31. The Hbase tables are A. Made read only by setting the read-only option B. Always writeable 
C. Always read-only D. Are made read only using the query to the table 
Ans. a 32. Hbase creates a new version of a record during A. Creation of a record B. Modification of a record C. Deletion of a record D. All the above Ans. d 33. Which among the following are incorrect in regards with NoSQL? a. Its Easy and ready to manage with clusters. b. Suitable for upcoming data explosions. c. It requires to keep track with data structure d. Provide easy and flexible system. Ans. c 34. Which Database Administrator job was in trends with job trends? a. MongoDB b. CouchDB c. SimpleDB d. Redis Ans. a 35. No SQL Means _________________ a. Not SQL b. No Usage of SQl c. Not Only SQL d. Not for SQL Ans. c 36. A list of 5 pulse rates is: 70, 64, 80, 74, 92. What is the median for this list?  a. 74  b. 76  c. 77  d. 80 Ans. a 37. Which of the following would indicate that a dataset is not bell-shaped? a. The range is equal to 5 standard deviations.  b. The range is larger than the interquartile range.  c. The mean is much smaller than the median.  d. There are no outliers Ans. c 38. What is the effect of an outlier on the value of a correlation coefficient?  a. An outlier will always decrease a correlation coefficient.  b. An outlier will always increase a correlation coefficient.  c. An outlier might either decrease or increase a correlation coefficient, depending on where it is in relation to the other points.  d. An outlier will have no effect on a correlation coefficient. Ans. c 39. One use of a regression line is  a. to determine if any x-values are outliers.  b. to determine if any y-values are outliers.  c. to determine if a change in x causes a change in y.  d. to estimate the change in y for a one-unit change in x. Ans. d 40. Which package contains most of the basic function in R.  a. Root b. Basic c. Parent 
d. R  
 
Ans. b
1. who was the developer of Hadoop language? 
 
A. Apache Software Foundation B. Hadoop Software Foundation C. Sun Microsystems D. Bell Labs View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Hadoop Developed by: Apache Software Foundation. 
2. The hadoop language wriiten in which language? 
 
A. C B. C++ C. Java D. Python View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: The hadoop language Written in: Java. 3. What was the Initial release date of hadoop? 
 
A. 1st April 2007 B. 1st April 2006 C. 1st April 2008 D. 1st April 2005 View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Initial release: April 1, 2006; 13 years ago. 4. What license is Hadoop distributed under? 
 
A. Apache License 2.1 B. Apache License 2.2 C. Apache License 2.0 D. Apache License 1.0 View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Hadoop is Open Source, released under Apache 2 license. 
 
5. IBM and ________ have announced a major initiative to use Hadoop to support university courses in distributed computer programming. 
 
A. Google B. Apple C. Facebook D. Microsoft View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Google and IBM Announce University Initiative to Address Internet-Scale. 6. On which platfrm hadoop langauge runs? 
 
A. Bare metal B. Debian C. Cross-platform D. Unix-Like View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Hadoop has support for cross platform operating system. 
 
10. Which of the following is not Features Of Hadoop? 
 
A. Suitable for Big Data Analysis B. Scalability C. Robust D. Fault Tolerance View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Robust is is not Features Of Hadoop. 
 
1. The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely __________. 
 
A. mapped, reduce B. mapping, Reduction C. Map, Reduction D. Map, Reduce View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely Map and Reduce. 2. _____ takes a set of data and converts it into another set of data, where individual elements are broken down into tuples (key/value pairs). 
 
A. Map B. Reduce C. Both A and B D. Node View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Map takes a set of data and converts it into another set of data, where individual elements are broken down into tuples (key/value pairs). 3. ______ task, which takes the output from a map as an input and combines those data tuples into a smaller set of tuples. 
 
A. Map B. Reduce C. Node D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Reduce task, which takes the output from a map as an input and combines those data tuples into a smaller set of tuples. 4. In how many stages the MapReduce program executes? 
 
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 View Answer 
Ans : B 
 
Explanation: MapReduce program executes in three stages, namely map stage, shuffle stage, and reduce stage. 5. Which of the following is used to schedules jobs and tracks the assign jobs to Task tracker? 
 
A. SlaveNode B. MasterNode C. JobTracker D. Task Tracker View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: JobTracker : Schedules jobs and tracks the assign jobs to Task tracker. 6. Which of the following is used for an execution of a Mapper or a Reducer on a slice of data? 
 
A. Task B. Job C. Mapper D. PayLoad View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Task : An execution of a Mapper or a Reducer on a slice of data. 7. Which of the following commnd runs a DFS admin client? 
 
A. secondaryadminnode B. nameadmin C. dfsadmin D. adminsck View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: dfsadmin : Runs a DFS admin client. 8. Point out the correct statement. 
 
A. MapReduce tries to place the data and the compute as close as possible B. Map Task in MapReduce is performed using the Mapper() function C. Reduce Task in MapReduce is performed using the Map() function D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: This feature of MapReduce is "Data Locality". 9. Although the Hadoop framework is implemented in Java, MapReduce applications need not be written in ____________ 
 
A. C B. C# C. Java D. None of the above View Answer 
Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Hadoop Pipes is a SWIG- compatible C++ API to implement MapReduce applications (non JNITM based). 10. The number of maps is usually driven by the total size of ____________ 
 
A. Inputs B. Output C. Task D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Total size of inputs means the total number of blocks of the input files. 1. What is full form of HDFS? 
 
A. Hadoop File System B. Hadoop Field System C. Hadoop File Search D. Hadoop Field search View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Hadoop File System was developed using distributed file system design. 2. HDFS works in a __________ fashion. 
 
A. worker-master fashion B. master-slave fashion C. master-worker fashion D. slave-master fashion View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: HDFS follows the master-slave architecture. 3. Which of the following are the Goals of HDFS? 
 
A. Fault detection and recovery B. Huge datasets C. Hardware at data D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All the above option are the goals of HDFS. 4. ________ NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down. 
 
A. Rack B. Data C. Secondary D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Secondary namenode is used for all time availability and reliability. 
5. The minimum amount of data that HDFS can read or write is called a _____________. 
 
A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. None of the above View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: The minimum amount of data that HDFS can read or write is called a Block. 6. The default block size is ______. 
 
A. 32MB B. 64MB C. 128MB D. 16MB View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: The default block size is 64MB, but it can be increased as per the need to change in HDFS configuration. 7. For every node (Commodity hardware/System) in a cluster, there will be a _________. 
 
A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: For every node (Commodity hardware/System) in a cluster, there will be a datanode. 8. Which of the following is not Features Of HDFS? 
 
A. It is suitable for the distributed storage and processing. B. Streaming access to file system data. C. HDFS provides file permissions and authentication. D. Hadoop does not provides a command interface to interact with HDFS. View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: The correct feature is Hadoop provides a command interface to interact with HDFS. 9. HDFS is implemented in _____________ language. 
 
A. Perl B. Python C. Java D. C View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: HDFS is implemented in Java and any computer which can run Java can host a NameNode/DataNode on it. 
10. During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. 
 
A. Datanode B. Namenode C. Block D. ActionNode View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: HDFS is implemented on any computer which can run Java can host a NameNode/DataNode on it. 1. Which of the following is not true about Pig? 
 
A. Apache Pig is an abstraction over MapReduce B. Pig can not perform all the data manipulation operations in Hadoop. C. Pig is a tool/platform which is used to analyze larger sets of data representing them as data flows. D. None of the above View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Pig is generally used with Hadoop; we can perform all the data manipulation operations in Hadoop using Apache Pig. 2. Which of the following is/are a feature of Pig? 
 
A. Rich set of operators B. Ease of programming C. Extensibility D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All options are the following Features of Pig. 3. In which year apache Pig was released? 
 
A. 2005 B. 2006 C. 2007 D. 2008 View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: In 2006, Apache Pig was developed as a research project. 4. Pig operates in mainly how many nodes? 
 
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: You can run Pig (execute Pig Latin statements and Pig commands) using various mode: Interactive and Batch Mode. 5. Which of the following company has developed PIG? 
 
A. Google B. Yahoo C. Microsoft D. Apple View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Apache Pig was developed as a research project at Yahoo, especially to create and execute MapReduce jobs on every dataset. 6. Which of the following function is used to read data in PIG? 
 
A. Write B. Read C. Perform D. Load View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: PigStorage is the default load function. 7. __________ is a framework for collecting and storing script-level statistics for Pig Latin. 
 
A. Pig Stats B. PStatistics C. Pig Statistics D. All of the above View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: The new Pig statistics and the existing Hadoop statistics can also be accessed via the Hadoop job history file. 8. Which of the following is true statement? 
 
A. Pig is a high level language. B. Performing a Join operation in Apache Pig is pretty simple. C. Apache Pig is a data flow language. D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All option are true statement. 9. Which of the following will compile the Pigunit? 
 
A. $pig_trunk ant pigunit-jar B. $pig_tr ant pigunit-jar C. $pig_ ant pigunit-jar D. $pigtr_ ant pigunit-jar View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: The compile will create the pigunit.jar file. 
10. Point out the wrong statement. 
 
A. Pig can invoke code in language like Java Only B. Pig enables data workers to write complex data transformations without knowing Java C. Pig's simple SQL-like scripting language is called Pig Latin, and appeals to developers already familiar with scripting languages and SQL D. Pig is complete, so you can do all required data manipulations in Apache Hadoop with Pig View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Through the User Defined Functions(UDF) facility in Pig, Pig can invoke code in many languages like JRuby, Jython and Java. 1. Which of the following is/are INCORRECT with respect to Hive? 
 
A. Hive provides SQL interface to process large amount of data B. Hive needs a relational database like oracle to perform query operations and store data. C. Hive works well on all files stored in HDFS D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Hive needs a relational database like oracle to perform query operations and store data is incorrect with respect to Hive. 2. Which of the following is not a Features of HiveQL? 
 
A. Supports joins B. Supports indexes C. Support views D. Support Transactions View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: Support Transactions is not a Features of HiveQL. 3. Which of the following operator executes a shell command from the Hive shell? 
 
A. | B. ! C. # D. $ View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Exclamation operator is for execution of command. 4. Hive uses _________ for logging. 
 
A. logj4 B. log4l C. log4i D. log4j View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: By default Hive will use hive-log4j.default in the conf/ directory of the Hive installation. 5. HCatalog is installed with Hive, starting with Hive release is ___________ 
 
A. 0.10.0 B. 0.9.0 C. 0.11.0 D. 0.12.0 View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: hcat commands can be issued as hive commands, and vice versa. 6. _______ supports a new command shell Beeline that works with HiveServer2. 
 
A. HiveServer2 B. HiveServer3 C. HiveServer4 D. HiveServer5 View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: The Beeline shell works in both embedded mode as well as remote mode. 7. The ________ allows users to read or write Avro data as Hive tables. 
 
A. AvroSerde B. HiveSerde C. SqlSerde D. HiveQLSerde View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: AvroSerde understands compressed Avro files. 8. Which of the following data type is supported by Hive? 
 
A. map B. record C. string D. enum View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: Hive has no concept of enums. 9. We need to store skill set of MCQs(which might have multiple values) in MCQs table, which of the following is the best way to store this information in case of Hive? 
 
A. Create a column in MCQs table of STRUCT data type B. Create a column in MCQs table of MAP data type C. Create a column in MCQs table of ARRAY data type D. As storing multiple values in a column of MCQs itself is a violation View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Option C is correct. 
10. Letsfindcourse is generating huge amount of data. They are generating huge amount of sensor data from different courses which was unstructured in form. They moved to Hadoop framework for storing and analyzing data. What technology in Hadoop framework, they can use to analyse this unstructured data? 
 
A. MapReduce programming B. Hive C. RDBMS D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: MapReduce programming is the right answer. 1. which of the following is correct statement? 
 
A. HBase is a distributed column-oriented database B. Hbase is not open source C. Hbase is horizontally scalable. D. Both A and C View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: HBase is a distributed column-oriented database built on top of the Hadoop file system. It is an open-source project and is horizontally scalable. 2. which of the following is not a feature of Hbase? 
 
A. HBase is lateral scalable. B. It has automatic failure support. C. It provides consistent read and writes. D. It has easy java API for client. View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Option A is incorrect because HBase is linearly scalable. 3. When did HBase was first released? 
 
A. April 2007 B. March 2007 C. February 2007 D. May 2007 View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: HBase was first released in February 2007. Later in January 2008, HBase became a sub project of Apache Hadoop. 4. Apache HBase is a non-relational database modeled after Google's _________ 
 
A. BigTop B. Bigtable C. Scanner D. FoundationDB View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Bigtable acts up on Google File System, likewise Apache HBase works on top of Hadoop and HDFS. 5. HBaseAdmin and ____________ are the two important classes in this package that provide DDL functionalities. 
 
A. HTableDescriptor B. HDescriptor C. HTable D. HTabDescriptor View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Java provides an Admin API to achieve DDL functionalities through programming 6. which of the following is correct statement? 
 
A. HBase provides fast lookups for larger tables. B. It provides low latency access to single rows from billions of records C. HBase is a database built on top of the HDFS. D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All the options are correct. 7. HBase supports a ____________ interface via Put and Result. 
 
A. bytes-in/bytes-out B. bytes-in C. bytes-out D. None of the above View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Input could be strings, numbers, complex objects, or even images as long as they can rendered as bytes. 8. Which command is used to disable all the tables matching the given regex? 
 
A. remove all B. drop all C. disable_all D. None of the above View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: The syntax for disable_all command is as follows : hbase > disable_all 'r.*' 9. _________ is the main configuration file of HBase. 
 
A. hbase.xml B. hbase-site.xml C. hbase-site-conf.xml D. hbase-conf.xml View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Set the data directory to an appropriate location by opening the HBase home folder in /usr/local/HBase. 10. which of the following is incorrect statement? 
 
A. HBase is built for wide tables B. Transactions are there in HBase. C. HBase has de-normalized data. D. HBase is good for semi-structured as well as structured data. View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: No transactions are there in HBase. 1. R was created by? 
 
A. Ross Ihaka B. Robert Gentleman C. Both A and B D. Ross Gentleman View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: R was created by Ross Ihaka and Robert Gentleman at the University of Auckland, New Zealand, and is currently developed by the R Development Core Team. 2. R allows integration with the procedures written in the? 
 
A. C B. Ruby C. Java D. Basic View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: R allows integration with the procedures written in the C, C++, .Net, Python or FORTRAN languages for efficiency. 3. R is free software distributed under a GNU-style copy left, and an official part of the GNU project called? 
 
A. GNU A B. GNU S C. GNU L D. GNU R View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: R is free software distributed under a GNU-style copy left, and an official part of the GNU project called GNU S. 4. R made its first appearance in? 
 
A. 1992 B. 1995 C. 1993 D. 1994 View Answer 
Ans : C 
 
Explanation: R made its first appearance in 1993. 5. Which of the following is true about R? 
 
A. R is a well-developed, simple and effective programming language B. R has an effective data handling and storage facility C. R provides a large, coherent and integrated collection of tools for data analysis. D. All of the above View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All of the above statement are true. 6. Point out the wrong statement? 
 
A. Setting up a workstation to take full advantage of the customizable features of R is a straightforward thing B. q() is used to quit the R program C. R has an inbuilt help facility similar to the man facility of UNIX D. Windows versions of R have other optional help systems also View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: help command is used for knowing details of particular command in R. 7. Command lines entered at the console are limited to about ________ bytes 
 
A. 4095 B. 4096 C. 4097 D. 4098 View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Elementary commands can be grouped together into one compound expression by braces (‘{’ and ‘}’). 8. R language is a dialect of which of the following languages? 
 
A. s B. c C. sas D. matlab View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: The R language is a dialect of S which was designed in the 1980s. Since the early 90’s the life of the S language has gone down a rather winding path. The scoping rules for R are the main feature that makes it different from the original S language. 9. How many atomic vector types does R have? 
 
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 View Answer 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: R language has 6 atomic data types. They are logical, integer, real, complex, string (or character) and raw. There is also a class for “raw” objects, but they are not commonly used directly in data analysis. 10. R files has an extension _____. 
 
A. .S B. .RP C. .R D. .SP View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: All R files have an extension .R. R provides a mechanism for recalling and reexecuting previous commands. All S programmed files will have an extension .S. But R has many functions than S. 1. What will be output for the following code? 
 
v <- TRUE 
print(class(v)) 
A. logical B. Numeric C. Integer D. Complex View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: It produces the following result : [1] ""logical"" 
 
2. What will be output for the following code? 
 
v <- ""TRUE"" 
print(class(v)) 
A. logical B. Numeric C. Integer D. Character View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: It produces the following result : [1] ""character"" 
 
3. In R programming, the very basic data types are the R-objects called? 
 
A. Lists B. Matrices 
C. Vectors D. Arrays View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: In R programming, the very basic data types are the R-objects called vectors 
 
4. Data Frames are created using the? 
 
A. frame() function B. data.frame() function C. data() function D. frame.data() function View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Data Frames are created using the data.frame() function 5. Which functions gives the count of levels? 
 
A. level B. levels C. nlevels D. nlevel View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Factors are created using the factor() function. The nlevels functions gives the count of levels. 6. Point out the correct statement? 
 
A. Empty vectors can be created with the vector() function B. A sequence is represented as a vector but can contain objects of different classes C. "raw” objects are commonly used directly in data analysis D. The value NaN represents undefined value View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: A vector can only contain objects of the same class. 7. What will be the output of the following R code? 
 
> x <- vector(""numeric"", length = 10) 
> x 
A. 1 0 B. 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 C. 0 1 D. 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 0 View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: You can also use the vector() function to initialize vectors. 
8. What will be output for the following code? 
 
> sqrt(-17) 
A. -4.02 B. 4.02 C. 3.67 D. NAN View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: These metadata can be very useful in that they help to describe the object. 9. _______ function returns a vector of the same size as x with the elements arranged in increasing order. 
 
A. sort() B. orderasc() C. orderby() D. sequence() View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: There are other more flexible sorting facilities available like order() or sort.list() which produce a permutation to do the sorting. 10. What will be the output of the following R code? 
 
> m <- matrix(nrow = 2, ncol = 3) 
 > dim(m) 
A. 3 3 B. 3 2 C. 2 3 D. 2 2 View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Matrices are constructed column-wise. 1. Which loop executes a sequence of statements multiple times and abbreviates the code that manages the loop variable? 
 
A. for B. while C. do-while D. repeat View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: repeat loop : Executes a sequence of statements multiple times and abbreviates the code that manages the loop variable. 2. Which of the following true about for loop? 
 
A. Repeats a statement or group of statements while a given condition is true. It tests the condition before executing the loop body. B. it tests the condition at the end of the loop body. C. Both A and B D. None of the above View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: for loop : Like a while statement, except that it tests the condition at the end of the loop body. 3. Which statement simulates the behavior of R switch? 
 
A. Next B. Previous C. break D. goto View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: The next statement simulates the behavior of R switch. 4. In which statement terminates the loop statement and transfers execution to the statement immediately following the loop? 
 
A. goto B. switch C. break D. label View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Break : Terminates the loop statement and transfers execution to the statement immediately following the loop. 5. Point out the wrong statement? 
 
A. Multi-line expressions with curly braces are just not that easy to sort through when working on the command line B. lappy() loops over a list, iterating over each element in that list C. lapply() does not always returns a list D. You cannot use lapply() to evaluate a function multiple times each with a different argument View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: lapply() always returns a list, regardless of the class of the input. 6. The mapply() function is a multivariate apply of sorts which applies a function in parallel over a set of arguments. 
 
A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: True, The mapply() function is a multivariate apply of sorts which applies a function in parallel over a set of arguments. 7. Which of the following is valid body of split function? 
 
A. function (x, f) B. function (x, f, drop = FALSE, …) C. function (x, drop = FALSE, …) D. function (drop = FALSE, …) View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: x is a vector (or list) or data frame 8. Which of the following character skip during execution? 
 
v <- LETTERS[1:6] 
for ( i in v) { 
    
   if (i == ""D"") { 
      next 
   } 
   print(i) 
A. A B. B C. C D. D View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: When the above code is compiled and executed, it produces the following result : [1] ""A"" [1] ""B"" [1] ""C"" [1] ""E"" [1] ""F"" 
 
9. What will be output for the following code? 
 
v <- LETTERS[1] 
for ( i in v) { 
   print(v) 
A. A B. A B C. A B C D. A B C D View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: The output for the following code : [1] ""A"" 10. What will be output for the following code? 
 
v <- LETTERS[""A""] 
for ( i in v) { 
   print(v) 
A. A B. NAN C. NA D. Error View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: The output for the following code : [1] NA 1. An R function is created by using the keyword? 
 
A. fun B. function C. declare D. extends View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: An R function is created by using the keyword function.  2. What will be output for the following code? 
 
print(mean(25:82)) 
A. 1526 B. 53.5 C. 50.5 D. 55 View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: The code will find mean of numbers from 25 to 82 that is 53.5 3. Point out the wrong statement? 
 
A. Functions in R are “second class objects” B. The writing of a function allows a developer to create an interface to the code, that is explicitly specified with a set of parameters 
C. Functions provides an abstraction of the code to potential users D. Writing functions is a core activity of an R programmer View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Functions in R are “first class objects”, which means that they can be treated much like any other R object. 4. What will be output for the following code? 
 
> paste("a", "b", se = ":") 
A. a+b B. a:b C. a-b D. None of the above View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: With the paste() function, the arguments sep and collapse must be named explicitly and in full if the default values are not going to be used. 5. Which function in R language is used to find out whether the means of 2 groups are equal to each other or not? 
 
A. f.tests () B. l.tests () C. t.tests () D. p.tests () View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: t.tests () function in R language is used to find out whether the means of 2 groups are equal to each other. It is not used most commonly in R. It is used in some specific conditions. 6. What will be the output of log (-5.8) when executed on R console? 
 
A. NA B. NAN C. 0.213 D. Error View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Executing the above on R console or terminal will display a warning sign that NaN (Not a Number) will be produced in R console because it is not possible to take a log of a negative number(-). 7. Which function is preferred over sapply as vapply allows the programmer to specific the output type? 
 
A. Lapply B. Japply C. Vapply D. Zapply View Answer 
Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Vapply is similar to sapply, but has a pre-specified type of return value, so it can be safer (and sometimes faster) to use. simplify2array() is the utility called from sapply() when simplify is not false and is similarly called from mapply(). 8. How will you check if an element is present in a vector? 
 
A. Match() B. Dismatch() C. Mismatch() D. Search() View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: It can be done using the match () function- match () function returns the first appearance of a particular element. The other way is to use %in% which returns a Boolean value either true or false. 9. You can check to see whether an R object is NULL with the _________ function. 
 
A. is.null() B. is.nullobj() C. null() D. as.nullobj() View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: It is sometimes useful to allow an argument to take the NULL value, which might indicate that the function should take some specific action. 10. In the base graphics system, which function is used to add elements to a plot? 
 
A. Boxplot() B. Text() C. Treat() D. Both A and B View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: In the base graphics system, boxplot or text function is used to add elements to a plot. 1. Which of the following syntax is used to install forecast package? 
 
A. install.pack("forecast") B. install.packages("cast") C. install.packages("forecast") D. install.pack("forecastcast") View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: forecast is used for time series analysis 2. Which splits a data frame and returns a data frame? 
 
A. apply B. ddply 
C. stats D. plyr View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: ddply splits a data frame and returns a data frame. 3. Which of the following is an R package for the exploratory analysis of genetic and genomic data? 
 
A. adeg B. adegenet C. anc D. abd View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: This package contains Classes and functions for genetic data analysis within the multivariate framework. 4. Which of the following contains functions for processing uniaxial minute-to-minute accelerometer data? 
 
A. accelerometry B. abc C. abd D. anc View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: This package contains a collection of functions that perform operations on timeseries accelerometer data, such as identify non-wear time, flag minutes that are part of an activity about, and find the maximum 10-minute average count value. 5. ______ Uses Grieg-Smith method on 2 dimensional spatial data. 
 
A. G.A. B. G2db C. G.S. D. G1DBN View Answer Ans : C 
 
Explanation: The function returns a GriegSmith object which is a matrix with block sizes, sum of squares for each block size as well as mean sums of squares. G1DBN is a package performing Dynamic Bayesian Network Inference. 6. Which of the following package provide namespace management functions not yet present in base R? 
 
A. stringr B. nbpMatching C. messagewarning D. namespace View Answer Ans : D 
 
Explanation: The package namespace is one of the most confusing parts of building a package. nbpMatching contains functions for non-bipartite optimal matching. 7. What will be the output of the following R code? 
 
install.packages(c("devtools", "roxygen2")) 
A. Develops the tools B. Installs the given packages C. Exits R studio D. Nothing happens View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Make sure you have the latest version of R and then run the above code to get the packages you’ll need. It installs the given packages. Confirm that you have a recent version of RStudio. 8. A bundled package is a package that’s been compressed into a ______ file. 
 
A. Double B. Single C. Triple D. No File View Answer Ans : B 
 
Explanation: A bundled package is a package that’s been compressed into a single file. A source package is just a directory with components like R/, DESCRIPTION, and so on. 9. .library() is not useful when developing a package since you have to install the package first. 
 
A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: library() is not useful when developing a package since you have to install the package first. A library is a simple directory containing installed packages. 
 
10. DESCRIPTION uses a very simple file format called DCF. 
 
A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say View Answer Ans : A 
 
Explanation: DESCRIPTION uses a very simple file format called DCF, the Debian control format. When you first start writing packages, you’ll mostly use these metadata to record what packages are needed to run your package. 
 
19. HDFS Stores how much data in each clusters that can be scaled at any time? 1. 32 2. 64 3. 128 4. 256 Show Answer 128 
33. _____ provides performance through distribution of data and fault tolerance through replication 1. HDFS 2. PIG 3. HIVE 4. HADOOP Show Answer HDFS 
34. ______ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. 1. HDFS 2. MAP REDUCE 3. HADOOP 4. HIVE Show Answer MAP REDUCE 
35.  ____ takes the grouped key-value paired data as input and runs a Reducer function on each one of them. 1. MAPPER 2. REDUCER 3. COMBINER 4. PARTITIONER Show Answer REDUCER 
36. ____ is a type of local Reducer that groups similar data from the map phase into identifiable sets. 1. MAPPER 2. REDUCER 3. COMBINER 4. PARTITIONER Show Answer COMBINER 
37. While Installing Hadoop how many xml files are edited and list them ? 1. core-site.xml 2. hdfs-site.xml 3. mapred.xml 4. yarn.xml Show Answer core-site.xml 
 

 
 
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DATA ANALYTICS – KIT601 – Question Bank 
 
UNIT-1 
1. Data originally collected in the process of investigation are known as a) Foreign data b) Primary data c) Third data d) Secondary data e) None of these 
 
2. Statistical enquiry means 1. It is science for knowledge 2. Search for knowledge 3. Collection of anything 4. Search for knowledge with the help of statistical methods. e) None of these 
 
3. Cluster sampling means a) Sample is divided into number of sub-groups b) Sample are selected at regular interval c) Sample is obtained by conscious selection d) Universe is divided into groups e) None of these 
 
4. What is Secondary data? a) Data collected in the process of investigation b) Data collected from some other agency c) Data collected from questionnaire of a person d) Both A & B e) None of these 
 
5. What is information? a) Raw facts b) Processed data c) Understanding facts d) Knowing action on data e) None of these 
 
6. Data about rocks is an example of a) Time dependent data b) Time Independent data c) Location dependent data d) Location independent data e) None of these 
 
7. Range on temperature scale is termed as  a) Nominal data b) Ordinal data 
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c) Interval data d) Ratio data e) None of these 
 
8. Data in XML and CSV format is an example of a) Structure data b) Un-structure data c) Semi-structure data d) Both A & B e) None of these 
 
9. Which is not the characteristic of data a) Accuracy b) Consistency c) Granularity d) Redundant e) None of these 
 
10. Hadoop is a framework that works with a variety of related tools. Common cohorts include: a) MapReduce, Hive and HBase b) MapReduce, MySQL and Google Apps c) MapReduce, Hummer and Iguana d) MapReduce, Heron and Trumpet e) None of these 
 
11. Which is not the V in BIG data a) Volume b) Veracity c) Vigor d) Velocity e) None of these 
 
12. Which is not true about Traditional decision making? a) Does not require human intervention b) Takes a long time to come to decision c) Lacks systematic linkage in planning d) Provides limited scope of data analytics e) None of these 
 
13. Cloudera is a product of  a) Microsoft b) Apache c) Google d) Facebook e) None of these 
 
14. What is not true about MPP architecture a) Tightly coupled nodes b) High speed connection among nodes c) Disk are not shared 
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d) Uses lot of processors e) None of these 
 
15. The process of organizing and summarizing data in an easily readable format to communicate important information is known as a) Analysis b) Reporting c) Clustering d) Mining e) None of these 
 
16. Out of the following which is not a type of report a) Canned b) Dashboard c) Ad hoc response d) Alerts e) None of these 
 
17. Data Analysis is a process of? a) inspecting data b) cleaning data c) transforming data d) All of above e) None of these 
 
18. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? a) Data Mining b) Predictive Intelligence c) Business Intelligence d) Text Analytics e) None of these 
 
19. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 e)  None of these 
 
20. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? a) answering yes/no questions about the data b) estimating numerical characteristics of the data c) modeling relationships within the data d) describing associations within the data e) None of these 
 
21. __________ may be defined as the data objects that do not comply with the general behavior or model of the data available. a) Outlier Analysis b) Evolution Analysis 
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c) Prediction d) Classification e) None of these 
 
22. What is the use of data cleaning? a) to remove the noisy data b) correct the inconsistencies in data c) transformations to correct the wrong data. d) All of the above e) None of these 
 
23. In data mining, this is a technique used to predict future behavior and anticipate the consequences of change. a) predictive technology b) disaster recovery c) phase change d) predictive modeling e) None of these 
 
24. What are the main components of Big Data? a) MapReduce b) HDFS c) HBASE d) All of these e) None of these 
 
25. ———- data that depends on data model and resides in a fixed field within a record. a) Structured data b) Un-Structured data c) Semi-Structured data d) Scattere e) None of these 
 
26. —————- is about developing code to enable the machine to learn to perform tasks and its basic principle is the automatic modeling of underlying that have generated the collected data. a) Data Science b) Data Analytics c) Data Mining d) Data Warehousing e) None of these 
 
27. —————– is an example of human generated unstructured data. a) YouTube data b) Satellite data c) Sensor data d) Seismic imagery data e) None of these 
 
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28. Height is an example of which type of attribute a) Nominal b) Binary c) Ordinal d) Numeric e) None of these 
 
29. ————-type of analytics describes what happened in past a) Descriptive b) Prescriptive c) Predictive d) Probability e) None of these 
 
30.   ————– data does not fits into a data model due to variations in contents a) Structured data b) Un - Structured data c) Semi Structured data d) Both B & C e) None of these 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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UNIT-2 
 
31. A and B are two events. If P(A, B) decreases while P(A) increases, which of the following is true? a) P(A|B) decreases b) P(B|A) decreases c) P(B) decreases d) All of above e) None of these 
 
32. Suppose we like to calculate P(H|E, F) and we have no conditional independence information. Which of the following sets of numbers are sufficient for the calculation? a) P(E, F), P(H), P(E|H), P(F|H) b) P(E, F), P(H), P(E, F|H) c) P(H), P(E|H), P(F|H) d) P(E, F), P(E|H), P(F|H) e) None of these 
 
33. Suppose you are given an EM algorithm that finds maximum likelihood estimates for a model with latent variables. You are asked to modify the algorithm so that it finds MAP estimates instead. Which step or steps do you need to modify? a) Expectation b) Maximization c) No modification necessary d) Both A & B e) None of these 
 
34. Compared to the variance of the Maximum Likelihood Estimate (MLE), the variance of the Maximum A Posteriori (MAP) estimate is ________ a) higher b) same c) lower d) it could be any of the above e) None of these 
 
35. Bayesian methods are important to our study of machine learning is that they provide a useful perspective for understanding many learning algorithms that do not ............................ manipulate probabilities. a) explicitly b) implicitly c) both a & b d) approximately e) None of these 
 
36. The results that we get after we apply Bayesian Theorem to a problem are, a) 100% accurate b) Estimated values c) Wrong values d) Only positive values e) None of these 
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37. The previous probabilities in Bayes theorem that are changed with the help of new available information are classified as a) independent probabilities b) posterior probabilities c) interior probabilities d) dependent probabilities e) None of these 
 
38. In contrast to the naive Bayes classifier, Bayesian belief networks allow stating conditional independence assumptions that apply to ............................... of the variables. a) subsets b) super sets c) empty set d) All of above e) None of these 
 
39. The naive Bayes classifier applies to learning tasks where each instance x is described by a conjunction of attribute values and where the target function f ( x ) can take on ................. value from some................... set V. a) one, finite b) any, infinite c) one, infinite d) any, finite e) None of these 
 
40. Bayes rule can be used to........................conditioned on one piece of evidence. a) solve queries b) increase complexity of a query c) decrease complexity of a query d) answer probabilistic queries e) None of these 
 
41.  Among which of the following mentioned statements can the Bayesian probability be applied? (i) In the cases, where we have one event (ii) In the cases, where we have two events (iii) In the cases, where we have three events (iv) In the cases, where we have more than three events 
 
Options: 
 
a) Only iv. b) All i., ii., iii. and iv. c) ii. and iv. d) Only ii. e) None of these 
 
42. How the Bayesian network can be used to answer any query? a) Full distribution b) Joint distribution 
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c) Partial distribution d) All of the mentioned above e) None of these 
 
43.  Which of the following methods do we use to find the best fit line for data in Linear Regression? a) Least Square Error b) Maximum Likelihood c) Logarithmic Loss d) Both A and B e) None of these 
 
44.  Linear Regression is a ..................... machine learning algorithm. a) supervised b) unsupervised c) reinforcement d) Both A & B e) None of these 
 
45. Which of the following statement is true about outliers in Linear regression? a) Linear regression is not sensitive to outliers b) Linear regression is sensitive to outliers c) Can’t say d) There are no outliers e) None of these 
 
46. Which of the following sentence is FALSE regarding regression? a) It relates inputs to outputs. b) It is used for prediction. c) It may be used for interpretation. d) It discovers causal relationships. e) None of these 
 
47. Which of the following methods do we use to best fit the data in Logistic Regression? a) Least Square Error b) Maximum Likelihood c) Jaccard distance d) Both A & B e) None of these 
 
48. Which of the following option is true? a) Linear Regression errors values has to be normally distributed but in case of Logistic Regression it is not the case b) Logistic Regression errors values has to be normally distributed but in case of Linear Regression it is not the case c) Both Linear Regression and Logistic Regression error values have to be normally distributed d) Both Linear Regression and Logistic Regression error values have not to be normally distributed e) None of these 
 
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49. A decision tree is also known as a) general tree b) binary tree c) prediction tree d) fuzzy tree e) None of these 
 
50. The confusion matrix is a useful tool for analyzing a) Regression b) Classification c) Sampling d) Cross Validation e) None of these 
 
51. In regression the independent variable is also called as ———– a) Regressor b) Continuous c) Regressand d) Estimated e) None of these 
 
52. ————— searches for the linear optimal separating hyperplane for separation of the data using essential training tuples called support vectors a) Decision tree b) Association Rule Mining c) Clustering d) Support vector machines e) None of these 
 
53. Which of the following is used as attribute selection measure in decision tree algorithms? a) Information Gain b) Posterior probability c) Prior probability d) Support e) None of these 
 
54. ———- is unsupervised technique aiming to divide a multivariate dataset into clusters or groups. a) KNN b) SVM c) Regression d) Cluster Analysis e) None of these 
 
55. A perfect negative correlation is signified by ————- a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) 2 
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e) None of these 
 
56. ———— rule mining is a technique to identify underlying relations between different items. a) Classification b) Regression c) Clustering d) Association e) None of these 
 
57. ———– is supervised machine learning algorithm outputs an optimal hyperplane for given labeled training data a) KNN b) SVM c) Regression d) Decision Tree e) None of these 
 
58. Which of the following is measure used in decision trees while selecting splitting criteria that partitions data into the best possible manner. a) Probability b) Gini Index c) Regression d) Confusion matrix e) None of these 
 
59. Which of the following is not a type of clustering algorithm? a) Density clustering b) K-Means clustering c)  Centroid clustering d) Simple clustering e) None of these 
 
60.  —— answers the questions like ” How can we make it happen?” a) Descriptive b) Prescriptive c) Predictive d) Probability e) None of these 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
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UNIT-3 
 
61. Some company wants to divide their customers into distinct groups to send offers this is an example of a) Data Extraction b) Data Classification c) Data Discrimination d) Data Selection e) None of these 
 
62. When do we use Manhattan distance in data mining? a) Dimension of the data decreases b) Dimension of the data increases c) Under fitting d) Moderate size of the dimensions e) None of these 
 
63. When there is no impact on one variable when increase or decrease on other variable then it is ———— a) Perfect correlation b) Positive correlation c) Negative correlation d) No correlation e) None of these 
 
64. Apriori algorithm uses breadth first search and ————structure to count candidate item sets efficiently. a) Decision tree b) Hash Tree c) Red-Black Tree d) AVL Tree e) None of these 
 
65. To determine basic salary of an employee when his qualification is given is a ———– problem a) Correlation b) Regression c) Association d) Qualitative e) None of these 
 
66. ————the step is performed by data scientist after acquiring the data. a) Data Cleansing b) Data Integration c) Data Replication d) Data loading e) None of these 
 
67. ———– is an indication of how often the rule has been found to be true in association rule mining. a) Confidence 
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b) Support c) Lift d) Accuracy e) None of these 
 
68. Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? a) Stream data is always unstructured data. b) Stream data often has a high velocity. c) Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. d) Stream data is always structured data. e) None of these 
 
69. A Bloom filter guarantees no a) false positives b) false negatives c) false positives and false negatives d) false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type e) None of these 
 
70. The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: a) Estimate the number of distinct elements. b) Sample data with a time-sensitive window. c) Estimate the frequent elements. d) Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. e) None of these 
 
71 The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last k bits of a stream window N. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? a) The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. b) The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. c) To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. d) Only 1’s can be estimated not 0’s e) None of these 
 
72. What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? a) DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% b) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% c) DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% d) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% e) None of these 
 
73. Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? a) Misra-Gries b) Alon-Matias-Szegedy c) DGIM d) Apriori e) None of these 
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74. Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? a) It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. b) A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. c) It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more space. d) A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added element. e) None of these 
 
75. ETL stands for ________________ a) Extraction transformation and loading b) Extract Taken Lend c) Enterprise Transfer Load d) Entertainment Transference Load e) None of these 
 
76. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches?  a) Data Mining b) Predictive Intelligence c).Business Intelligence  d) Text Analytics e) None of these 
 
77. What do you mean by Real Time ANALYTICS  platform. a) Manages and process data and helps timely decision making b helps to develop dynamic analysis application c) leads to evolution of  non business intelligence d) hadoop e)None of these 
 
78. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician?  a)  William S. b)Hans Peter Luhn c) Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro d) John Tukey e)None of these 
79 Which of the following is a wrong statement. a). The big volume actually represents Big Data b). Big Data is just about tons of data c). The data growth and social media explosion have improved that how we look at the data d). All of these e). None of these 
 
80 Which of the following emphases on the discovery of earlier properties that are not known on the data? a) Machine Learning b). Big Data c). Data wrangling d). Data mining e)None of these 
 
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81 What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? a)DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% b)DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% c)DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% d)DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% e)None of these 
82 A Bloom filter guarantees no a)false positives b)false negatives c)false positives and false negatives d)false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter e)None of these 
 
83. Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? a) DGIM operates on a time-based window.  b) In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  c) The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand.  d) The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream.  e)None of these 
 
84  What are two differences between large-scale computing and big data processing? a)hardware b) Data is more suitable for finding new patterns in data than Large Scale Computing c) amount of processing time available d) amount of data processed e)None of these 
 
85 In Flajolet-Martin algorithm if the stream contains n elements with m of them unique, this algorithm runs in a) O(n) time  b) constant time c) O(2n) time d) O(3n)time e)None of these 
 
86 What are two differences between large-scale computing and big data processing? a) hardware  b) Data is more suitable for finding new patterns in data than Large Scale Computing  c) amount of processing time available  d) number of passes made over the data  e)None of these 
 
87 what does it mean when an algorithm is said to 'scale well'? a) The running time does not increase exponentially when data becomes longer.  b)The result quality goes up when the data becomes larger.  c) The memory usage does not increase exponentially when data becomes larger.  d) The result quality remains the same when the data becomes larger.  e)None of these 
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89The FM-sketch algorithm can be used to: a)Estimate the number of distinct elements. b)Sample data with a time-sensitive window. c)Estimate the frequent elements. d)Determine whether an element has already occurred in previous stream data. e)None of these 
 
90Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming? a)Limited amount of memory b)Limited amount of processing time c)Limited amount of input data d)Limited amount of processing power e)None of these 
 
UNIT 4 
 
91 Which of the following clustering type has characteristic shown in the below figure? 
 
a) Exploratory b) Inferential c) Causal d) Hierarchical Clustering e)None of these 
 
92 Which of the following dimension type graph is shown in the below figure? 
 
 
a) one-dimensional b) two-dimensional c) three-dimensional d) four-dimensional e)None of these 
 
93 Which of the following gave rise to need of graphs in data analysis? a)Data visualization b) Communicating results 
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c) Decision making d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 
 
94Which of the following is characteristic of exploratory graph? a) Made slowly b) Axes are not cleaned up c) Color is used for personal information d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 
 
95Color and shape are used to add dimensions to graph data. a)True b) False c)Dilemma d)Incorrect Statement e)None of these 
 
96.Which of the following information is not given by five-number summary? a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 
 
97.Which of the following is also referred to as overlayed 1D plot? a)lattice b) barplot c) gplot d) all of the mentioned e)None of these 
 
98.Spinning plots can be used for two dimensional data. a)True b) False c)Incorrect d)Not Sure e)None of these 
 
99 Point out the correct statement. a) coplots are one dimensional data graph b) Exploratory graphs are made quickly c) Exploratory graphs are made relatively less in number d) All of the mentioned e)None of these 
 
100 Which of the following clustering technique is used by K- Means Algorithm a)HierarchicalTechnique b)Partitional technique  c)Divisive 
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d) Agglomerative  e)None of these 
 
101.SON algorithm is also known as  a)PCY Algorithm b MultistageAlgorithm c)Multihash Algorithm d)Partition Algorithm D e)None of these 
 
102. Which technique is used to filter unnecessary itemset in PCY algorithm a )Association Rule  b)Hashing Technique  c)Data Mining  d)Market basket B e)None of these 
 
103 In association rule, which of the following indicates the measure of how frequently the items occur in a dataset ? a)Support  b)Confidence  c)Basket  d)Itemset e)None of these 
 
104.Which term indicated the degree of corelation in dataset between X and Y, if the given association rule given is X-->Y a)Confidence  b)Monotonicity  c)Distinct  d)Hashing e)None of these 
 
105.During start up, the ___________ loads the file system state from the fsimage and the edits log file. a) DataNode b) NameNode c) ActionNode d) Data Action Node e)None of these 
 
106 Which of the following scenario may not be a good fit for HDFS?  a) HDFS is not suitable for scenarios requiring multiple/simultaneous writes to thesame file b) HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access c) HDFS is suitable for storing data related to applications requiring low latency data access d) HDFS is suitable for scenarios requiring multiple/simultaneous writes to thesame file e)None of these 
 
Department of Information Technology 
 
107________ is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks. a) DataNode b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e)None of these 
 
108.HDFS provides a command line interface called __________ used to interact with HDFS. a) “HDFS Shell” b) “FS Shell” c) “DFS Shell” d) None of the mentioned e)None of these   109 What is CLIQUE ? a)CLIQUE is a grid based method for finding density based clusters in subspaces. b)CLIQUE is a click method c)used to prune non- promising cells and to improve efficiency d)used to measure distance e)None of these 
 
110 CLIQUE stands for ?  a) Clustering in QUEst b) Common in Quest c)Calculate in Quest d)Click in Quest e)None of these 
 
111What is approaches for high dimensional data clustering  a)Subspace clustering b)Projected clustering and Biclustering. c) Data Clustering d)Space Clustering e)None of these 
 
112Applications of frequent itemset analysis  a) Related concepts ,Plagiarism , Biomarkers b)CLUSTERING c)Design d)Operation e)None of these 
 
113. k-means is a ………..based algorithm or distance based algorithm where we calculate the distances to assign a point to a cluster a) centroid b)Distance c)Neuron d)Dendron e) None of these 
 
Department of Information Technology 
114--------is an algorithm for frequent item set mining and association rule learning       over relational databases a)Confidence b) Apriori c)Disadvantage d)Market basket e) None of these 
 
115 The HBase database includes the Hadoop list, the Apache Mahout ________ system, and matrix operations. A.  Statistical classification B. Pattern recognition C. Machine learning D. Artificial intelligence E. All of these 
 
116 To discover interesting relations between objects in larger databases is a objective of ---- a) Freqent Set Mining b)Market basket Mining c) association rules mining d) Confidence Gain e) None of these 
 
117 Different methods for storing itemset count in  main memory. a)The triangular matrix method  b)The triples method c)Angular method d)Square Method e) None of these 
 
118 ------used to prune non- promising cells and to improve efficiency. a)market basket b)frequent itemset c)Support d) aprioriproperty e) None of these 
 
119 dentify the algorithm in which, on the first pass we count the item themselves and then determine which items are frequent. On the second pass we count only the pairs of item both of which are found frequent on first pass  a)DGIM  b)CURE  c)Pagerank  d)Apriori  e)None of these 120 A resource used for sharing data globally by all nodes is a)Distributed b) Cache Centralised Cache  c)secondry memory d)primarymemory e) None of these 
Department of Information Technology 
 
Unit 5 121.Input to the                is the sorted output of the mappers.  a) Reducer b) Mapper c) Shuffle  d) All of the above e)None of these 
 
122. Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? a)Stream data is always unstructured data. b)Stream data often has a high velocity. c)Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. d)Stream data is always structured data. e)None of these 
 
123 The output of the                is not sorted in the Mapreduce framework for Hadoop.  (A) Mapper (B) Cascader (C) Scalding (D) None of the above e) None of these 
 
124: Which of the following phases occur simultaneously?  (A) Reduce and Sort (B) Shuffle and Sort (C) Shuffle and Map d)sort and ruduce  e) None of these 
 
125.A ________ serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster. a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e) None of these 
 
126.HDFS works in a __________ fashion. a) master-worker b) master-slave c) worker/slave d) all of the mentioned e) None of these 
 
127.________ NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down. a) Rack b) Data c) Secondary d) None of the mentioned e) None of these 
 
Department of Information Technology 
128 Point out the wrong statement. a) Replication Factor can be configured at a cluster level (Default is set to 3) and also at a file level b) Block Report from each DataNode contains a list of all the blocks that are stored on that DataNode c) User data is stored on the local file system of DataNodes d) DataNode is aware of the files to which the blocks stored on it belong to e) None of these 
 
129 The need for data replication can arise in various scenarios like ____________ a) Replication Factor is changed b) DataNode goes down c) Data Blocks get corrupted d) All of the mentioned e) None of these 
 
130.For YARN, the ___________ Manager UI provides host and port information. a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Resource d) Replication e) None of these   131 HDFS works in a __________ fashion.  a)worker-master fashion  b)master-slave fashion  c)master-worker fashion  d)slave-master e)None of these 
 
132HDFS is implemented in _____________ language. a) C  b)Perl  c)Python  d)Java  e)none of these 
 
133 The default block size in hadoop is ______.  a)16MB b) 32MB  c)64MB  d)128MB e) none of these 
 
134. ____ can best be described as a programming model used to develop Hadoop-based applications that can process massive amounts of data.  a)MapReduce  b)Mahout  c)Oozie  d)Hbase  e)None of these 
 
Department of Information Technology 
135 Mapper and Reducer implementations can use the                   to report progress or just indicate that they are alive. (A) Partitioner (B) OutputCollector (C) Reporter (D) All of the above e) None of these 
 
136                      is a generalization of the facility provided by the MapReduce framework to collect data output by the Mapper or the Reducer. (A) Partitioner (B) OutputCollector (C) Reporter (D) All of the above e) None of these 
 
137 A                  serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster.  a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e) None of these 
 
138 HDFS works in a                       fashion. (A)a)masterworker   b) master-slave c) worker/slave d) All of the above e) None of these 
 
139                   NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down.  a) Rack b) Data c) Secondary d) None e)none of these 
 
140 HDFS is implemented in                             programming language. ( a) C++ b) Java c) Scala d) None e) None of these 
 
141 Hadoop developed by _______________  a)Larry Page  b)Doug Cutting  c)Mark  d)Bill Gates  e) None of these 
 
Department of Information Technology 
142.The MapReduce algorithm contains two important tasks, namely __________.  a)mapped, reduce  b)mapping, Reduction c) Map, Reduction d) Map, Reduce e)None of these 
 
143.mapper and reducer classes extends classes from the package a) org.apache.hadd  op.mapreduce  b)apache.hadoop  c)org.mapreduce  d)hadoop.mapreduce e) None of these 
 
144.HDFS inherited from ------------- file system.  a)Yahoo b) FTFS  c)Google  d)Rediff  e) none of these 
 
145                NameNode is used when the Primary NameNode goes down.  a) Rack b) Data c) Secondary d) Primary e) None of these 
 
146 HDFS works in a                      fashion. a) master-worker  b) master-slave  c) worker/slave d) All of the above e) None of these 
 
147: A                  serves as the master and there is only one NameNode per cluster.  a) Data Node b) NameNode c) Data block d) Replication e) None of these 
 
148 HDFS provides a command line interface called                       used to interact with HDFS. a) HDFS Shell b) FS Shell c) DFSA Shell d) NO shell e) None of these 
 
 
Department of Information Technology 
149                 is the slave/worker node and holds the user data in the form of Data Blocks. a) DataNode  b) NameNode  c) Data lock  d) Replication e) None of these 
 
150.                    is the primary interface for a user to describe a MapReduce job to the Hadoop framework for execution.  a) Map Parameters b) JobConf c) MemoryConf d) All of the above e) None of these 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Department of Information Technology 
Data Analytics KIT-601 Answer key UNIT-1 UNIT-2 UNIT-3 UNIT-4 UNIT-5 1-b 31-b 61-b 91-d 121-a 2-d 32-b 62-b 92-b 122-b 3-d 33-b 63-d 93-d 123-d 4-b 34-c 64-b 94-c 124-a 5-b 35-a 65-d 95-a 125-b 6-c 36-b 66-a 96-c 126-a 7-c 37-b 67-a 97-a 127-c 8-c 38-a 68-b 98-a 128-a 9-d 39-d 69-b 99-a 129-d 10-a 40-d 70-a 100-b 130-c 11-c 41-d 71-b 101-d 131-b 12-a 42-b 72-b 102-b 132-d 13-b 43-a 73-e 103-a 133-c 14-a 44-a 74-d 104-a 134-a 15-b 45-b 75-a 105-b 135-c 16-c 46-d 76-b 106-a,d 136-b 17-d 47-b 77-a,b 107-a 137-b 18-b 48-a 78-d 108-b 138-a 19-a 49-c 79-b 109-a 139-c 20-c 50-b 80-d 110-a 140-b 21-a 51-a 81-b 111-a,b 141-b 22-d 52-d 82-b 112-a 142-d 23-d 53-a 83-c,d 113-a 143-a 24-d 54-d 84-a,b 114-b 144-c 25-a 55-c 85-a 115-c,d 145-c 26-b 56-d 86-b 116-c 146-b 27-a 57-b 87-a,b 117-a,b 147-b 28-d 58-b 88-c 118-b 148-b 29-a 59-d 89-a,d 119-d 149-a 30-b 60-b 90-c 120-a 150-b 
MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 1 DataAnalytics(KIT601)
1. The data with no pre-defined organizational form or specific format is  
a. Semi-structured data b. Unstructured data c. Structured data d. None of these 
Ans. b 
 
a. Categorical data  b. Interval data c. Ordinal data  d. Ratio data  
 
Ans. c 
 
Ans. c 
 
2. The data which can be ordered or ranked according to some relationship to one another is  
 
3. Predict the future by examining historical data, detecting patterns or relationships in these data, and then extrapolating these relationships forward in time. a. Prescriptive model b. Descriptive model      c. Predictive model d. None of these 
 
Ans. b 
 
Ans. a 
 
Ans. c 
Ans. d 
4. Person responsible for the genesis of the project,  providing the impetus for the project and core business  problem, generally provides the funding and will gauge  the degree of value from the final outputs of the working  team is a. Business User b. Project Sponsor c. Business  Intelligence  Analyst d. Data Engineer 
 
5. Deep technical skills to assist with tuning SQL queries for  data management, extraction and support data ingest to  analytic sandbox is handled by ___________.  a. Data Engineer b. Business User c. Project Sponsor d. Business  Intelligence  Analyst 
 
6. Business domain expertise with deep understanding of the data, KPIs, key metrics and business intelligence from a reporting perspective is key role of ____________. 
 
a. Business User b. Project Sponsor c. Business  Intelligence  Analyst d. Data Engineer 
 
7. _____________ is concerned with uncertainty or inaccuracy of the data. 
 
a.  Volume b. Velocity c. Variety  d. Veracity 
 
Ans. d 
 
Ans. d 
Ans. True 
11. The process of exploring data and reports in order to extract meaningful insights, which can be used to better understand and improve business performance. 
a. Reporting  b. Analysis  c. Summarizing d. None of these  
 
Ans. b 
Ans. a 
8. What are the V’s in the characteristics of Big data? a. Volume b. Velocity c. Variety  d. All of these 
 
9. What are the types of reporting in data analytics? 
a. Canned reports  b. Dashboard reports c. Alert reports     d. All of above 
 
10.Massive Parallel Processing (MPP) database breaks the data into independent chunks with independent disk and CPU resources. 
a. True  b. False 
 
12. The key components of an analytical sandbox are:  (i) Business analytics (ii) Analytical sandbox platform  (iii) Data access and delivery  (iv) Data sources  
 
a. True  b. False 
 

 
Ans. b 
 
14. Which phase Prepare an analytic sandbox, in which you can work for the duration of the project. Perform ELT and ETL to get data into the sandbox, and begin transforming the data so you can work with it and analyze it. Familiarize yourself with the data thoroughly and take steps to condition the data.  
a. Data preparation  b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building  Ans. a 
 
Ans.b 
Ans. a 
13. The ____________phase learn the business domain, including relevant history, such as whether the organization or business unit has attempted similar projects in the past, from which you can learn. Assess the resources you will have to support the project, in terms of people, technology, time, and data. Frame the business problem as an analytic challenge that can be addressed in subsequent phases. Formulate initial hypotheses (IH) to test and begin learning the data.  a. Data preparation b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 
 
15. Which phase uses SQL, Python, R, or excel to perform various data modifications and transformations.  
 
a. Data preparation  b. Data cleaning c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 
 
16. By definition, Database Administrator is a person who ___________ 
 
a. Provisions and configures database environment to support the analytical needs of the working team. b. Ensure key milestones and objectives are met on time and at expected quality. c. Deep technical skills to assist with tuning SQL queries for data management, extraction and support data ingest to analytic sandbox. d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
Ans. c 
Ans. b 
Ans .b 
17. ETL stands for  
 
a. Extract, Load, Transform b. Evaluate, Transform ,Load c. Extract , Loss , Transform d. None of the above 
 
18. The phase Develop data sets for testing, training, and production purposes. Get the best environment you can for executing models and workflows, including fast hardware and parallel processing is referred to as  
 
a. Data preparation  b. Discovery c. Data Modelling d. Data Building 
 
19. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 
a. Data Mining  b. Predictive Intelligence c. Business Intelligence d. Text Analytics 
 
20. User rating given to a movie in a scale 1-10, can be considered as an attribute of type? 
a. Nominal  b. Ordinal  c. Interval  d. Ratio 
 
Ans. d 
22. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 
a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Can be true or false  d. Cannot say 
 
Ans. a 
Ans. b 
Ans.b 
 
25. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 
a. Analytics b. Data mining c. Big Data d. Data Warehouse 
21. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 
a. William S.  b. Hans Peter Luhn  c. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro  d.  John Tukey 
 
23. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 
a. Data Mining  b. Predictive Intelligence c. Business Intelligence d. Text Analytics 
 
24. Which of the following step is performed by data scientist after acquiring the data? 
a. Data Cleansing b. Data Integration c. Data Replication d. All of the mentioned 
 

 
Ans. c 
 
26. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data. Is this true or False. a. TRUE b. FALSE 
 
Ans. a 
27. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 
a. TRUE b. FALSE 
 
Ans. b 
28. _____________ have a structure but cannot be stored in a database. 
 
a. Structured b. Semi-Structured c. Unstructured d. None of these 
 
Ans. b 
29. ____________refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business. 
 
a. Velocity b. Variety c. Value d. Volume 
 
Ans. c 
30. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy. 
 
a. TRUE b. FALSE 
 
Ans.b 
NPTEL Questions 
31. Analysing the data to answer why some phenomenon related to learning happened is a type of  
a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics 
c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 
Ans. B 
32. Analysing the data to answer what will happen next is a type of  
a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 
Ans. D 
33. Learning analytics at institutions/University, regional or national level is termed as  
a. Educational data mining  b. Business intelligence  c. Academic analytics d. None of the above 
Ans. C 
34. Which of the following questions is not a type of Predictive Analytics? 
a. What is the average score of all students in the CBSE 10th Maths Exam? b. What will be the performance of a students in next questions? c. Which courses will the student take in the next semester? d. What is the average attendance of the class over the semester 
Ans A,D 
35. A courses instructor has data about students attendance in her course in the past semester. Based on this data, she constructs a line graph type of analytics is she doing? 
a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 
Ans. A 
36. she then correlates the attendance with their final exam scores. She realizes that students who score 90% and above also have an attandence of more then 75%. What type of analytics is she doing? 
a. Descriptive Analytics b. Diagnostic Analytics c. Predictive Analytics d. Prescriptive Analytics 
Ans. B 
38. Why one should not go for sampling?  
a. Less costly to administer than a census.  b. The person authorizing the study is comfortable with the sample.  c. Because the research process is sometimes destructive  d. None of the above 
Ans. d 
39. Stratified random sampling is a method of selecting a sample in which:  
a. the sample is first divided into strata, and then random samples are taken from each stratum  b. various strata are selected from the sample  c. the population is first divided into strata, and then random samples are drawn from each stratum  d. None of these alternatives is correct. 
Ans. c 
SET II 
1. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 
e. William S.  f. Hans Peter Luhn  g. Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro  h.  John Tukey 
Ans D 
2. What is classification? 
 
a) deciding what features to use in a pattern recognition problem b) deciding what class an input pattern belongs to c) deciding what type of neural network to use d) none of the mentioned 
Ans. B 
 
3. Data in ___________ bytes size is called Big Data. 
 
A. Tera B. Giga C. Peta D. Meta 
 
Ans : C 
 
Explanation: data in Peta bytes i.e. 10^15 byte size is called Big Data. 4. How many V's of Big Data 
 
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 
 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: Big Data was defined by the “3Vs” but now there are “5Vs” of Big Data which are Volume, Velocity, Variety, Veracity, Value 
 
5. Transaction data of the bank is? 
 
A. structured data B. unstructured datat C. Both A and B D. None of the above 
 
Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Data which can be saved in tables are structured data like the transaction data of the bank. 6. In how many forms BigData could be found? 
 
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 
 
Ans : B 
 
Explanation: BigData could be found in three forms: Structured, Unstructured and Semistructured. 7. Which of the following are Benefits of Big Data Processing? 
 
A. Businesses can utilize outside intelligence while taking decisions B. Improved customer service C. Better operational efficiency D. All of the above 
 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All of the above are Benefits of Big Data Processing. 
 
8. Which of the following are incorrect Big Data Technologies? 
 
A. Apache Hadoop B. Apache Spark C. Apache Kafka D. Apache Pytarch 
 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: Apache Pytarch is incorrect Big Data Technologies. 9. The overall percentage of the world’s total data has been created just within the past two years is ? 
 
A. 80% B. 85% C. 90% D. 95% 
 
Ans : C 
 
Explanation: The overall percentage of the world’s total data has been created just within the past two years is 90%. 10. Apache Kafka is an open-source platform that was created by? 
 
A. LinkedIn B. Facebook 
C. Google D. IBM 
 
Ans : A 
 
Explanation: Apache Kafka is an open-source platform that was created by LinkedIn in the year 2011. 
 
11. What was Hadoop named after? 
 
A. Creator Doug Cutting’s favorite circus act B. Cuttings high school rock band C. The toy elephant of Cutting’s son D. A sound Cutting’s laptop made during Hadoop development 
 
Ans : C 
 
Explanation: Doug Cutting, Hadoop creator, named the framework after his child’s stuffed toy elephant. 12. What are the main components of Big Data? 
 
A. MapReduce B. HDFS C. YARN D. All of the above 
 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All of the above are the main components of Big Data. 
 
13. Point out the correct statement. 
 
A. Hadoop do need specialized hardware to process the data B. Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real time data C. In Hadoop programming framework output files are divided into lines or records D. None of the above 
 
Ans : B 
 
Explanation: Hadoop batch processes data distributed over a number of computers ranging in 100s and 1000s. 14. Which of the following fields come under the umbrella of Big Data? 
 
A. Black Box Data B. Power Grid Data 
C. Search Engine Data D. All of the above 
 
Ans : D 
 
Explanation: All options are the fields come under the umbrella of Big Data. 
 
15. Which of the following is not an example of Social Media? 1. Twitter 2. Google 3. Instagram 4. Youtube 
 
ANs: 2 (Google) 
16. By 2025, the volume of digital data will increase to 1. TB 2. YB 3. ZB 4. EB Ans: 3  ZB 
17. Data Analysis is a process of 1. inspecting data 2. cleaning data 3. transforming data 4. All of Above 
 
Ans. 4 All of above 
18. Which of the following is not a major data analysis approaches? 1. Data Mining 2. Predictive Intelligence 3. Business Intelligence 4. Text Analytics 
 
Ans. 2 Predictive Intelligence 
19. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 1. Analytics 2. Data mining 3. Big data 4. Data warehouse 
 
Ans. 3 Big data 
20. In descriptive statistics, data from the entire population or a sample is summarized with ? 
1. Integer descriptor 2. floating descriptor 3. numerical descriptor 4. decimal descriptor 
 
Ans. 3 numerical descriptor 
21. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 
 
TRUE 
22. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 1. True 2. False 
 
False 
23. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy 1. TRUE 2. FALSE 
 
False 
24. Hortonworks was introduced by Cloudera and owned by Yahoo 1. True 2. False 
 
False 
25. ____ refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business 1. Velocity 2. variety 3. Value 4. Volume 
 
Ans. 3 Value 
26. Data Analysis is defined by the statistician? 1. William S. 2. Hans Peter Luhn 3.  Gregory Piatetsky-Shapiro 4.  John Tukey 
 
Ans. 4 John Tukey 
27. Files are divided into ____ sized Chunks. 1. Static 2. Dynamic 3. Fixed 4. Variable 
 
Ans. 3 Fixed 
28. _____ is an open source framework for storing data and running application on clusters of commodity hardware. 1. HDFS 2. Hadoop 3. MapReduce 4. Cloud 
 
Ans. 2 Hadoop 
29. ____ is factors considered before Adopting Big Data Technology 1. Validation 2. Verification 3. Data 4. Design 
 
Ans. 1 Validation 
30. Which among the following is not a Data mining and analytical applications? 1. profile matching 2. social network analysis 3. facial recognition 4. Filtering 
 
Ans. 4 Filtering 
31. Which storage subsystem can support massive data volumes of increasing size. 1. Extensibility 2. Fault tolerance 3. Scalability 4. High-speed I/O capacity 
 
Ans. 3 Scalability 
32. ______ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. 
1. HDFS 2. MAP REDUCE 3. HADOOP 4. HIVE Ans. MAP REDUCE 
 
 
33. How many main statistical methodologies are used in data analysis? 
 
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 
 
Ans : A 
 
Explanation: In data analysis, two main statistical methodologies are used Descriptive statistics and Inferential statistics. 
 
34. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 
 
A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Can be true or false D. Can not say 
 
Ans : A 
 
Explanation: The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data to identify new opportunities. 
 
35. The branch of statistics which deals with development of particular statistical methods is classified as 1. industry statistics 2. economic statistics 3. applied statistics 4. applied statistics 
 
Ans. applied statistics 
36. Point out the correct statement. a) Descriptive analysis is first kind of data analysis performed b) Descriptions can be generalized without statistical modelling 
c) Description and Interpretation are same in descriptive analysis d) None of the mentioned 
 
Answer: b Explanation: Descriptive analysis describe a set of data. 
 
37. What are the five V’s of Big Data? 
A. Volume 
B. Velocity 
C. Variety 
D. All the above 
Answer: Option D 
 
38. What are the main components of Big Data? 
A. MapReduce 
B. HDFS 
C. YARN 
D. All of these 
Answer: Option D 
 
39. What are the different features of Big Data Analytics? 
A. Open-Source 
B. Scalability 
C. Data Recovery 
D. All the above 
Answer: Option D 
40.  Which of the following refers to the problem of finding abstracted patterns (or structures) in the unlabeled data? 
A. Supervised learning 
B. Unsupervised learning 
C. Hybrid learning 
D. Reinforcement learning 
Answer: B 
Explanation: Unsupervised learning is a type of machine learning algorithm that is generally used to find the hidden structured and patterns in the given unlabeled data. 
41. Which one of the following refers to querying the unstructured textual data? 
A. Information access 
B. Information update 
C. Information retrieval 
D. Information manipulation 
Answer: D 
Explanation: Information retrieval refers to querying the unstructured textual data. We can also understand information retrieval as an activity (or process) in which the tasks of obtaining information from system recourses that are relevant to the information required from the huge source of information. 
42. For what purpose, the analysis tools pre-compute the summaries of the huge amount of data? 
A. In order to maintain consistency 
B. For authentication 
C. For data access 
D. To obtain the queries response 
Answer: d 
Explanation: Whenever a query is fired, the response of the query would be put very earlier. So, for the query response, the analysis tools pre-compute the summaries of the huge amount of data. To understand it in more details, consider the following example: 
43. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the data cleaning? 
It refers to the process of data cleaning 
It refers to the transformation of wrong data into correct data 
It refers to correcting inconsistent data 
All of the above 
Answer: d 
Explanation: Data cleaning is a kind of process that is applied to data set to remove the noise from the data (or noisy data), inconsistent data from the given data. It also involves the process of transformation where wrong data is transformed into the correct data as well. In other words, we can also say that data cleaning is a kind of pre-process in which the given set of data is prepared for the data warehouse. 
44. Any data with unknown form or the structure is classified as _ data. a. Structured b. Unstructured c. Semi-structured d. None of above Ans. b 
 
45.____ means relating to the issuing of reports. a. Analysis b. Reporting c. Reporting and Analysis d. None of the above 
 
Ans. b 
 
46.Veracity involves the reliability of the data this is ________due to the numerous data sources of big data a) Easy and difficulty b) Easiness c) Demanding d) none of these 
 
Ans. c 47. ____is a process of defining the measurement of a phenomenon that is not directly measurable, though its existence is implied by other phenomena. a. Data preparation b. Model planning c. Communicating results d. Operationalization 
 
Ans. d 
 
48. _____data is data whose elements are addressable for effective analysis. 
a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 
Ans. a 
49. ______data is information that does not reside in a relational database but that have some organizational properties that make it easier to analyze. 
a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 
Ans. b 
50. ______data is a data which is not organized in a predefined manner or does not have a predefined data model, thus it is not a good fit for a mainstream relational database. 
a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 
Ans. c 
51. There are ___ types of big data. 
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 
Ans. b 
52. Google search is an example of _________ data. 
a. Structured b. Semi-structured c. Unstructured d. None of the above 
Ans. c 
 
KIETGroupofInstitutions
 
Department of IT 
COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 2 DataAnalytics(KIT601)
1. Maximum aposteriori classifier is also known as: a. Decision tree classifier b. Bayes classifier c. Gaussian classifier   d. Maximum margin classifier 
 
Ans. B 
2. Which of the following sentence is FALSE regarding regression? 
 
a. It relates inputs to outputs. b. It is used for prediction. c. It may be used for interpretation. d.  It discovers causal relationships. 
 
Ans. d 
3. Suppose you are working on stock market prediction, and you would like to predict the price of a particular stock tomorrow (measured in dollars). 
You want to use a learning algorithm for this. 
 
a. Regression b. Classification  c. Clustering d. None of these  
 
Ans. a 
4. In binary logistic regression: 
 
a. The dependent variable is divided into two equal subcategories. b. The dependent variable consists of two categories. c. There is no dependent variable. d. The dependent variable is continuous. 
 
Ans. b 
 
5. A fair six-sided die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting 4 on the first roll and not getting 6 on the second roll? 
 
a. 1/36 b. 5/36 c. 1/12 d. 1/9 
 
Ans. b 
 
6. The parameter β0 is termed as intercept term and the parameter β1 is termed as slope parameter. These parameters are usually called as _________ 
 
     a  Regressionists      b. Coefficients      c. Regressive      d. Regression coefficients 
 
Ans. d 
 
7. ________ is a simple approach to supervised learning. It assumes that the dependence of Y on X1, X2… Xp is linear. 
 
a. Gradient Descent b. Linear regression 
c. Logistic regression d. Greedy algorithms 
 
Ans. c 
8. What makes the interpretation of conditional effects extra challenging in logistic regression? 
 
a. It is not possible to model interaction effects in logistic regression b. The maximum likelihood estimation makes the results unstable c. The conditional effect is dependent on the values of all X-variables d. The results has to be raised by its natural logarithm. 
 
Ans. c 9. If there were a perfect positive correlation between two interval/ratio variables, the Pearson's r test would give a correlation coefficient of: 
 
a. - 0.328  b. +1  c. +0.328  d. – 1 
 
Ans.b 
10. Logistic Regression transforms the output probability to in a range of [0, 1]. Which of the following function is used for this purpose? 
 
a. Sigmoid b. Mode  c. Square  d. All of these 
 
Ans.a 
 
12. Generally which of the following method(s) is used for predicting continuous dependent variable? 
1. Linear Regression 2. Logistic Regression 
a. 1 and 2  
b. only 1  c. only 2  d. None of these 
 
Ans.b 
 
13. Mean of the set of numbers {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is? 
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 
 
Ans.b 
14. Name of a movie, can be considered as an attribute of type? 
 
a. Nominal  
b. Ordinal 
c. Interval 
   d. Ratio 
 
Ans.a 
 
15. Let A be an example, and C be a class. The probability P(C) is known as: 
 
a.  Apriori probability   
b.  Aposteriori probability   
c.  Class conditional probability 
 d. None of the above 
 
Ans.a 

 
16. Consider two binary attributes X and Y. We know that the attributes are independent and probability P(X=1) = 0.6, and P(Y=0) = 0.4. What is the probability that both X and Y have values 1? 
 
a. 0. 0.06  b. 0.16  c. 0.26  d.  0.36 
 
Ans. d 
17. In regression the output is a. Discrete  b. Continuous  c. Continuous and always lie in same range d. May be discrete and continuous  
 
Ans. b 
18. The probabilistic model that finds the most probable prediction using the training data and space of hypotheses to make a prediction for a new data instance.  
 
a. Concept learning  b. Bayes optimal classifier  c. EM algorithm  d. Logistic regression  
 
Ans. b 
19 . State whether the following condition is true or not. “In Bayesian theorem , it is important to find the probability of both the events occurring simultaneously”  
a. True  b. False  
 
Ans. b 20 .If the correlation coefficient is a positive value, then the slope of the regression line  
 
a. can be either negative or positive  
b. must also be positive c. can be zero d. cannot be zero 
 
Ans. b 
21. Which of the following is true about Naive Bayes? 
 
a. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important b. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are independent c. Assumes that all the features in a dataset are equally important and are independent. d. None of the above options 
 
Ans. c 
22. Previous probabilities in Bayes Theorem that are changed with help of new available information are classified as _______   
a. independent probabilities b. posterior probabilities c. interior probabilities d. dependent probabilities 
 
Ans. b 
23. Which of the following methods do we use, to find the best fit line for data in Linear Regression? 
 
a. Least Square Error b. Maximum Likelihood c. Logarithmic Loss d. Both A and B 
 
Ans. a 
24. What is the consequence between a node and its predecessors while creating Bayesian network? 
 
a. Conditionally dependent b.  Dependent c. Conditionally independent d. Both a & b 
 
Ans. c 25. Bayes rule can be used to __________conditioned on one piece of evidence. 
 
a. Solve queries b. Answer probabilistic queries c. Decrease complexity of queries d. Increase complexity of queries 
 
Ans.b 
 
26. Which of the following options is/are correct in reference to Bayesian Learning? 
 
a. New instances can be classified by combining the predictions of multiple hypotheses, weighted by their probabilities. b. Bayesian methods can accommodate hypotheses that make probabilistic predictions. c. Each observed training example can incrementally decrease or increase the estimated probability that a hypothesis is correct. d. All of the mentioned 
 
Ans. d 
27. When the cell is said to be fired? a. if potential of body reaches a steady threshold values b. if there is impulse reaction c. during upbeat of heart d. none of the mentioned 
 
Ans.a 28. Which of the following is true about regression analysis? 
a.  answering yes/no questions about the data b. estimating numerical characteristics of the data c. modeling relationships within the data d. describing associations within the data  
 
Ans.c 
29. Suppose you are building a SVM model on data X. The data X can be error prone which means that you should not trust any specific data point too much. Now think that you want to build a SVM model which has quadratic kernel function of polynomial degree 2 that uses Slack variable C as one of its hyper parameter. Based upon that give the answer for following question.  What would happen when you use very large value of C? 
a. We can still classify data correctly for given setting of hyper parameter C b. We cannot classify data correctly for given setting of hyper parameter C. c. Can’t Say 
d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
30. What is/are true about kernel in SVM? 
(a) Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space  (b) It’s a similarity function 
 
a. Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space b. It’s a similarity function  c. Kernel function map low dimensional data to high dimensional space and It’s a similarity function d. None of these   
 
Ans. c 
 31. Suppose you have trained an SVM with linear decision boundary after training SVM, you correctly infer that your SVM model is under fitting.                                        (a) Which of the following option would you more likely to consider iterating SVM next time? Tasks a. You want to increase your data points. b. You want to decrease your data points. c. You will try to calculate more variables. d. You will try to reduce the features. 
 
Ans. c 
32. Suppose you are using RBF kernel in SVM with high Gamma value. What does this signify? 
a. The model would consider even far away points from hyperplane for modeling  b. The model would consider only the points close to the hyperplane for modeling. c. The model would not be affected by distance of points from hyperplane for modeling. d. None of these 
 
Ans.b 
33. Which of the following can only be used when training data are linearly separable? 
a. Linear Logistic Regression. b. Linear Soft margin SVM c. Linear hard-margin SVM d. Parzen windows. 
 
Ans.c 
 
34. Using the kernel trick, one can get non-linear decision boundaries using algorithms designed originally for linear models. 
a. True  b. False  
 
Ans. a 
 
35. Support vectors are the data points that lie closest to the decision surface. 
a. True b. False 
 
Ans. True  
36. Which of the following statement is true for a multilayered perceptron? 
a. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the next layer b. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the same layer c.  Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the previous layer d. Output of all the nodes of a layer is input to all the nodes of the output layer 
Ans. a 
37. Which of the following is/are true regarding an SVM? 
a. For two dimensional data points, the separating hyperplane learnt by a linear SVM will be a straight line. b. In theory, a Gaussian kernel SVM cannot model any complex separating hyperplane. c. For every kernel function used in a SVM, one can obtain an equivalent closed form basis expansion. d. Overfitting in an SVM is not a function of number of support vectors. 
 
Ans. a 
38. The function of distance that is used to determine the weight of each training example in instance based learning is known as______________ 
a. Kernel Function b. Linear Function c. Binomial distribution d. All of the above 
 
Ans. a 39. What is the name of the function in the following statement “A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0”? 
a. Step function b. Heaviside function c. Logistic function d. Binary function  
 
Ans. b 
40. Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. 
 
a. All of the mentioned are true b. (ii) and (iii) are true c. (i) and (ii) are true d. Only (i) is true  
Ans. a 
41. Which of the following is an application of NN (Neural Network)? 
 
a. Sales forecasting b. Data validation c. Risk management d. All of the mentioned 
 
Ans. d 
42. A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0. 
 
a. True b. False 
 
Ans. a 
43. In what ways can output be determined from activation value in ANN? 
 
a. Deterministically 
b. Stochastically c. both deterministically & stochastically d. none of the mentioned 
 
Ans. c 
45. In ANN, the amount of output of one unit received by another unit depends on what? 
 
a. output unit b. input unit c. activation value d. weight 
 
Ans. d 
46. Function of dendrites in ANN is  
 
a. receptors b. transmitter c. both receptor & transmitter d. none of the mentioned 
 
Ans. a 
47. Which of the following is true? (i) On average, neural networks have higher computational rates than conventional computers. (ii) Neural networks learn by example. (iii) Neural networks mimic the way the human brain works. 
 
 
a. All of the mentioned are true b. (ii) and (iii) are true c. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true d. Only (i) is true  
 
Ans. a 48. What is the name of the function in the following statement “A perceptron adds up all the weighted inputs it receives, and if it exceeds a certain value, it outputs a 1, otherwise it just outputs a 0”? 
 
a. Step function b. Heaviside function 
c. Logistic function d. Binary function  
 
Ans. b 
49. 4 input neuron has weight 1, 2, 3 and 4. The transfer function is linear with the constant of proportionality being equal to 2.  The inputs are 4,10,5 and 20 respectively. The output will be 
 
a. 238  b. 76 c. 119  d. 123 
 
Ans. a 
50. Which of the following are real world applications of the SVM? 
a. Text and Hypertext Categorization b. Image Classification c. Clustering of News Articles d. All of the above 
 
Ans.d 
51. Support vector machine may be termed as: 
a. Maximum apriori classifier  
b. Maximum margin classifier 
c. Minimum apriori classifier   
d.  Minimum margin classifier 
 
Ans.b 
52. What is purpose of Axon? a.  receptors b. transmitter c. transmission d. none of the mentioned 
 

 
 
53. The model developed from sample data having the form of Å· = b0 + b1X is known as: Ans: - C – estimated regression equation 
54. In regression analysis, which of the following is not a required assumption about the error term ε? 
Ans: - A – The expected value of the error term is one 
55. ____________ are algorithms that learn from their more complex environments (hence eco) to generalize, approximate and simplify solution logic. 
a. Fuzzy Relational DB 
b. Ecorithms 
c. Fuzzy Set 
d. None of the mentioned 
Ans. c 
 
56. The truth values of traditional set theory is ____________ and that of fuzzy set is __________ 
a. Either 0 or 1, between 0 & 1 
b. Between 0 & 1, either 0 or 1 
c. Between 0 & 1, between 0 & 1 
d. Either 0 or 1, either 0 or 1 
Ans. a 
57. What is the form of Fuzzy logic? 
a. Two-valued logic 
b. Crisp set logic 
Ans.c 
c. Many-valued logic 
d. Binary set logic 
Ans. c 
58. Fuzzy logic is usually represented as ___________ 
a. IF-THEN rules 
b. IF-THEN-ELSE rules 
c. Both IF-THEN-ELSE rules & IF-THEN rules 
d. None of the mentioned 
Ans. a 
59. ______________ is/are the way/s to represent uncertainty. 
a. Fuzzy Logic 
b. Probability 
c. Entropy 
d. All of the mentioned 
Ans.d 
60. Fuzzy Set theory defines fuzzy operators. Choose the fuzzy operators from the following. 
a. AND 
b. OR  
c. NOT 
d. All of mentioned 
Ans. d 
61. The values of the set membership is represented by ___________ 
a. Discrete Set 
b. Degree of truth 
KIETGroupofInstitutions
 
Department of IT 
COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 3 DataAnalytics(KIT601)
 
Q.1 Which attribute is _not_ indicative for data streaming? 
A) Limited amount of memory 
B) Limited amount of processing time 
C) Limited amount of input data 
D) Limited amount of processing power 
Q.2 Which of the following statements about data streaming is true? 
A) Stream data is always unstructured data. 
B) Stream data often has a high velocity. 
C) Stream elements cannot be stored on disk. 
D) Stream data is always structured data. 
Ans. B 
 
Q.3 What is the main difference between standard reservoir sampling and min-wise sampling? 
A) Reservoir sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas minwise sampling does not. 
B) Min-wise sampling makes use of randomly generated numbers whereas reservoir sampling does not. 
C) Reservoir sampling requires a stream to be processed sequentially, whereas minwise does not. 
D) For larger streams, reservoir sampling creates more accurate samples than minwise sampling. 
Ans. C) 
 
Q.4 A Bloom filter guarantees no 
A) false positives 
B) false negatives 
C) false positives and false negatives 
D) false positives or false negatives, depending on the Bloom filter type 
Ans. B) 
 
Q,5 Which of the following statements about standard Bloom filters is correct? 
A) It is possible to delete an element from a Bloom filter. 
B) A Bloom filter always returns the correct result. 
C) It is possible to alter the hash functions of a full Bloom filter to create more 
space. 
Incorrect. 
D) A Bloom filter always returns TRUE when testing for a previously added 
element. 
Ans. D) 
 
Q.6 The DGIM algorithm was developed to estimate the counts of 1's occur within the last k bits of a stream window N. Which of the following statements is true about the estimate of the number of 0's based on DGIM? 
A) The number of 0's cannot be estimated at all. 
B) The number of 0's can be estimated with a maximum guaranteed error. 
C) To estimate the number of 0s and 1s with a guaranteed maximum error, DGIM has to be employed twice, one creating buckets based on 1's, and once created buckets based on 0's. 
D) None of these 
Ans. B) 

 
Q.7 Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? 
 A)DGIM operates on a time-based window.  
B)  DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts.  
C)  In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  
D)  The maximum number of buckets has to be chosen beforehand.  
Ans. D) 
Q.8 Which of the following statements about the standard DGIM algorithm are false? 
 A)DGIM operates on a time-based window.  
B)  DGIM reduces memory consumption through a clever way of storing counts.  
C)  In DGIM, the size of a bucket is always a power of two.  
D) The buckets contain the count of 1's and each 1's specific position in the stream 
Ans. D) 
 
Q.9 What are DGIM’s maximum error boundaries? A) DGIM always underestimates the true count; at most by 25% 
B) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 50% 
C) DGIM always overestimates the count; at most by 50% 
D) DGIM either underestimates or overestimates the true count; at most by 25% 
Ans. B) 
 
Q.10 Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 
A) Misra-Gries 
B) Alon-Matias-Szegedy 
C) DGIM 
D) None of the above 
Ans. D) 
Q.11 Which algorithm should be used to approximate the number of distinct elements in a data stream? 
A) Misra-Gries 
B) Alon-Matias-Szegedy 
C) DGIM 
D) Flajolet and Martin  
Ans. D) 
Q.12 Which of the following streaming windows show valid bucket representations according to the DGIM rules? 
A) 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 
B) 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 
C) 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 
D) 1 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 
Ans. D) 
Q.13 For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2 greater than 45? 
A)  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10  
B)  10 10 10 10 10 5 5 5 5 5  
C)  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1  
D) None of these 
Ans. B) 
 
Q.14 For which of the following streams is the second-order moment F2 greater than 45? 
A)  10 5 5 10 10 10 1 1 1 10  
B)  10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 
C)  1 1 1 1 1 5 10 10 5 1  
D) None of these 
Ans. B) 
 
Q 15 : In Bloom filter an array of n bits is initialized with 
A) all 0s 
B) all 1s 
C) half 0s and half 1s 
D) all -1 
Ans. A) 
 
Q 16. Pick a hash function h that maps each of the N elements to at least log2 N bits, Estimated number of distinct elements is 
 
A) 2^R 
B) 2^(-R) 
C) 1-(2^R) 
D) 1-(2^(-R)) 
 
Ans. A) 
 
Q.17 Sliding window operations typically fall in the category 
A) OLTP Transactions 
B) Big Data Batch Processing 
C) Big Data Real Time Processing 
D) Small Batch Processing 
Ans. C) 
 
Q.18 What is the finally produced by Hierarchical Agglomerative Clustering? 
 
A) final estimate of cluster centroids 
B)assignment of each point to clusters 
C) tree showing how close things are to each other 
D) Group of clusters 
Ans. C) 
 
Q19 Which of the algorithm can be used for counting 1's in a stream 
A) FM Algorithm  
B) PCY Algorithm  
C) DGIM Algorithm  
D) SON Algorithm 
Ans. C) 
 
Q20 Which technique is used to filter unnecessary itemset in PCY algorithm 
A) Association Rule  
B) Hashing Technique 
C) Data Mining 
D)  Market basket 
Ans. B) 
 
Q21 In association rule, which of the following indicates the measure of how frequently the items occur in a dataset ?  
A) Support  B) Confidence  C) Basket  D) Itemset 
Ans. A) 
Q.22 which of the following clustering technique is used by K- Means Algorithm  
A) Hierarchical Technique  
B) Partitional technique  
C)Divisive  
D) Agglomerative 
Ans. B) 
 
Q.23 which of the following clustering technique is used by Agglomerative Nesting Algorithm 
A) Hierarchical Technique  
B) Partitional technique   
C) Density based  
D)None of these 
 
Q24. Which of the following Hierarchichal approach begins with each observation in a distinct (singleton) cluster, and successively merges clusters together until a stopping criterion is satisfied.  
A) Divisive  
B) Agglomerative  
C) Single Link  
D) Complete Link 
 
Q.25 Park, Chen, Yu algorithm is useful for __________in Big Data Application. 
A) Find Frequent Itemset  
B) Filtering Stream  
C) Distinct Element Find  
D) None of these 
Ans. A) 
 
Q.26 .Match the following                                                  
a) Bloom filter                   i) Frequent Pattern Mining                      
b) FM Algorithm              ii) Filtering Stream                      
c) PCY Algorithm            iii) Distinct Element Find d) DGIM Algorithm         iv) Counting 1’s in window A a)-ii), b-iii), c-i), d-iv)     
B a)-iii), b-ii), c-i), d-iv)  
C) A a)-i1), b-iii), c-ii), d-iv) 
COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester UNIT 4 DataAnalytics(KIT601)
 
 
1. What does Apriori algorithm do? a. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with lesser support b. It mines all frequent patterns through pruning rules with higher support c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
 
2. What techniques can be used to improve the efficiency of apriori algorithm? a. hash based techniques b. transaction reduction c. Partitioning d. All of these 
 
Ans.d 3. What do you mean by support (A)? 
 a. Total number of transactions containing A b. Total Number of transactions not containing A c. Number of transactions containing A / Total number of transactions d. Number of transactions not containing A / Total number of transactions 
 
Ans. c 4. Which of the following is direct application of frequent itemset mining? a. Social Network Analysis b. Market Basket Analysis c. outlier detection 
d. intrusion detection 
 
Ans. b 5. When do you consider an association rule interesting? a. If it only satisfies min_support b. If it only satisfies min_confidence c. If it satisfies both min_support and min_confidence d. There are other measures to check so 
 
Ans. c 
 
6. What is the difference between absolute and relative support? a. Absolute -Minimum support count threshold and Relative-Minimum support threshold b. Absolute-Minimum support threshold and Relative-Minimum support count threshold c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
 
7. What is the relation between candidate and frequent itemsets? 
 a. A candidate itemset is always a frequent itemset b. A frequent itemset must be a candidate itemset c. No relation between the two d. None of these 
 
Ans. b 
 
8. What is the principle on which Apriori algorithm work? 
 a. If a rule is infrequent, its specialized rules are also infrequent b. If a rule is infrequent, its generalized rules are also infrequent c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
 
9. Which of these is not a frequent pattern mining algorithm a. Apriori b. FP growth c. Decision trees d. Eclat 
 
Ans. c 
 
10. What are closed frequent itemsets? 
 a. A closed itemset b. A frequent itemset c. An itemset which is both closed and frequent d. None of these 
 
Ans. c 
 
11. What are maximal frequent itemsets? a. A frequent item set whose no super-itemset is frequent b. A frequent itemset whose super-itemset is also frequent c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
 
12. What is association rule mining? 
 a. Same as frequent itemset mining b. Finding of strong association rules using frequent itemsets c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. b 
 
13. What is frequent pattern growth? 
 a. Same as frequent itemset mining b. Use of hashing to make discovery of frequent itemsets more efficient c. Mining of frequent itemsets without candidate generation d. None of these 
 
Ans. c 
 
14. When is sub-itemset pruning done? 
 a. A frequent itemset ‘P’ is a proper subset of another frequent itemset ‘Q’ b. Support (P) = Support(Q) c. When both a and b is true d. When a is true and b is not 
 
Ans. c 
 
15. Our use of association analysis will yield the same frequent itemsets and strong association rules whether a specific item occurs once or three times in an individual transaction 
 a. TRUE b. FALSE c. Both a and b d. None of these 
 
Ans. a 
 
16. The number of iterations in apriori __ 
 a. increases with the size of the data b. decreases with the increase in size of the data c. increases with the size of the maximum frequent set d. decreases with increase in size of the maximum frequent set 
 
Ans. c 
 
17. Frequent item sets is a. Superset of only closed frequent item sets b. Superset of only maximal frequent item sets c. Subset of maximal frequent item sets d. Superset of both closed frequent item sets and maximal frequent item sets 
 
Ans. c 
 
18. Significant Bottleneck in the Apriori algorithm is a. Finding frequent itemsets b. pruning c. Candidate generation d. Number of iterations 
 
Ans. c 
 
19. Which Association Rule would you prefer a. High support and medium confidence b. High support and low confidence c. Low support and high confidence d. Low support and low confidence 
 
Ans. c 

 20. The apriori property means a. If a set cannot pass a test, its supersets will also fail the same test b. To decrease the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets c. To improve the efficiency, do level-wise generation of frequent item sets d. If a set can pass a test, its supersets will fail the same test 
 
Ans. c 
 
21. To determine association rules from frequent item sets a. Only minimum confidence needed b. Neither support not confidence needed c. Both minimum support and confidence are needed d. Minimum support is needed 
 
Ans. c 
 
22. A collection of one or more items is called as _____ 
( a ) Itemset ( b ) Support ( c ) Confidence  ( d ) Support Count Ans. a 
23. Frequency of occurrence of an itemset is called as _____ 
(a) Support (b) Confidence (c) Support Count (d) Rules Ans. c 
 
24. An itemset whose support is greater than or equal to a minimum support threshold is ______ 
(a) Itemset (b) Frequent Itemset (c) Infrequent items (d) Threshold values 
 
Ans. b 
 
25. The goal of clustering is to- a. Divide the data points into groups  b. Classify the data point into different classes  c. Predict the output values of input data points  d. All of the above 
 
Ans. a 
 
26. Clustering is a- a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Reinforcement learning d. None Ans. b 27. Which of the following clustering algorithms suffers from the problem of convergence at  local optima? a. K- Means clustering b. Hierarchical clustering c. Diverse clustering d. All of the above Ans. d 
 
28. Which version of the clustering algorithm is most sensitive to outliers? a. K-means clustering algorithm b. K-modes clustering algorithm c. K-medians clustering algorithm d. None  
 
Ans. a 29. Which of the following is a bad characteristic of a dataset for clustering analysis- 
 
a. Data points with outliers b. Data points with different densities c. Data points with non-convex shapes d. All of the above Ans. d 
 
30. For clustering, we do not require- a. Labeled data b. Unlabeled data c. Numerical data d. Categorical data 
 
Ans. a 31. The final output of Hierarchical clustering is- a.  The number of cluster centroids b. The tree representing how close the data points are to each other c. A map defining the similar data points into individual groups d. All of the above Ans. b 
 
32. Which of the step is not required for K-means clustering? 

 
a.  a distance metric b. initial number of clusters c. initial guess as to cluster centroids d. None Ans. d 
 
33. Which of the following uses merging approach? a. Hierarchical clustering b. Partitional clustering c. Density-based clustering d. All of the above Ans. a 34. When does k-means clustering stop creating or optimizing clusters? a. After finding no new reassignment of data points b. After the algorithm reaches the defined number of iterations c. Both A and B d. None  Ans. c 35.  Which of the following clustering algorithm follows a top to bottom approach? a. K-means b.  Divisible c. Agglomerative d. None Ans. b 36. Which algorithm does not require a dendrogram? a. K-means b.  Divisible c. Agglomerative d. None 
Ans. a 37. What is a dendrogram? 
 
a. A hierarchical structure b.  A diagram structure c. A graph structure d. None 
Ans. a 
 
38.  Which one of the following can be considered as the final output of the hierarchal type of clustering? a. A tree which displays how the close thing are to each other b. Assignment of each point to clusters c. Finalize estimation of cluster centroids d. None of the above 
Ans. a 
39. Which one of the following statements about the K-means clustering is incorrect? 
a. The goal of the k-means clustering is to partition (n) observation into (k) clusters b. K-means clustering can be defined as the method of quantization c. The nearest neighbor is the same as the K-means d. All of the above 
Ans. c 
40.  The self-organizing maps can also be considered as the instance of _________ type of learning. 
a. Supervised learning b. Unsupervised learning c. Missing data imputation d. Both A & C 
Ans. b 
41. Euclidean distance measure is can also defined as ___________ 
a. The process of finding a solution for a problem simply by enumerating all possible solutions according to some predefined order and then testing them 
b. The distance between two points as calculated using the Pythagoras theorem c. A stage of the KDD process in which new data is added to the existing selection. d. All of the above 
Ans. c 
42. Which of the following refers to the sequence of pattern that occurs frequently? 
a. Frequent sub-sequence b. Frequent sub-structure c. Frequent sub-items d. All of the above 
Ans. a 43. Which method of analysis does not classify variables as dependent or independent?  a) Regression analysis  b) Discriminant analysis  c) Analysis of variance  d) Cluster analysis  Answer: (d) 
COURSE B.Tech., VI SEM,  MCQ Assignment (2020-21) Even Semester DataAnalytics(KIT601)
 
 
1. The Process of describing the data that is huge and complex to store and process is known as 
 
a. Analytics b. Data mining c. Big Data d. Data Warehouse 
Ans C 
 
2. Data generated from online transactions is one of the example for volume of big data. Is this true or False. a. TRUE b. FALSE 
 
Ans. a  3. Velocity is the speed at which the data is processed 
 
a. TRUE b. FALSE 
Ans. b 
 
4. _____________ have a structure but cannot be stored in a database. 
 
a. Structured b. Semi-Structured c. Unstructured d. None of these 
 
Ans. b 5. ____________refers to the ability to turn your data useful for business. 
 
a. Velocity b. Variety c. Value d. Volume 
Ans. C  
 
6. Value tells the trustworthiness of data in terms of quality and accuracy. 
 
a. TRUE b. FALSE 
Ans. b 7. GFS consists of a ____________ Master and ___________ Chunk Servers a. Single, Single b. Multiple, Single c. Single, Multiple 
d. Multiple, Multiple 
Ans. c 
 
8. Files are divided into ____________ sized Chunks. a. Static b. Dynamic c. Fixed d. Variable Ans. c 
 
9. ____________is an open source framework for storing data and running application on clusters of commodity hardware. a. HDFS b. Hadoop c. MapReduce d. Cloud Ans. B 
 
10. HDFS Stores how much data in each clusters that can be scaled at any time? a. 32 b. 64 c. 128 d. 256 Ans. c 
 
11. Hadoop MapReduce allows you to perform distributed parallel processing on large volumes of data quickly and efficiently... is this MapReduce or Hadoop... i.e statement is True or False a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. a 
 
12. Hortonworks was introduced by Cloudera and owned by Yahoo. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. b 
 
13. Hadoop YARN is used for Cluster Resource Management in Hadoop Ecosystem. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. a 
 
14. Google Introduced MapReduce Programming model in 2004. a. TRUE b. FALSE Ans. A 
 
15.______________ phase sorts the data & ____________creates logical clusters. a. Reduce, YARN b. MAP, YARN c. REDUCE, MAP d. MAP, REDUCE Ans. d 
 
 
16. There is only one operation between Mapping and Reducing is it True or False... 
a. TRUE b. FALSE 
Ans. A 
 
17. __________ is factors considered before Adopting Big Data Technology. a. Validation b. Verification c. Data d. Design Ans. a 
 
18. _________ for improving supply chain management to optimize stock management, replenishment, and forecasting; a. Descriptive b. Diagnostic c. Predictive d. Prescriptive Ans. c 
 
19. which among the following is not a Data mining and analytical applications? a. profile matching b. social network analysis c. facial recognition d. Filtering Ans. d 
 
20. ________________ as a result of data accessibility, data latency, data availability, or limits on bandwidth in relation to the size of inputs. a. Computation-restricted throttling b. Large data volumes c. Data throttling d. Benefits from data parallelization Ans. c 
 
21. As an example, an expectation of using a recommendation engine would be to increase same-customer sales by adding more items into the market basket. a. Lowering costs b. Increasing revenues c. Increasing productivity d. Reducing risk Ans. b 
 
22. Which storage subsystem can support massive data volumes of increasing size. a. Extensibility b. Fault tolerance c. Scalability d. High-speed I/O capacity Ans. c 
 
23. ______________provides performance through distribution of data and fault tolerance through replication a. HDFS b. PIG c. HIVE d. HADOOP 
Ans. a 
 
24. ______________ is a programming model for writing applications that can process Big Data in parallel on multiple nodes. a. HDFS b. MAP REDUCE c. HADOOP d. HIVE Ans. b 
 
25. _____________________ takes the grouped key-value paired data as input and runs a Reducer function on each one of them. a. MAPPER b. REDUCER c. COMBINER d. PARTITIONER Ans. b 
 
26. _______________ is a type of local Reducer that groups similar data from the map phase into identifiable sets. a. MAPPER b. REDUCER c. COMBINER d. PARTITIONER. Ans. c 
 
 
27. MongoDB is __________________ a. Column Based b. Key Value Based c. Document Based d. Graph Based Ans. c 
 
28. ____________ is the process of storing data records across multiple machines a. Sharding b. HDFS c. HIVE d. HBASE Ans. a 
 
29. The results of a hive query can be stored as a. Local File b. HDFS File c. Both d. Cannot be stored Ans. c 30. The position of a specific column in a Hive table a. can be anywhere in the table creation clause b. must match the position of the corresponding data in the data file c. Must match the position only for date time data type in the data file d. Must be arranged alphabetically Ans. b 31. The Hbase tables are A. Made read only by setting the read-only option B. Always writeable 
C. Always read-only D. Are made read only using the query to the table 
Ans. a 32. Hbase creates a new version of a record during A. Creation of a record B. Modification of a record C. Deletion of a record D. All the above Ans. d 33. Which among the following are incorrect in regards with NoSQL? a. Its Easy and ready to manage with clusters. b. Suitable for upcoming data explosions. c. It requires to keep track with data structure d. Provide easy and flexible system. Ans. c 34. Which Database Administrator job was in trends with job trends? a. MongoDB b. CouchDB c. SimpleDB d. Redis Ans. a 35. No SQL Means _________________ a. Not SQL b. No Usage of SQl c. Not Only SQL d. Not for SQL Ans. c 36. A list of 5 pulse rates is: 70, 64, 80, 74, 92. What is the median for this list?  a. 74  b. 76  c. 77  d. 80 Ans. a 37. Which of the following would indicate that a dataset is not bell-shaped? a. The range is equal to 5 standard deviations.  b. The range is larger than the interquartile range.  c. The mean is much smaller than the median.  d. There are no outliers Ans. c 38. What is the effect of an outlier on the value of a correlation coefficient?  a. An outlier will always decrease a correlation coefficient.  b. An outlier will always increase a correlation coefficient.  c. An outlier might either decrease or increase a correlation coefficient, depending on where it is in relation to the other points.  d. An outlier will have no effect on a correlation coefficient. Ans. c 39. One use of a regression line is  a. to determine if any x-values are outliers.  b. to determine if any y-values are outliers.  c. to determine if a change in x causes a change in y.  d. to estimate the change in y for a one-unit change in x. Ans. d 40. Which package contains most of the basic function in R.  a. Root b. Basic c. Parent 


abstraction. Code abstraction as use of object of inbuilt class. 8. Abstraction principle includes___________ a) Use abstraction at its minimum b) Use abstraction to avoid longer codes c) Use abstraction whenever possible to avoid duplication d) Use abstraction whenever possible to achieve OOP Answer: c Explanation: Abstraction principle includes use of abstraction to avoid duplication (usually of code). It this way the program doesn’t contain any redundant functions and make the program efficient. 9. Higher the level of abstraction, higher are the details. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: Higher the level of abstraction, lower are the details. The best way to understand this is to consider a whole system that is highest level of abstraction as it hides everything inside. And next lower level would contain few of the computer components and so on. 10. Encapsulation and abstraction differ as ____________ a) Binding and Hiding respectively b) Hiding and Binding respectively c) Can be used any way d) Hiding and hiding respectively Answer: a Explanation: Abstraction is hiding the complex code. For example, we directly use cout object in C++ but we don’t know how is it actually implemented. Encapsulation is data binding, as in, we try to combine a similar type of data and functions together. 11. In terms of stream and files ____________ a) Abstraction is called a stream and device is called a file b) Abstraction is called a file and device is called a stream c) Abstraction can be called both file and stream d) Abstraction can’t be defined in terms of files and stream Answer: a Explanation: Abstraction is called stream to provide a level of complexity hiding, for how the files operations are actually done. Actual devices are called file because in one way or another, those can be considered as single entity and there is nothing hidden. 12. If two classes combine some private data members and provides public member functions to access and manipulate those data members. Where is abstraction used? a) Using private access specifier for data members b) Using class concept with both data members and member functions c) Using public member functions to access and manipulate the data members d) Data is not sufficient to decide what is being used Answer: c Explanation: It is the concept of hiding program complexity and actual working in background. Hence use of public member functions illustrates abstraction here. 13. A phone is made up of many components like motherboard, camera, sensors and etc. If the processor represents all the functioning of phone, display shows the display only, and the phone is represented as a whole. Which among the following have highest level of abstraction? a) Motherboard b) Display c) Camera d) Phone Answer: d Explanation: Phone as a whole have the highest level of abstraction. This is because the phone being a single unit represents the whole system. Whereas motherboard, display and camera are its components. 14. Which among the following is not a level of abstraction? a) Logical level b) Physical level c) View level d) External level 
Answer: d Explanation: Abstraction is generally divided into 3 different levels, namely, logical, physical and view level. External level is not defined in terms of abstraction. 15. Using higher degree of abstraction __________ a) May get unsafe b) May reduce readability c) Can be safer d) Can increase vulnerability Answer: c Explanation: It will make the code safer. One may think it reduces the readability, but the fact is, it actually helps us understand the code better. We don’t have to read the complex code which is of no use in understanding the program.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Access Specifiers”. 1. How many types of access specifiers are provided in OOP (C++)? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Explanation: Only 3 types of access specifiers are available. Namely, private, protected and public. All these three can be used according to the need of security of members. 2. Which among the following can be used together in a single class? a) Only private b) Private and Protected together c) Private and Public together d) All three together Answer: d Explanation: All the classes can use any of the specifiers as needed. There is no restriction on how many of them can be used together. 3. Which among the following can restrict class members to get inherited? a) Private b) Protected c) Public d) All three Answer: a Explanation: Private members of a class can’t be inherited. These members can only be accessible from members of its own class only. It is used to secure the data. 4. Which access specifier is used when no access specifier is used with a member of class (java)? a) Private b) Default c) Protected d) Public Answer: b Explanation: Default access is used if the programmer doesn’t specify the specifier. This acts in a similar way as that of private. But since nothing is specified we call it to default access. 5. Which specifier allows a programmer to make the private members which can be inherited? a) Private b) Default c) Protected d) Protected and default Answer: c Explanation: Protected access is used to make the members private. But those members can be inherited. This gives both security and code reuse capability to a program. 6. Which among the following is false? a) Private members can be accessed using friend functions b) Member functions can be made private c) Default members can’t be inherited d) Public members are accessible from other classes also Answer: c Explanation: The default members can be inherited. Provided that they are in same package. It works in a little different way from private access specifier. 7. If a class has all the private members, which specifier will be used for its implicit constructor? a) Private b) Public c) Protected d) Default Answer: b Explanation: The implicit constructor will always be public. Otherwise the class wouldn’t be able to have instances. In turn, no
objects will be created and the class can only be used for inheritance. 8. If class A has add() function with protected access, and few other members in public. Then class B inherits class A privately. Will the user will not be able to call _________ from the object of class B. a) Any function of class A b) The add() function of class A c) Any member of class A d) Private, protected and public members of class A Answer: d Explanation: Class B object will not be able to call any of the private, protected and public members of class A. It is not only about the function add(), but all the members of class A will become private members of class B. 9. Which access specifier should be used in a class where the instances can’t be created? a) Private default constructor b) All private constructors c) Only default constructor to be public d) Only default constructor to be protected Answer: b Explanation: All the constructors must be made private. This will restrict the instance of class to be made anywhere in the program. Since the constructors are private, no instance will be able to call them and hence won’t be allocated with any memory space. 10. On which specifier’s data, does the size of a class’s object depend? a) All the data members are added b) Only private members are added c) Only public members are added d) Only default data members are added Answer: a Explanation: All the data members are counted to calculate the size of an object of a class. The data member access specifier doesn’t play any role here. Hence all the data size will be added. 11. If class B inherits class A privately. And class B has a friend function. Will the friend function be able to access the private member of class A? a) Yes, because friend function can access all the members b) Yes, because friend function is of class B c) No, because friend function can only access private members of friend class d) No, because friend function can access private member of class A also Answer: c Explanation: The friend function of class B will not be able to access private members of class A. Since B is inheriting class A privately, the members will become private in class B. But private members of class A won’t be inherited at all. Hence it won’t be accessible. 12. If an abstract class has all the private members, then _________ a) No class will be able to implement members of abstract class b) Only single inheritance class can implement its members c) Only other enclosing classes will be able to implement those members d) No class will be able to access those members but can implement. Answer: a Explanation: The classes which inherit the abstract class, won’t be able to implement the members of abstract class. The private members will not be inherited. This will restrict the subclasses to implement those members. 13. Which access specifier should be used so that all the parent class members can be inherited and accessed from outside the class? a) Private b) Default or public c) Protected or private d) Public Answer: d Explanation: All the members must be of public access. So that the members can be inherited easily. Also, the members will be available from outside the class. 14. Which access specifier is usually used for data members of a class? a) Private b) Default 
c) Protected d) Public Answer: a Explanation: All the data members should be made private to ensure the highest security of data. In special cases we can use public or protected access, but it is advised to keep the data members private always. 15. Which specifier should be used for member functions of a class? a) Private b) Default c) Protected d) Public Answer: d Explanation: It is always advised that the member functions should be kept public so that those functions can be used from out of the class. This is usually done to ensure that the features provided by the class can be used at its maximum.
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Questions and Answers for Aptitude test focuses on “Member Operator Function”. 1. Which among the following are valid ways of overloading the operators? a) Only using friend function b) Only using member function c) Either member functions or friend functions can be used d) Operators can’t be overloaded Answer: c Explanation: The operators can be overloaded by using the member function or even the friend functions can be used. This is because both of these can access all the data members of a class. 2. Which among the following is mandatory condition for operators overloading? a) Overloaded operator must be member function of the left operand b) Overloaded operator must be member function of the right operand c) Overloaded operator must be member function of either left or right operand d) Overloaded operator must not be dependent on the operands Answer: a Explanation: The operator to be overloaded must be made the member function of the operand on left side of expressions to be used. This allows the compiler to identify whether the overloading has to be used or not. This rule also reduces the ambiguity in code. 3. When the operator to be overloaded becomes the left operand member then ______________ a) The right operand acts as implicit object represented by *this b) The left operand acts as implicit object represented by *this c) Either right or left operand acts as implicit object represented by *this d) *this pointer is not applicable in that member function Answer: b Explanation: The left operand becomes the object that is referred by *this pointer in the member function that will be called while using operator overloading. This is done to point to a specific object on which the overloading will be applied. 4. If the left operand is pointed by *this pointer, what happens to other operands? a) Other operands are passed as function return type b) Other operands are passed to compiler implicitly c) Other operands must be passed using another member function d) Other operands are passed as function arguments Answer: d Explanation: The operands that are used during overloading expect the left operand, can be passed as function arguments. Those are then referred in function definition with the names specified in the argument list. 5. If a friend overloaded operator have to be changed to member overloaded operator, which operator should be used with the class name? a) Scope resolution operator b) Colon c) Arrow operator d) Dot operator Answer: a Explanation: The scope resolution operator can be used followed by the class name. Then the operator keyword with the operator symbol that should be overloaded. This is done to use member function instead of friend function. 6. What is the syntax to overload an operator? a) className::operator<operatorSymbol>(parameters) b) className:operator<operatorSymbol>(parameters) c) className.operator<operatorSymbol>(paramteres) d) className->operator<operatorSymbol>(parameters) Answer: a Explanation: The class name is followed by the scope resolution operator. This is done to specify the class to which the function should belong to. Then the keyword operator should be used in order to indicate the operator that is to be overloaded. Then come the parameters list to specify other operands. 7. Why the left parameter is removed from parameter list? a) Because it is of no use b) Because it is never used in definitions c) Because it becomes parameter pointed by *this 
d) Because it can’t be referred by *this pointer Answer: c Explanation: The left object is removed from being passed as a parameter, because it is implicitly passed. It is passed implicitly because it is considered the object with respect to which the overloading function is being called. 8. Which object’s members can be called directly while overloading operator function is used (In function definition)? a) Left operand members b) Right operand members c) All operand members d) None of the members Answer: a Explanation: This is because the left operand is passed implicitly. It is pointed by *this. This in turn means we can use the direct member names of the object because those are again converted to a syntax containing *this pointer implicitly. 9. If left operand member is specified directly in the function definition, which is the correct implicit conversion of that syntax? a) *this className b) *this parameterObject c) *this returnedObject d) *this object Answer: d Explanation: Since the left operands are passed implicitly, those object members can be accessed directly in the function definition. The compiler converts the syntax into the syntax that can be processed. The implicitly converted syntax contains *this pointer followed by the objectName that is left operand in the expression. 10. When the friend operator overloading is converted into member operator overloading _______________ a) Two parameters of friend function remains same parameters in member operator overloading b) Two parameters of friend function becomes only one parameter of member function c) Two parameters of friend function are removed while using member function d) Two parameters of friend function are made 4 in member operator overloading Answer: b Explanation: The friend function would accept two arguments if some binary operator is overloaded. When we try to convert that definition to member operator overloading then it becomes only one parameter. The reason behind is that the left operand is passed implicitly while using the member functions. 11. Where in the parameter list is the implicit *this is added? a) Right most parameter b) Anywhere in parameter list c) Left most parameter d) Not added to parameter list Answer: c Explanation: The left operand is passed implicitly by the compiler to the member function. But this is done, when the compiler adds the calling object as *this to the parameter list. It is always added as the left most parameter, i.e. the first parameter of the function. 12. Which operator among the following can be overloading using only member function? a) Assignment operator b) Addition operator c) Subtraction operator d) Multiplication and division operator Answer: a Explanation: Only the assignment operator among the options given must be overloaded using the member functions. The assignment operator can’t be overloaded using friend function. This is a restriction in the programming languages to make the programs more resistant towards errors. 13. Which operator among the following can be overloaded using both friend function and member function? a) Assignment operator b) Subscript c) Member selection (arrow operator) d) Modulus operator Answer: d Explanation: Only the modulus operator among the given operators can be overloaded using either friend function or member function. Other operators must be overloaded using only the member functions. 14. All the operators can be overloaded using the member function operator overloading. 
a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: It is not the case that all the operators can be overloaded using the member operator overloading. There are some cases where the operators must be overloaded using the friend function only. The reason behind is that the left operand should be passed *this pointer, but the left operand in these cases might be object of some other class. Hence can’t be done. 15. Which operator among the following must be overloaded using the friend function? a) << operator only b) >> operator only c) Both << and >> operators d) It’s not mandatory to use friend function in any case Answer: c Explanation: In some cases it is mandatory to use the friend functions for overloading the operators. Here both the << and >> operators must be overloaded using friend function because the left operand is object of some other class and the right operand is usually of some different type.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Assigning Objects”. 1. When value of an object is assigned to another object ________________ a) It becomes invalid statement b) Its values gets copied into another object c) Its values gets address of the existing values d) The compiler doesn’t execute that statement Answer: b Explanation: The values get copied to another object. No address is assigned to the object values. This is uses copy constructor to copy the values. 2. If an object is created and another object is assigned to it, then ________________ a) Copy constructor is called to copy the values b) Object is copied directly to the object c) Reference to another object is created d) The new object is initialized to null values Answer: c Explanation: The new object created, refers to the same address of the previously created object. Now whenever new object changes any data member value, it will affect the previously existing object. 3. How the argument passed to a function get initialized? a) Assigned using copy constructor at time of passing b) Copied directly c) Uses addresses always d) Doesn’t get initialized Answer: a Explanation: The arguments get initialized using the copy constructor. There is a need of assigning the value of all the members of an object to the local object of the function. 4. Predict the output of the program. class A { public int i; }; void main() { A x; A y=x; x.i=10; y.i=20; y.i++; y.i=20; cout&l;&lt;tx.i; } a) 10 b) 20 c) 21 d) 0 Answer: b Explanation: The expected output may be 10 because the value of member of object x is printed. But when object x is assigned to y, y points to the same address where x is stored. So actually both objects x and y point to the same location and refers to the same object. 5. If programmer doesn’t define any copy assignment operator then ____________________ a) Compiler gives an error b) Program fails at run time c) Compiler gives an implicit definition d) Compiler can’t copy the member values Answer: c Explanation: While defining a copy constructor, we use reference const parameter, those are used for the assignment. The assignment operator may or may not be defined by the programmer, if not, compiler implicitly defines member wise copy assignment operator.
6. Declaring a copy constructor doesn’t suppresses the compiler generated copy assignment operator. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: Even if the programmer doesn’t define or even if they define the copy constructor. The compiler still generates a copy assignment operator. It doesn’t gets suppressed. 7. In copy constructor definition, if non const values are accepted only ________ a) Only const objects will be accepted b) Only non – const objects are accepted c) Only const members will not get copied d) Compiler generates an error Answer: b Explanation: Only the non – const objects will be accepted by the compiler. If a const object is passed, the compiler produces an error. To reduce that, we use const argument in definition, so that both const and non – const objects are accepted. 8. How many objects can be assigned to a single address? a) Only 1 b) At most 7 c) At most 3 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: The memory address can be referenced by more than one object. There is no maximum number defined. Any number of objects can reference to the same address. 9. Use of assignment operator ____________________ a) Changes its use, when used at declaration and in normal assignment b) Doesn’t changes its use, whatever the syntax might be c) Assignment takes place in declaration and assignment syntax d) Doesn’t work in normal syntax, but only with declaration Answer: a Explanation: The assignment operator if used at declaration then it uses copy constructor for the copying of objects. If used in simple assignment syntax then it uses copy assignment function. 10. If more than one object refer to the same address, any changes made __________ a) Can be made visible to specific objects b) Will be specific to one object only c) From any object will be visible in all d) Doesn’t changes the values of all objects Answer: c Explanation: At a memory address, only one object can be referenced. All the other objects which refer to the same memory address make changes for all of the objects referring that address. 11. How to make more than one object refer to the same object? a) Initialize it to null b) Initialize the object with another at declaration c) Use constructor to create new object d) Assign the address directly Answer: b Explanation: The object must get initialized with another object at time of declaration only. We don’t have to create a new object we just have to get name of new object because there after same address will be referred. 12. We can assign ______________________ a) Value of one reference variable to another b) Value of any object to another c) Value of any type to any object d) Value of non – reference to another reference Answer: a Explanation: Only the reference value can be assigned to another reference value. This is because both deal with the address. There is no type mismatch hence we can assign them. 13. Assigning reference to an object _________________ a) Will create another copy of the object b) Will create two different copies of the object 
c) Will not create any other copy of the object d) Will not refer to the object Answer: c Explanation: When an object is assigned with another object. Same memory location is used. There is no other copy of the object created. 14. Which among the following is true? a) We can use direct assignment for any object b) We can use direct assignment only for different class objects c) We must not use direct assignment d) We can use direct assignment to same class objects Answer: d Explanation: The direct assignment can be used with the same class objects. There is no restriction on them. But better if the program have a predefined copy assignment operator. 15. Assigning objects takes place while passing the arguments. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The actual assignment doesn’t take place as the object might have got passed by reference. Also even if not by reference, the copy constructor is called to copy the values into the new object and not exactly the assignment operator.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Automatic Variable”. 1. What are automatic variables? a) Global variables b) Implicit/temporary variables c) Local variables d) System variables Answer: c Explanation: The local variables are also known as automatic variables. The variables in any local scope that are created and destroyed as the program executes its scope. 2. The memory for automatic variables ___________________ a) Have to be allocated and deallocated explicitly b) Are allocated and deallocated automatically c) Is never actually allocated d) Are never safe Answer: b Explanation: The memory is allocated and deallocated automatically for the automatic variables. As soon as the variable comes in scope, the memory is allocated. The variables are destroyed as soon as those go out of scope. 3. Scope of an automatic variable _______________ a) Is actually the whole program b) Is actually never fixed c) Is always equal to the whole program execution d) Is actually function or block in which it is defined Answer: d Explanation: The automatic variables scope is limited only within the block or the function where those are defined. This is the property of all the automatic variables. 4. Which among the following is true for automatic variables in general? a) Automatic variables are invisible to called function b) Automatic variables are always visible to the called function c) Automatic variables can’t interact with the called function d) Automatic variables can’t be variable Answer: a Explanation: The automatic variables are hidden from the called function. Even if passed by reference or address, the address of the variable is used and not the actual variable of calling function. Automatic variables can be const or variable. 5. If an automatic variable is created and then a function is called then ________________ a) The automatic variable created gets destroyed b) The automatic variable doesn’t get destroyed c) The automatic variable may or may not get destroyed d) The automatic variable can’t be used in this case Answer: b Explanation: The automatic variables are saved till the called function gets executed. This is done so as to ensure that the program can continue its execution after the called function is returned. The automatic variables gets destroyed only if those go out of scope. 6. Where are the automatic variables stored if another function is called in between the execution of the program? a) Heap b) Queue c) Stack d) Temp variable Answer: c Explanation: All the automatic variables are stored in a new stack entry as soon as their scope is created. If another function is called, the present data is saved in stack and new entry in stack is made for the called function. When the function returns, the automatic variables are used again from where those were left. 7. The static variables of a function ________________ a) Are also automatic variables b) Are not automatic variables c) Are made automatic by default d) Can be made automatic explicitly 
Answer: b Explanation: The static members can’t be automatic. This is because the automatic variables are created and destroyed with each call to a specific function. But the static members remain throughout the execution of program once created. 8. All variables declared within a block ____________________ a) Are not always automatic b) Can be made non-automatic c) Are static by default d) Are automatic by default Answer: d Explanation: The variables declared inside a block, are make automatic by default. This is to ensure that the variables get destroyed when not required. The variables remain live only till those are required, the life is dependent on the scope of a variable. 9. What values does uninitialized automatic variables contain? a) Null value b) Void value c) Undefined/Garbage d) Zero value Answer: c Explanation: The automatic variable which are not initialized, contain garbage value. If we just declare a variable and try to print its value, the result is some unknown value. The value is garbage as that was not expected value. 10. Constructor of automatic variables is called ____________________ a) When execution reaches the place of declaration of automatic variables b) When the program is compiled c) When the execution is just started d) Just before the execution of the program Answer: a Explanation: Only when the execution reaches the place where the automatic variable was declared, the constructor is called. This is to ensure that the memory is not allocated if not needed. The memory is allocated and then destroyed as soon as it goes out of scope. 11. Does java contain auto or register keywords? a) Yes, for declaring every type of variable b) Yes, only to declare cache registers c) No, because java doesn’t support automatic variables d) No, java supports local variable concept Answer: d Explanation: The auto and register keywords are not supported in java. Though the same is allowed in java without specifying any of those keywords. The variables are local variables. But java makes it mandatory to initialize all of the local variables in a program. 12. The automatic variables _________________________ a) Must be declared after its use b) Must be declared before using c) Must be declared, can be anytime d) Must not be initialized Answer: b Explanation: All the automatic variables in a program must be declared before their use. The compiler won’t allow any use of variable if those are not declared before their use. 13. Which error is produced if the automatic variables are used without declaration? a) Undefined symbol b) Memory error c) Type mismatch d) Statement missing Answer: a Explanation: If the automatic variables are used without declaration or are used before the declaration then the compiler throws an error. The error that the symbol is undefined. The compiler must know everything before that can be used. 14. In Perl, using which operator are the local variables created? a) Dot b) Arrow 
c) Scope resolution d) my Answer: d Explanation: The language perl supports local variables but the concept is bit different. And if the values are not assigned to the local variables then it contains undef value. 15. How are automatic variables different from the instance variables? a) Automatic variables are initialized automatically but instances are not b) Automatic variables are given zero values initially and not instances c) Instance variables have to be initialized explicitly and automatic implicitly d) Instance variables are initialized implicitly while automatic are not Answer: d Explanation: The automatic variables have to be initialized explicitly. But in case of instances, those are initialized automatically during execution of the program. The conventions are mandatory.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Base Class”. 1. Which is most appropriate definition of a base class? a) It is parent of any of its derived class b) It is child of one of the parent class c) It is most basic class of whole program d) It is class with maximum number of members Answer: a Explanation: A class which is parent of another class, or from which other classes can be derived, is known as a base class. It is mandatory that a class must have at least one derived class to be called as a base class. 2. A base class is also known as _____________ class. a) Basic b) Inherited c) Super d) Sub Answer: c Explanation: A class which is being derived by other classes, is called as super class. This concept is clearly used in java as we call the functions of a base class by using the keyword super as required. 3. An abstract class is always a __________ class. a) Base b) Derived c) Template d) Nested Answer: a Explanation: Every abstract class is a base class. It must be so, because the functions which are not defined inside the abstract class, must be defined in the derived classes. Hence it becomes a base class. 4. How many base classes can a single class inherit in java? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) As many as required Answer: a Explanation: In java, multiple inheritance is not supported, which leads to the fact that a class can have only 1 parent class if inheritance is used. Only if interfaces are used then the class can implement more than one base class. 5. How to make a derived class a base class? a) Change name of the class b) Use keyword base c) Make a class derive from it d) Can’t be done Answer: c Explanation: Making another class derive from it will make that class as base class. It is not necessary that we have to write different code for it. If at least one class derives that class, it becomes the base class for the new class. 6. If a base class is being derived by two other classes, which inheritance will that be called? a) Single b) Multiple c) Multi-level d) Hierarchical Answer: d Explanation: When more than one classes are being derived from a single parent class, the inheritance is known as hierarchical inheritance. This is usually useful when the base class is higher abstraction of its derived classes. 7. Which among the following must be in a base class? a) Data members b) Member functions c) Access specifiers d) Nothing Answer: d Explanation: Even a class that doesn’t have any members can be a base class. It is not mandatory to have any member or
attribute in base class. 8. Which type of members can’t be accessed in derived classes of a base class? a) Protected b) Private c) Public d) All can be accessed Answer: b Explanation: The private members can be accessed only inside the base class. If the class is derived by other classes. Those members will not be accessible. This concept of OOP is made to make the members more secure. 9. If a class is enclosing more than one class, than it can be called as base class of those classes. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: When a class have more than one nested classes, it is known as enclosing class. It can’t be called as parent or base class since there is no inheritance involved. 10. Base class have ________________ of abstraction. a) Higher degree b) Lower degree c) Intermediate d) Minimum degree Answer: b Explanation: A base class will have lesser information as compared to those of derived classes. Since derived classes inherit the base class properties and then add on their own features, they elaborate more hence have lower degree of abstraction. 11. Always the base class constructors are called ___________ constructor of derived class. a) Before b) After c) Along d) According to priority of Answer: a Explanation: When the base class object is created, its constructor will be called for sure. But if a derived class constructor is called, first base class constructor is called and then derived class constructor is taken into consideration. 12. Can we call methods of base class using the constructor of the derived class? a) Yes, always b) Yes, but not always c) No, never d) No, but we can call in some cases Answer: a Explanation: If the function is defined in the base class, it can always be called from the constructor of its derived class. Since the constructors are not private, they can be accessed in derived class even if those are protected. 13. If a base class is inherited from another class and then one class derives it, which inheritance is shown? a) Multiple b) Single c) Hierarchical d) Multi-level Answer: d Explanation: If a base class is inherited from another class, single inheritance is shown. But when one more class inherits the derived class, this becomes a multi-level inheritance. 14. How many base classes can a single derived class have in C++? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: This is because C++ allows multiple inheritance. A derived class can have more than one base class and hence can derive all of their features. 15. If a base class is added with a few new members, its subclass must also be modified. 
a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The base class can be added with new members without affecting the subclasses. This is because the subclasses may get some more features inherited but it won’t use them. But the base class will be able to use the new members as would be required.
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Questions and Answers for Campus interviews focuses on “Extern Variable”. 1. What is extern variable? a) Variables to be used that are declared in another object file b) Variables to be used that are declared in another source file c) Variables to be used that are declared in another executable file d) Variables to be used that are declared in another program Answer: b Explanation: The variables that are declared in another source file can be accessed in other files using extern variables. The extern variables must be mentioned explicitly. The source file is included to use its variables. 2. Which among the following is a correct statement for variables? a) Variable can be declared many times b) Variable can be declared only one time c) Variable declaration can’t be done more than ones d) Variable declaration is always done more than one time Answer: a Explanation: The variables can be declared any number of times. There is no restriction on how many times a single variables can be declared. Declaration is just an indication that the variable will be used in the program. 3. Which among the following is true for the variables? a) Variable can be defined only once b) Variable can be defined any number of times c) Variable must be defined more than one time d) Variable can be defined in different files Answer: a Explanation: The variables can be defined only once. Once the variable is defined, then it can’t be declared again. The definition of a variable is actual allocation of memory for the variable. 4. To use extern variable _____________________ a) The source file must not be included in the new file code b) The source file itself must be used for a new program c) The source file must be included in the new file d) The source file doesn’t matter for extern variables Answer: c Explanation: The source file must be included in the file which needs to use the extern variable. This is done to ensure that the variables that are already declared can be used again. Only the declarations are used from one file to another. 5. What does a header file contain for an extern variable? a) Only declaration of variables b) Only definition of variables c) Both declaration and definition of variables d) Neither declaration nor definition Answer: a Explanation: The header file only contains the declaration of variables that are extern. It doesn’t contain any static variable definitions. 6. Which condition is true if the extern variable is used in a file? a) All the header files declare it b) Only few required files declare it c) All header files declared it if required d) Only one header file should declare it Answer: d Explanation: Only one header file should declare the extern variable to be used. There must not be more than one file declaring the same extern variable. This is to ensure that there is no ambiguity in using the extern variable. 7. Whenever a function is declared in a program _____________________ a) extern can be used only in some special cases b) extern can’t be used c) function is extern by default d) it can’t be made extern Answer: c Explanation: Even if we don’t specify a function to be extern, by default all the functions are exter. The compiler adds the keyword
at the beginning of the function declaration. If there is an extern function to be used then it will be used otherwise the new function only will be used. 8. Even if a variable is not declared as extern, it is extern by default. a) True b) False Answerr: b Explanation: The statement is false. The variables are not extern by default. If those are made extern by default, then the memory will never be allocated for those extern variables. Hence we make the variables extern explicitly. 9. Which of the following results in the allocation of memory for the extern variables? a) Declaration b) Definition c) Including file d) Memory is not allocated for extern variables Answer: b Explanation: The memory for the extern variables are allocated due to their definition. When the variables are declared, it only indicates the compiler that the variable is going to be used somewhere. But definition makes the compiler to allocate the memory for the variables. 10. Which is the correct syntax for extern variable declaration? a) extern data_type variable_name; b) extern variable_name; c) data_type variable_name extern; d) extern (data_type)variable_name; Answer: a Explanation: The syntax firstly contains the keyword extern. Then the data type of the variable is given. Then the variabel name is mentioned by which it will be used in the program. 11. Which is the correct syntax for extern function declaration? a) extern function_name(argument_list); b) extern return_type function_name(argument_list); c) extern (return_type)function_name(argument_list); d) return_type extern function_name(argument_list); Answer: b Explanation: The syntax must contain the keyword extern first, to denote that the function is extern. Though the function are extern by default but among the given choices, it should contain the keyword, for explicit declaration. Then the usual function declaration follows. 12. What will be the output of the program? extern int var; int main(void) {  var = 10;  var++;  cout<<var; } a) 10 b) 11 c) Run time error d) Compile time error Answer: d Explanation: The program gives the compiler time error. There is no definition given for the extern variables. This is not allowed and hence we get a compile time error. 13. If the definition is given in the header file that we include then ________________ a) The program can run successfully b) Also the program should define the extern variable c) The extern variable must contain two definitions d) Extern variable can’t be used in the program Answer: a Explanation: The program runs successfully. This is because only one definition of any variable is allowed. And hence the definition from the source file that is included will be used.
14. If extern variable is initialized with the declaration then _______________________ a) Also the header file with definition is required b) The header file with definition must be included c) There is no need to include any other header file for definition d) The extern variable produces compile time error Answer: c Explanation: When the value for the extern variable is defined with its declaration, then there is no need to include any file for the definition of the variable. The Initialization acts as a definition for the extern variable in the file itself. 15. Why are functions extern by default? a) Because functions are always private b) Because those are not visible throughout the program c) Because those can’t be accessed in all parts of the program d) Because those are visible throughout the program Answer: a Explanation: The program have all of its functions visible throughout the program usually. Also, there is no specific value that a function must contain. Hence the functions are extern by default.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Catching Class Types”. 1. Which among the following is true for class exceptions? a) Only base class can give rise to exceptions b) Only derived class can give rise to exceptions c) Either base class or derived class may produce exceptions d) Both base class and derived class may produce exceptions Answer: d Explanation: It’s not mandatory that either base class or derived class can give rise to exceptions. The exceptions might get produced from any class. The exceptions depends on code. 2. If both base and derived class caught exceptions ______________ a) Then catch block of derived class must be defined before base class b) Then catch block of base class must be defined before the derived class c) Then catch block of base and derived classes doesn’t matter d) Then catch block of base and derived classes are not mandatory to be defined Answer: a Explanation: It is a condition for writing the catch blocks for base and derived classes. It is mandatory to write derived class catch block first because the errors produced by the derived class must be handled first. 3. Which among the following is true? a) If catch block of base class is written first, it is compile time error b) If catch block of base class is written first, it is run time error c) If catch block of base class is written first, derived class catch block can’t be reached d) If catch block of base class is written first, only derived class catch block is executed Answer: c Explanation: If the catch block of the base class is defined first and then the derived class catch block is given. The code becomes unreachable. Hence the derived class catch block must be written first. 4. The catching of base class exception ___________________________ in java. a) After derived class is not allowed by compiler b) Before derived class is not allowed by compiler c) Before derived class is allowed d) After derived class can’t be done Answer: b Explanation: The catching of base class exception before derived class is not allowed in java. The compiler itself doesn’t allow this declaration. It produces an error. 5. If catching of base class exception is done before derived class in C++ ________________ a) It gives compile time error b) It doesn’t run the program c) It may give warning but not error d) It always gives compile time error Answer: c Explanation: The compiler in C++ doesn’t identify this as compile time error and allows the execution of the program. But, the compiler may give some warning related to the catch block sequence or code unreachable. 6. How many catch blocks can a class have? a) Only 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: There are many type of exceptions that may arise while running a code. And each catch block can handle only one exception. Hence there can be as many catch blocks as required. 7. Since which version of java is multiple exception catch was made possible? a) Java 4 b) Java 5 c) Java 6 d) Java 7 Answer: d Explanation: None of the languages used to support multiple exception catch in a single catch block. Since java 7 the feature
was added to catch more than one exceptions in one catch block. 8. To catch more than one exception in one catch block, how are the exceptions separated in the syntax? a) Vertical bar b) Hyphen c) Plus d) Modulus Answer: a Explanation: Just the way we separate the arguments in a function definition using comma. Here we separate the exceptions by using a vertical bar or we call it pipe symbol sometimes. This is just a convention followed to separate different exception list. 9. If a catch block accepts more than one exceptions then __________________ a) The catch parameters are not final b) The catch parameters are final c) The catch parameters are not defined d) The catch parameters are not used Answer: b Explanation: The catch parameters are made final. This is to ensure that the parameters are not changed inside the catch block. Hence those retain their values. 10. Which among the following handles the undefined class in program? a) ClassNotFound b) NoClassException c) ClassFoundException d) ClassNotFoundException Answer: d Explanation: It is the exception handler that handles the exceptions when the class used is not found in the program. This is done to handle all the undefined class exceptions. This can be due to a command line error. 11. If classes produce some exceptions, then ______________________ a) Their respective catch block must be defined b) Their respective catch blocks are not mandatory c) Their catch blocks should be defined inside main function d) Their catch blocks must be defined at the end of program Answer: a Explanation: The catch blocks must be defined. This is to ensure that all the exceptions related to the classes are handled by the program code and the program doesn’t terminate unexpectedly. 12. Which among the following is true? a) Only the base class catch blocks are important b) Only the derived class catch blocks are important c) Both the base and derived class catch blocks are important d) If base and derived classes both produce exceptions, program doesn’t run Answer: c Explanation: The purpose of exception handling is to handle the unexpected errors in the program. If base class might produce some error then its catch block must be given and if the derived class might produce some error then it must be given a specific catch block too. 13. Which is the necessary condition to define the base and derived class catch blocks? a) Base class catch should be defined first b) Derived class catch should be defined first c) Catch block for both the classes must not be defined d) Catch block must be defined inside main function Answer: b Explanation: The derived class catch blocks must be defined prior to the base class catch block. This is to ensure that all the catch boxes are reachable. If not done, the code might become unreachable which in turn makes the program prone to errors. 14. Only the base class catch box can handle more than one exception in single block. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: There is no specific condition that states that only base class catch box can handle more than one exception in single box. Even the derived class catch clocks can handle more than one exceptions.
15. Which condition among the following might result in memory exception? a) False if conditions b) Nested if conditions that are all false c) Infinite loops d) Loop that runs exactly 99 times Answer: c Explanation: The infinite loops doesn’t stop running once started. There must be a way to stop the loop but that is always an improper termination. Infinite loops may keep on using more memory and hence would result in memory error.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Class Use”. 1. Which among the following is the main characteristic of class? a) Inheritance b) Encapsulation c) Polymorphism d) Object creation Answer: b Explanation: The classes are made to encapsulate the data and properties that are most similar and can be grouped together inside a single class. This single class can represent all of those features by creating its instances. 2. To group all the brands of cars, what should be used? a) Class b) Structure c) Function d) Object Answer: a Explanation: A class can be used to group all the brands of cars. The Different brands may have different properties but all will have some common properties like number of wheels and doors, accessories etc. All of those properties can be grouped into a single class representing all the cars. 3. If a class have two data members and two functions to add those two numbers and to subtract them, which among the following is most efficient if the programmer wants to implement multiplication too? a) Define a public function which multiplies two numbers b) Define a public function that returns values of two data members c) Define a private function which multiplies two numbers d) Define a private function that returns values of two data members Answer: b Explanation: The best choice would be to define a public member function that returns the values of two data members of the class. This way we can implement any operation on those data members. Also there won’t be any need to modify the program and to add new functions for each new operation. 4. If a database have to be maintained using OOP, to store the details of each employee in a company, which would be the best choice among the following? a) Define a class to store details of each employee b) Define a structure to store details of each employee c) Define separate variable for each detail d) Define a generic type to store string and number details Answer: a Explanation: A single class can be defined that represents a single employee of a company. The specific type of functions that can be applied to specific employees can be put into another class that is derived from the existing class. 5. Which class represents the most abstracted information? a) Nested b) Derived c) Enclosed d) Base Answer: d Explanation: The base classes are the most abstracted part of information. A base class having many other derived classes would have a bigger overview of all the other derived classes. Hence the base classes have the most abstract information. 6. Which among the following is an advantage of using classes over structures of C? a) Functions are restricted b) Functions can’t be defined c) Functions can also be encapsulated d) Functions can have more security Answer: c Explanation: The functions are also made easy to be encapsulated inside a class. In structures, only the data members were allowed to be encapsulated. Hence classes can represent an entity in a better way. 7. Which among the following is a feature of class? a) Object orientation b) Procedure orientation 
c) Both object and procedure orientation d) Neither object nor procedure orientation Answer: a Explanation: Thee use of classes feature the object oriented programming. The OOP concept can be implemented by using class and their objects. Procedures orientation is not a feature of OOP. 8. Class is _____________ of an object. a) Basic function definition b) Detailed description with values c) Blueprint d) Set of constant values Answer: c Explanation: The class is an overview for an object. It contains the basic details map of data that an object will contain. An object is independent representation of class. 9. In which case the classes can be used to make the more efficient program? a) To define a function that is called frequently in a program b) To structure data that is most similar c) To group the most similar data and operations d) To define a blueprint that shows memory location of data Answer: c Explanation: The classes would be more suitable to use in case where we need to group the most similar data and operations. The data can be represented as data members of class and operations as member functions of class. This is indirectly encapsulation feature. 10. What is the use of inbuilt classes? a) Provide predefined data b) Provide predefined functions c) Provide predefined data and functions d) Provide predeclared data to be overridden Answer: c Explanation: The data that is constant or is always the same initially for use can be provided by some inbuilt classes. The functions that are mostly used are also provided by the inbuilt classes. The data and functions can be used by including the corresponding header file or library. 11. Which feature is exhibited by the inbuilt classes? a) Code reusability b) Code efficiency c) Code readability d) Code reusability, efficiency and readability Answer: d Explanation: The code is reusable as the functions which are already written, can be used anytime required. The code becomes easier to read. Also, the code is efficient as there is no need to assign any external code. 12. Why do we use user defined classes? a) To design a user intended code b) To model real world objects c) To design the interfaces d) To model the functions Answer: b Explanation: The primitive classes are not sufficient for the programming complex algorithms. Some user defined classes are required to represent a real world object and to define a blueprint of what the class should actually contain. The user defined classes are as per the requirements and need of user. 13. Why do classes use accessor methods? a) To make public data accessible to client b) To make public data private to client c) To make private data public for whole program d) To make private data accessible to the client Answer: d Explanation: The private data of a class is usually not accessible. But the data can be accessed by the user using accessor functions. These functions allows the user to get the data stored as private in a class. 14. Why do classes use mutator methods? 
a) Allows client to modify the program b) Allows client to modify/write the private members c) Allows servers to access all the private data d) Allows servers to access only protected members Answer: b Explanation: The client can have rights to access a file and write something to it. This is mandatory to keep the private data updated. Also it is an advantage over the use of hidden class members. 15. Which among the following is the most abstract form of class? a) Cars b) BMW cars c) Big cars d) Small cars Answer: a Explanation: The most abstract class is class Cars. The class Cars is the most general form of all other cars. If it is a brand of car, it comes under car. If it is the type of car then also it comes under Cars.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Classes”. 1. Which of the following is not type of class? a) Abstract Class b) Final Class c) Start Class d) String Class Answer: c Explanation: Only 9 types of classes are provided in general, namely, abstract, final, mutable, wrapper, anonymous, input-output, string, system, network. We may further divide the classes into parent class and subclass if inheritance is used. 2. Class is pass by _______ a) Value b) Reference c) Value or Reference, depending on program d) Copy Answer: b Explanation: Classes are pass by reference, and the structures are pass by copy. It doesn’t depend on the program. 3. What is default access specifier for data members or member functions declared within a class without any specifier, in C++? a) Private b) Protected c) Public d) Depends on compiler Answer: a Explanation: The data members and member functions are Private by default in C++ classes, if none of the access specifier is used. It is actually made to increase the privacy of data. 4. Which is most appropriate comment on following class definition? class Student {    int a;     public : float a; }; a) Error : same variable name can’t be used twice b) Error : Public must come first c) Error : data types are different for same variable d) It is correct Answer: a Explanation: Same variable can’t be defined twice in same scope. Even if the data types are different, variable name must be different. There is no rule like Public member should come first or last. 5. Which is known as a generic class? a) Abstract class b) Final class c) Template class d) Efficient Code Answer: c Explanation: Template classes are known to be generic classes because those can be used for any data type value and the same class can be used for all the variables of different data types. 6. Size of a class is _____________ a) Sum of the size of all the variables declared inside the class b) Sum of the size of all the variables along with inherited variables in the class c) Size of the largest size of variable d) Classes doesn’t have any size Answer: d Explanation: Classes doesn’t have any size, actually the size of object of the class can be defined. That is done only when an object is created and its constructor is called. 7. Which class can have member functions without their implementation? a) Default class 
b) String class c) Template class d) Abstract class Answer: d Explanation: Abstract classes can have member functions with no implementation, where the inheriting subclasses must implement those functions. 8. Which of the following describes a friend class? a) Friend class can access all the private members of the class, of which it is a friend b) Friend class can only access protected members of the class, of which it is a friend c) Friend class don’t have any implementation d) Friend class can’t access any data member of another class but can use it’s methods Answer: a Explanation: A friend class can access all the private members of another class, of which it is a friend. It is a special class provided to use when you need to reuse the data of a class but don’t want that class to have those special functions. 9. What is the scope of a class nested inside another class? a) Protected scope b) Private scope c) Global scope d) Depends on access specifier and inheritance used Answer: d Explanation: It depends on the access specifier and the type of inheritance used with the class, because if the class is inherited then the nested class can be used by subclass too, provided it’s not of private type. 10. Class with main() function can be inherited. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The class containing main function can be inherited and hence the program can be executed using the derived class names also in java. 11. Which among the following is false, for a member function of a class? a) All member functions must be defined b) Member functions can be defined inside or outside the class body c) Member functions need not be declared inside the class definition d) Member functions can be made friend to another class using the friend keyword Answer: c Explanation: Member functions must be declared inside class body, though the definition can be given outside the class body. There is no way to declare the member functions outside the class. 12. Which syntax for class definition is wrong? a) class student{ }; b) student class{ }; c) class student{ public: student(int a){ } }; d) class student{ student(int a){} }; Answer: b Explanation: Keyword class should come first. Class name should come after keyword class. Parameterized constructor definition depends on programmer so it can be left empty also. 13. Which of the following pairs are similar? a) Class and object b) Class and structure c) Structure and object d) Structure and functions Answer: b Explanation: Class and structure are similar to each other. Only major difference is that a structure doesn’t have member functions whereas the class can have both data members and member functions. 14. Which among the following is false for class features? a) Classes may/may not have both data members and member functions b) Class definition must be ended with a colon c) Class can have only member functions with no data members d) Class is similar to union and structures 
Answer: b Explanation: Class definition must end with a semicolon, not colon. Class can have only member functions in its body with no data members. 15. Instance of which type of class can’t be created? a) Anonymous class b) Nested class c) Parent class d) Abstract class Answer: d Explanation: Instance of abstract class can’t be created as it will not have any constructor of its own, hence while creating an instance of class, it can’t initialize the object members. Actually the class inheriting the abstract class can have its instance because it will have implementation of all members.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Constructors Overloading”. 1. Which among the following is true for constructors overloading? a) Constructors can’t be overloaded b) Constructors can be overloaded using different signatures c) Constructors can be overloaded with same signatures d) Constructors can be overloaded with different return types Answer: b Explanation: The constructors can be overloaded only if the definitions have different signatures. Constructors doesn’t have any return type so can’t be overloaded using return type. If constructors have same signature then it will produce a compile time error. 2. If a constructors should be capable of creating objects without argument and with arguments, which is a good alternative for this purpose? a) Use zero argument constructor b) Use constructor with one parameter c) Use constructor with all default arguments d) Use default constructor Answer: c Explanation: The constructor should use all the default arguments. This will allow the constructor to be called even if no arguments are passed. And if arguments are passed, those will be accepted instead of the default values. 3. The Constructors with all the default arguments are similar as default constructors. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The constructors with all the default arguments are similar as the default constructors. Those can be used instead of the default constructors. So defining the default constructor is not mandatory. 4. Which among the following is true? a) The constructors overloading can be done by using different names b) The constructors overloading can be done by using different return types c) The constructors can be overloaded by using only one argument d) The constructors must have the same name as that of class Answer: d Explanation: The constructors must have the same name as that of the class name. This is mandatory because only the constructor functions doesn’t have any return type. Also, for overloading all the functions must have the same name. 5. Which among the following can be used in place of default constructor? a) constructorName(int x, int y=0) b) constructorName(int x=0, int y=0) c) constructorName(int x=0, int y) d) constructorName(int x, int y) Answer: b Explanation: For a parameterized constructor to be used as a default constructor, it must have all the default arguments. This makes the constructor to have optional arguments which are not mandatory to be passed. 6. Can a class have more than one function with all the default arguments? a) Yes, always b) Yes, if argument list is different c) No, because constructors overloading doesn’t depend on argument list d) No, never Answer: d Explanation: A single class can never have more than once constructor with all the default arguments. This is because it will make all those constructors as a default constructor. And when an object is created with zero arguments then it will create ambiguity. 7. Which is the correct syntax for using default arguments with the constructor? a) default constructorName(default int x=0) b) constructorName(default int x=0) c) constructorName(int x=0) d) constructorName() Answer: c Explanation: The constructors using the default arguments must initialize the arguments in the argument list. This is to make the
constructor use the default value when no arguments are passed. If no arguments are listed then it is a default constructor. 8. How many parameters must be passed if only the following prototype is given to a constructor? Prototype: className(int x, int y, int z=0); a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) Compile time error Answer: b Explanation: In the prototype given, only 2 arguments are mandatory. Since the third argument is default argument, so it is not mandatory to pass the argument. 9. If the constructors are overloaded by using the default arguments, which problem may arise? a) The constructors might have all the same arguments except the default arguments b) The constructors might have same return type c) The constructors might have same number of arguments d) The constructors can’t be overloaded with respect to default arguments Answer: a Explanation: The constructors having same arguments except the default arguments can give rise to errors. If only the mandatory arguments are passed, it will create ambiguity in calling the correct constructor. Hence the mandatory arguments must be different. 10. Which among the following is true? a) More than one constructors with all default arguments is allowed b) More than one constructors with all default arguments can be defined outside the class c) More than one constructors can be used with same argument list d) More than one constructors with all default arguments can’t exist in same class Answer: d Explanation: The constructors must have different argument list. Along that, if all the arguments are default arguments, there can’t be more than once constructor like that in the same class as that will create ambiguity while constructors are being called. 11. Which constructor among the following will be called if a call is made like className(5,’a’);? a) className(int x=5,char c=’a’); b) int className(int x, char c, char d); c) className(int x, char c, int y); d) char className(char c,int x); Answer: a Explanation: The syntax given is passing two parameters to the constructor call. One value is of integer type and another of character type. Hence the constructor with arguments of int and char type should be called. There is only one option that first accepts integer value and then a character value. Hence that constructor will be called. 12. Which constructor definition will produce a compile time error? a) className(int x=0); b) className(char c); c) className(int x=0,char c); d) className(char c,int x=0); Answer: c Explanation: The default arguments, just like with member functions, must be listed at last in the argument list. Hence this will produce a compile time error. The compiler doesn’t allow the definition to be executed. 13. If there is a constructor with all the default arguments and arguments are not passed then _________________ a) The default values given will not be used b) Then all the null values will be used c) Then all the default values given will be used d) Then compiler will produce an error Answer: c Explanation: The constructors will use the default values listed for use. The null values are not used because those are not specified. Though if it was compiler provided default constructor, then it would have initialized the members to null or zero values. 14. Which is the correct statement for default constructors? a) The constructors with all the default arguments b) The constructors with all the null and zero values c) The constructors which can’t be defined by programmer d) The constructors with zero arguments 
Answer: d Explanation: The closest answer to the question is that a default constructor is a constructor with zero arguments. But this is not the actual case. Actually the constructors provided by the compiler are default constructors. And the constructors with zero arguments defined by the programmer are zero argument constructors. 15. Which is a good alternative instead of having one zero argument constructor and one single argument constructor with default argument? a) No constructor defined b) One default value constructor c) Defining the default constructor d) Using one constructor with two arguments Answer: b Explanation: The constructor with one default argument can be the best alternative. This is because the constructor with one default value will do the work for both the default constructor and one argument constructor.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Constructors”. 1. Which among the following is called first, automatically, whenever an object is created? a) Class b) Constructor c) New d) Trigger Answer: b Explanation: Constructors are the member functions which are called automatically whenever an object is created. It is a mandatory functions to be called for an object to be created as this helps in initializing the object to a legal initial value for the class. 2. Which among the following is not a necessary condition for constructors? a) Its name must be same as that of class b) It must not have any return type c) It must contain a definition body d) It can contains arguments Answer: c Explanation: Constructors are predefined implicitly, even if the programmer doesn’t define any of them. Even if the programmer declares a constructor, it’s not necessary that it must contain some definition. 3. Which among the following is correct? a) class student{ public: int student(){} }; b) class student{ public: void student (){} }; c) class student{ public: student{}{} }; d) class student{ public: student(){} }; Answer: d Explanation: The constructors must not have any return type. Also, the body may or may not contain any body. Defining default constructor is optional, if you are not using any other constructor. 4. In which access should a constructor be defined, so that object of the class can be created in any function? a) Public b) Protected c) Private d) Any access specifier will work Answer: a Explanation: Constructor function should be available to all the parts of program where the object is to be created. Hence it is advised to define it in public access, so that any other function is able to create objects. 5. How many types of constructors are available for use in general (with respect to parameters)? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: a Explanation: Two types of constructors are defined generally, namely, default constructor and parameterized constructor. Default constructor is not necessary to be defined always. 6. If a programmer defines a class and defines a default value parameterized constructor inside it. He has not defined any default constructor. And then he try to create the object without passing arguments, which among the following will be correct? a) It will not create the object (as parameterized constructor is used) b) It will create the object (as the default arguments are passed) c) It will not create the object (as the default constructor is not defined) d) It will create the object (as at least some constructor is defined) Answer: b Explanation: It will create the object without any problem, because the default arguments use the default value if no value is passed. Hence it is equal to default constructor with zero parameters. But it will not create the object if signature doesn’t match. 7. Default constructor must be defined, if parameterized constructor is defined and the object is to be created without arguments. a) True b) False Answer: a 
Explanation: If the object is create without arguments and only parameterized constructors are used, compiler will give an error as there is no default constructor defined. And some constructor must be called so as to create an object in memory. 8. If class C inherits class B. And B has inherited class A. Then while creating the object of class C, what will be the sequence of constructors getting called? a) Constructor of C then B, finally of A b) Constructor of A then C, finally of B c) Constructor of C then A, finally B d) Constructor of A then B, finally C Answer: d Explanation: While creating the object of class C, its constructor would be called by default. But, if the class is inheriting some other class, firstly the parent class constructor will be called so that all the data is initialized that is being inherited. 9. In multiple inheritance, if class C inherits two classes A and B as follows, which class constructor will be called first? class A{ }; class B{ }; class C: public A, public B{  }; a) A() b) B() c) C() d) Can’t be determined Answer: a Explanation: Constructor of class A will be called first. This is because the constructors in multiple inheritance are called in the sequence in which they are written to be inherited. Here A is written first, hence it is called first. 10. Which among the following is true for copy constructor? a) The argument object is passed by reference b) It can be defined with zero arguments c) Used when an object is passed by value to a function d) Used when a function returns an object Answer: b Explanation: It can’t be defined with zero number of arguments. This is because to copy one object to another, the object must be mentioned so that compiler can take values from that object. 11. If the object is passed by value to a copy constructor? a) Only public members will be accessible to be copied b) That will work normally c) Compiler will give out of memory error d) Data stored in data members won’t be accessible Answer: c Explanation: Compiler runs out of memory. This is because while passing the argument by value, a constructor of the object will be called. That in turn called another object constructor for values, and this goes on. This is like a constructor call to itself, and this goes on infinite times, hence it must be passed by reference, so that the constructor is not called. 12. Which object will be created first? class student {      int marks; }; student s1, s2, s3; a) s1 then s2 then s3 b) s3 then s2 then s1 c) s2 then s3 then s1 d) all are created at same time Answer: a Explanation: The objects are created in the sequence of how they are written. This happens because the constructors are called in the sequence of how the objects are mentioned. This is done in sequence. 13. Which among the following helps to create a temporary instance? a) Implicit call to a default constructor b) Explicit call to a copy constructor c) Implicit call to a parameterized constructor 
d) Explicit call to a constructor Answer: d Explanation: Explicit call to a constructor can let you create a temporary instance. This is because the temporary instances doesn’t have any name. Those are deleted from memory as soon as their reference is removed. 14. Which among the following is correct for the class defined below? class student {    int marks;    public: student(){}    student(int x)    {          marks=x;     } }; main() {    student s1(100);    student s2();    student s3=100;    return 0; } a) Object s3, syntax error b) Only object s1 and s2 will be created c) Program runs and all objects are created d) Program will give compile time error Answer: c Explanation: It is a special case of constructor with only 1 argument. While calling a constructor with one argument, you are actually implicitly creating a conversion from the argument type to the type of class. Hence you can directly specify the value of that one argument with assignment operator. 15. For constructor overloading, each constructor must differ in ___________ and __________ a) Number of arguments and type of arguments b) Number of arguments and return type c) Return type and type of arguments d) Return type and definition Answer: a Explanation: Each constructor must differ in the number of arguments it accepts and the type of arguments. This actually defines the constructor signature. This helps to remove the ambiguity and define a unique constructor as required.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Data Members”. 1. What is the term used to indicate the variable and constants of a class? a) Data members b) Variables of class c) Data characters d) Constants Answer: a Explanation: The variables inside a class are termed data members of the class. It is not a mandatory rule but variables are used to refer to usual variables used in functions or globally. The term is given because the values stored in those variables represent some kind of data related to class. 2. Data members ________________ (C++) a) Can be initialized with declaration in classes b) Can be initialized only with help of constructors c) Can be initialized either in declaration or by constructor d) Can’t be initialized Answer: b Explanation: The data members are not property of class, those are property of the instances of the class. And the memory for the data members are not reserved until a constructor is called. Hence we use constructors for their initialization after the memory is reserved. 3. Which among the following is true for data members? a) Private data members can be initialized with declaration in class b) Static members are initialized in constructors c) Protected data members can be initialized in class directly d) Static data members are defined outside class, not in constructor Answer: d Explanation: Static members are not property of instances of classes. Those are shared by all the object of classes. Hence those are defined outside the constructor, so as to make them common for all the objects. 4. What should be done for data member to be of user defined structure type? a) The structure must have been defined before class. b) The structure must have been defined after the class definition c) The structure must be predefined d) The structure type data members can’t be used Answer: a Explanation: The structure must have been defined prior to its use. If the structure is not defined, then the memory space will not be allocated for its members. This leads to undefined use of new data types. 5. How many data members can a class contain? a) 27 b) 255 c) 1024 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: Any class can have as many data members as required. The only restriction that may arise is when there is not enough memory space. This gives flexibility to define a class with best properties possible. 6. How to access data members of a class? a) Dot operator b) Arrow operator c) Dot or arrow as required d) Dot, arrow or direct call Answer: c Explanation: The data members can never be called directly. Dot operator is used to access the members with help of object of class. Arrow is usually used if pointers are used. 7. To create a pointer to a private data member of a class, outside the class, which among the following is correct? a) Return the address of the private data member using a member function b) Access the private member using a pointer outside class c) Declare the member as pointer inside the class d) Not possible to create pointer to a private member 
Answer: a Explanation: We can call a public member function and return the address of any private data member. Though the pointer being returned must be defined inside class itself. And the returned address can be stored in a pointer. 8. Which among the following is true for use of setter() and getter() function? a) Considered best for manipulating data values b) Considered the only proper way to manipulate the values c) Considered specially for private members manipulation d) Considered a red flag, and not recommended for large scale use Answer: d Explanation: This concept of getter and setter functions is not acceptable if used too much. This is considered to be inappropriate in OOP perspective. Though it is commonly used, it doesn’t work according to OOP concepts at some higher level of understanding. 9. What is the output of following code? int n=10;  // global class A() { private : int n; public : int m; A() {   n=100; m=50; } void disp() { cout<<”n”<<m<<n; }; a) 1050100 b) 1005010 c) n5010 d) n50100 Answer: d Explanation: In cout we have specified n as a string to be printed. And m is a variable so its value gets printed. And global variable will not be used since local variable have more preference. 10. The static member functions can only use ________ a) Static data members b) Private data members c) Protected data members d) Constant data members Answer: a Explanation: The static member functions can only access static data members. This is because the static member function can’t work with the properties that change object to object. It is mandatory that only the common properties of all the objects be used. And only static data members are common to all as those are property of class. 11. A class can have self-referential data members. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The data members in a class can never refer to own class type. This is not possible because the data members should have some memory allocated for its object before the self-reference is used, but class must call constructor for that. Hence not possible. 12. What is the keyword used to make data members have same value? a) static b) const c) double d) abstract Answer: b Explanation: The keyword const can be used anywhere to make the variable have same value all the time. This restriction is made to use the same value whenever required. Also, this can restrict accidental changes.
13. Which data members can be inherited but are private to a class? a) Private b) Protected c) Protected and Static d) Privately inherited Answer: b Explanation: Static members inheritance also depends on the type of specifier they have. Only the protected members can be inherited but remain private to class. If static members are defined in private access, they won’t be allowed for inheritance. 14. The arguments passed to member functions by reference are considered as data members of class. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: This is a wrong statement. As only the data defined inside class is considered as its member. But even if a variable is passed by reference it would be the same variable that is outside the class. Hence it can’t be considered class member. 15. Which among the following is not allowed for data member declaration? a) int a; b) static int a; c) abstract a; d) Boolean a; Answer: c Explanation: The abstract keyword in the declaration of data members is not allowed. This is because the abstract keyword features can’t be used with the data members of the class. We can have all other syntax given, but not abstract.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Default Arguments”. 1. What are default arguments? a) Arguments which are not mandatory to be passed b) Arguments with default value that aren’t mandatory to be passed c) Arguments which are not passed to functions d) Arguments which always take same data value Answer: b Explanation: The arguments which are assigned with some default value. Since some value is already given, it is not mandatory to pass those arguments. They can be used directly. 2. Which is the correct condition for the default arguments? a) Those must be declared as last arguments in argument list b) Those must be declared first in the argument list c) Those can be defined anywhere in the argument list d) Those are declared inside the function definition Answer: a Explanation: The default arguments must be declared at last in the argument list. This is to ensure that the arguments doesn’t create ambiguity. The normal arguments should be passed first. 3. If a member function have to be made both zero argument and parameterized constructor, which among the following can be the best option? a) Two normal and one default argument b) At least one default argument c) Exactly one default argument d) Make all the arguments default Answer: d Explanation: All the arguments must be made default. This will make sure that none of the arguments are mandatory to be passed. Which in turn means that the function can work without any argument and can be passed with arguments too. 4. Which among the following function can be called without arguments? a) void add(int x, int y=0) b) void add(int=0) c) void add(int x=0, int y=0) d) void add(char c) Answer: c Explanation: For the function to be called without arguments, either it must have zero arguments or it must have all the default arguments. Here the function in option void add(int x=0, int y=0) have all the default arguments and hence can be called directly with zero argument. 5. If a function have all the default arguments but still some values are passed to the function then ______________ a) The function will use the values passed to it b) The function will use the default values as those are local c) The function can use any value whichever is higher d) The function will choose the minimum values Answer: a Explanation: The function will use the values passed explicitly to it. The default values will be ignored. The default values are used only in case the values are not passed explicitly to the function. 6. Which among the following is correct? a) void test(int x=0, int y, int z=0) b) void test(int x=0, int=0) c) void test(int x, int y=0) d) void test(int x=’c, int y) Answer: c Explanation: The default arguments must be mentioned at last in the argument list. Also, the type of values assigned must match with the argument type. All the default arguments must be mentioned at last, none of the normal arguments should come in between the default arguments list. 7. What function will be called with the independent syntax “test(5,6,7);”? a) void test(int x, int y) b) void test(int x=0, int y, int z) c) int test(int x=0, y=0, z=0) 
d) void test(int x, int y, int z=0) Answer: d Explanation: There are three arguments that are getting passed to the function test(). Only the last option have all the default argument at last in the argument list. And the total number of the arguments is three. The third option is wrong because the return type is int and the syntax given is independent which means it doesn’t return any value. 8. Which among the following is a wrong call to the function void test(int x, int y=0, int z=0)? a) test(5,6,7); b) test(5); c) test(); d) test(5,6); Answer: c Explanation: The function must be passed with at least one argument. There is two default arguments and one normal argument which must be passed with some value. Hence the third call to the function is wrong as it doesn’t pass even a single parameter to the function 9. Default arguments are _________________________ a) Only allowed in the parameter list of the function declaration b) Only allowed in the return type of the function declaration c) Only allowed with the class name definition d) Only allowed with the integer type values Answer: a Explanation: The default arguments are only allowed in the parameter list of the function arguments. This rule was not applicable in the beginning versions of c++ but later from c++ 14th version it has been implemented. This is the only way to use default arguments. 10. Which among the following is false for default arguments? a) Those are not allowed with a declaration of pointer to functions b) Those are not allowed with the reference to functions c) Those are not allowed with the typedef declarations d) Those are allowed with pointer and reference to function declaration Answer: d Explanation: The statements given are true because that is a feature given to make the programming more flexible and have some security with accidental changes at same time. The last option is false because it is not a rule defined. It is an opposite statement to the rules defined for default arguments. 11. The non-template functions can be added with default arguments to already declared functions ____________________ a) If and only if the function is declared again in the same scope b) If and only if the function is declared only once in the same scope c) If and only if the function is declared in different scope d) If and only if the function is declared twice in the program Answer: a Explanation: The non-template functions can also be added with default arguments. This can be done even if the functions were defined earlier. This is because the call to the function won’t be affected. The function can still be used in the same way as it was used earlier. 12. The using declaration __________ a) Doesn’t carry over the default values b) Carries over the known default arguments c) Carries over only the normal arguments d) Carries over only few default arguments Answer: b Explanation: The using-declaration carries over all the known default arguments. This is a common feature as the usage doesn’t gets affected even if the default arguments are added. This comes under flexible programming. 13. The names given to the default arguments are only looked up and ________________ and are bound during declaration. a) Checked for availability b) Checked for random access c) Checked for accessibility d) Checked for feasibility Answer: c Explanation: The names given to the default arguments are bound at time of declaration but are only checked for accessibility and to get bounded. This is mainly to bind those members during declaration.
14. The default argument get bound during declaration ________________ a) And are never executed b) And are executed simultaneously c) But are executed only if priority is given d) But are executed during function call Answer: d Explanation: The default argument are bound at the time of declaration. That is an implicit functioning. But those are executed only when the function is called. Otherwise, those will never get executed. 15. The virtual function overrides ____________ a) Do not acquire base class declaration of default arguments b) Do acquire base class declaration of default arguments c) Do not link with the default arguments of base class d) Do link with the default argument but only of derived classes Answer: a Explanation: The virtual function overrides do not acquire the base class declaration of default arguments. Even if a call to the virtual function is made, static type of the object decides the default arguments to be used.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Delete Operator”. 1. What is a delete operator? a) Deallocates a block of memory b) Deallocates whole program memory c) Deallocates only primitive data memory d) Deallocates all the data reserved for a class Answer: a Explanation: The delete operator is the reverse process of a new operator. It deallocates all the memory allocated for an object. The object can be of any type. The delete operator completely destroys an object so that the resources can be used for other purposes. 2. If an object is allocated using new operator ____________ a) It should be deleted using delete operator b) It can’t be deleted using delete operator c) It may or may not be deleted using delete operator d) The delete operator is not applicable Answer: a Explanation: The new operator allocates an object in memory and hence the memory allocation is bit different from usual allocation of an object. The delete operator can be used to delete the memory allocated for an object. 3. Does delete return any value? a) Yes, positive value b) Yes, negative value c) Yes, zero value d) No Answer: d Explanation: The delete operator doesn’t return any value. Its function is to delete the memory allocated for an object. This is done in reverse way as that new operator works. 4. Which type of value has resulted from the delete operator? a) void b) void pointer c) null pointer d) null Answer: a Explanation: The result of the delete operator is void. The values returned is of no use to the program or any other system function hence the return type is not defined for the delete operator. 5. If delete is used to delete an object which was not allocated using new _______________ a) Then out of memory error arises b) Then unreachable code error arises c) Then unpredictable errors may arise d) Then undefined variable error arises Answer: c Explanation: When the delete operator is used with the objects that were not allocated using new operator then unpredictable errors may arise. This is because the delete can’t perform the required actions on the type of memory allocated for the object. 6. Delete operator _________________ a) Can be used on pointers with null value b) Can be used on pointers with void value c) Can be used on pointer with value 0 d) Can be used on pointer with any value Answer: c Explanation: The delete operator can be used on pointers with the value 0. This actually means that when new operator fails and return value 0 then deleting the result of failed new remains harmless. Hence the deletion is possible. 7. When delete operator is used ___________________ (If object has a destructor) a) Object destructor is called after deallocation b) Object destructor is called before deallocation c) Object destructor is not used d) Object destructor can be called anytime during destruction Answer: b 
Explanation: The destructor is called before the memory is deallocated for any object. The destructor call initiates the destruction process and the deallocation of memory takes place. 8. If delete is applied to an object whose l-value is modifiable, then _______________ after the object is deleted. a) Its value is defined as null b) Its value is defined as void c) Its value is defined as 0 d) Its value is undefined Answer: d Explanation: After performing delete operation on an object whole l-value is modifiable, its values becomes undefined. This is done so as to denote that the memory space is available to be used for other purposes. 9. How many variants of delete operator are available? a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Only 3 d) Only 4 Answer: b Explanation: There are two variants of delete operator. One is for object deletion. Other is for deletion of object array. 10. Which is the correct syntax to delete a single object? a) delete *objectName; b) objectName delete; c) delete objectName; d) objectName *delete; Answer: c Explanation: The object to be deleted is mentioned after the keyword delete. This deletes the object from memory and free up the memory that was acquired by the object. 11. Which is the correct syntax to delete an array of objects? a) delete [] objectName; b) delete * objectName; c) objectName[] delete; d) delete objectName[]; Answer: a Explanation: The object array that has to be deleted is mentioned after the keyword delete. But after delete, empty square brackets have to be given to denote that the deletion have to be done on array of objects. 12. Which cases among the following produces the undefined result? a) delete [] on an independent object b) delete on an object array c) delete [] on an object and delete on object array d) Undefined result is never produced Answer: c Explanation: The undefined result is always produced when we try to use delete [] with a single object. Because the type of deletion mismatches. Same in case where we try to apply delete to an object array. 13. The delete operator __________________ a) Invokes function operator delete b) Invokes function defined by user to delete c) Invokes function defined in global scope to delete object d) Doesn’t invoke any function Answer: a Explanation: The delete operator invokes the function operator delete. This function in turn performs all the delete operations on the mentioned object. This is ensures safe deletion. 14. For objects that are not of class type ______________ a) Global delete operator is invoked b) Local delete operator is invoked c) Global user defined function is invoked d) Local function to delete object is called Answer: a Explanation: The global delete operator is called to delete the objects that are not of class type. Class type includes class, union or struct. All objects of these types can be deleted using the global delete operator.
15. The delete operator __________________________ a) Can be defined for each class b) Can’t be defined for each class c) Can be defined globally only d) Can’t be defined in a program explicitly Answer: a Explanation: The delete operator can be defined for each class explicitly. If there is a class for which delete is not defined then the global delete operator is used. The definition of delete operator for each class is not necessary.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Derived Class”. 1. Which among the following is best definition of a derived class? a) A child class b) A class which inherits one or more classes c) A class with keyword derived d) A class with more than one constructor Answer: b Explanation: Any class which inherits one or more classes is a derived class. The only condition is it must inherit at least one class in order to be called as a derived class. 2. Which among the following is inherited by a derived class from base class? a) Data members only b) Member functions only c) All the members except private members d) All the members of base class Answer: c Explanation: The class inheriting another class, inherits all the data members and member functions that are not private. This is done to ensure the security features with maximum flexibility. 3. If there is a derived class in a program, how many classes must be in that program? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b Explanation: If there is a derived class in a program, there must be at least 2 classes in that program. One is a base class and another derived class. Hence at least 2 classes must be there. 4. Which members can never be accessed in derived class from the base class? a) Private b) Protected c) Public d) All except private Answer: d Explanation: There is no restriction for a derived class to access the members of the base class until and unless the members are private. Private member are declared so that those members are not accessible outside the class. 5. How many types of inheritance are supported in C++ for deriving a class? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Explanation: There are three types of inheritance possible. Private inheritance, protected inheritance, and public inheritance. The inheritance defines the access specifier to be used with the inherited members in the derived class. 6. How many derived class can a single base class have? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) As many are required Answer: d Explanation: There is no restriction on how many classes can inherit a single base class. Hence there can be as many derived classes as required in a program from a single base class. 7. Which among the following is correct? a) Friend function of derived class can access non-private members of base class b) Friend function of base class can access derived class members c) Friend function of derived class can access members of only derived class d) Friend function can access private members of base class of a derived class Answer: a Explanation: The friend function of a class can access the non-private members of base class. The reason behind is that the
members of base class gets derived into the derived class and hence become members of derived class too. Hence a friend function can access all of those. 8. If a class is being derived using more than two base classes, which inheritance will be used? a) Single b) Multi-level c) Hierarchical d) Multiple Answer: d Explanation: The statement given is the definition of multiple inheritance with respect to the derived class. The concept can be illustrated with many other samples but the main aspects are base class and derived class only. 9. Derived class is also known as ______________ class. a) Subclass b) Small class c) Big class d) Noticeable class Answer: a Explanation: It is just another name given to the derived classes. This is used while denoting all the derived classes subsequent to a superclass. 10. If class A is derived from another derived class B which is derived from class C, which class will have maximum level of abstraction? a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) All have the same level of abstraction Answer: c Explanation: The abstraction level of class C will be maximum. This is because the parent class have higher level of abstraction. Hence the parent of all other class will have maximum level of abstraction. 11. If base class is an abstract class then derived class ______________ the undefined functions. a) Must define b) Must become another abstract class or define c) Must become parent class for d) Must implement 2 definitions of Answer: b Explanation: The function must be defined in the program which are not defined in the base class. Hence the class must be defined as abstract of implement the function definition in it. 12. How many classes can be derived from a derived class? a) Only 1 b) At most 1 c) At least 1 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: When a class is to be derived from another derived class, the derived class behaves as a normal base class hence there are no restriction on how many class can be derived from a derived class. The derived class again behaves as a normal superclass. 13. The members of a derived class can never be derived. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: This is not true that the members of a derived class can’t be derived. All the classes are considered to be a normal class when used for derivation. The members can be derived with respect to their access specifiers. 14. Which feature is not related to the derived classes among the following? a) Inheritance b) Encapsulation c) Run time memory management d) Compile time function references Answer: c Explanation: The memory management is the feature that is not necessary for derived classes that will be a part of whole
program. The functions references must be resolved for their proper use if inheritance is used. 15. Deriving a class in such a way that that the base class members are not available for further inheritance is known as ___________________ a) Public inheritance b) Protected inheritance c) Protected or private inheritance d) Private inheritance Answer: d Explanation: The private members of a class can never be derived to another class. When a class derives another class using private inheritance, all the members become private members of the derived class. Hence these member won’t be available for further inheritance.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on ” Destructors”. 1. Which among the following describes a destructor? a) A special function that is called to free the resources, acquired by the object b) A special function that is called to delete the class c) A special function that is called anytime to delete an object d) A special function that is called to delete all the objects of a class Answer: a Explanation: It is used to free the resources that the object might had used in its lifespan. The destructors are called implicitly whenever an object’s life ends. 2. When a destructor is called? a) After the end of object life b) Anytime in between object’s lifespan c) At end of whole program d) Just before the end of object life Answer: d Explanation: The destructor is called just before the object go out of scope or just before its life ends. This is done to ensure that all the resources reserved for the object are used and at last, are made free for others. 3. Which among the following is correct for abstract class destructors? a) It doesn’t have destructors b) It has destructors c) It may or may not have destructors d) It contains an implicit destructor Answer: a Explanation: It doesn’t have destructors. Since an abstract class don’t have constructors, and hence can’t have instances. Having this case, the abstract classes don’t have destructors too, because that would be of no use here. 4. If in multiple inheritance, class C inherits class B, and Class B inherits class A. In which sequence are their destructors called if an object of class C was declared? a) ~C() then ~B() then ~A() b) ~B() then ~C() then ~A() c) ~A() then ~B() then ~C() d) ~C() then ~A() then ~B() Answer: a Explanation: The destructors are always called in the reverse order of how the constructors were called. Here class A constructor would have been created first if Class C object is declared. Hence class A destructor is called at last. 5. Choose the correct sequence of destructors being called for the following code. class A{   }; class B{   }; class C: public A, public B{   }; a) ~A(), ~B(), ~C() b) ~B(), ~C(), ~A() c) ~A(), ~C(), ~B() d) ~C(), ~B(), ~A() Answer: d Explanation: In multiple inheritance, the constructors are called in the sequence of how they are written in inheritance sequence. And the destructors will be called in the reverse order. This can be cross verified just by printing a message from each destructor defined in classes. 6. When is the destructor of a global object called? a) Just before end of program b) Just after end of program c) With the end of program d) Anytime when object is not needed Answer: a Explanation: This is because the lifespan of global object is from start of the program, till the end of the program. And hence program end is the end of global object too. Just before the end of program, the destructor will be called to free the acquired resources by the objects.
7. How the constructors and destructors can be differentiated? a) Destructor have a return type but constructor doesn’t b) Destructors can’t be defined by the programmer, but constructors can be defined c) Destructors are preceded with a tilde (~) symbol, and constructor doesn’t d) Destructors are same as constructors in syntax Answer: c Explanation: The destructors are preceded with the tilde (~) symbol. The name is same as that of the class. These also doesn’t have any return type. 8. Destructors doesn’t accept parameters. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The destructors doesn’t accept the arguments. Those are just used to free up the resources. 9. Destructors can be ________ a) Abstract type b) Virtual c) Void d) Any type depending on situation Answer: b Explanation: The destructors can be virtual. It is actually advised to keep the destructors virtual always. This is done to suppress the problems that may arise if inheritance is involved. 10. Global destructors execute in ___________ order after main function is terminated. a) Sequential b) Random c) Reverse d) Depending on priority Answer: c Explanation: The destructors are always called in reverse order no matter which destructor it is. This is done to ensure that all the resources are able to get free. And no resource is kept busy. 11. When is it advised to have user defined destructor? a) When class contains some pointer to memory allocated in class b) When a class contains static variables c) When a class contains static functions d) When a class is inheriting another class only Answer: a Explanation: This is always advised to have user defined destructor when pointers are involved in class. This is usually done to ensure that the memory, that was allocated dynamically, gets free after use and doesn’t cause memory leak. 12. Which among the following is correct for the destructors concept? a) Destructors can be overloaded b) Destructors can have only one parameter at maximum c) Destructors are always called after object goes out of scope d) There can be only one destructor in a class Answer: d Explanation: This is so because the destructors can’t be overloaded. And the destructor must have the same name as that of class with a tilde symbol preceding the name of the destructor. Hence there can be only one destructor in a class. Since more than one function with same name and signature can’t be present in same scope. 13. Which class destructor will be called first, when following code go out of scope? class A{  }; class B{  }; class C: public B{  }; A a; B b; C c; a) ~A() b) ~B() c) ~C() d) ~B() and ~C() 
Answer: c Explanation: The constructor that would have created at last, its destructor will be called first when the code goes out of scope. This will help the program to manage the resources more efficiently. 14. When an object is passed to a function, its copy is made in the function and then ______________ a) The destructor of the copy is called when function is returned b) The destructor is never called in this case c) The destructor is called but it is always implicit d) The destructor must be user defined Answer: a Explanation: When an object is passed to a function, its copy is made in the function. This copy acts as a real object till the function is live. When the function is returned, the copy’s destructor is called to free the resources held by it. 15. What happens when an object is passed by reference? a) Destructor is not called b) Destructor is called at end of function c) Destructor is called when function is out of scope d) Destructor is called when called explicitly Answer: a Explanation: The destructor is never called in this situation. The concept is that when an object is passed by reference to the function, the constructor is not called, but only the main object will be used. Hence no destructor will be called at end of function.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Downcasting”. 1. What is downcasting? a) Casting subtype to supertype b) Casting supertype to subtype c) Casting subtype to supertype and vice versa d) Casting anytype to any other type Answer: b Explanation: The downcasting concept includes only the casting of supertypes to the sub types. This casting is generally done explicitly. Larger size types are made to fit into small size types explicitly. 2. Which among the following is a mandatory condition for downcasting? a) It must not be done explicitly b) It must be done implicitly c) It must be done explicitly d) It can’t be done explicitly Answer: c Explanation: The downcasting of any object must be done explicitly. This is because the compilers don’t support the implicit conversion of a supertype to subtype. 3. Downcasting is _______________________ a) Always safe b) Never safe c) Safe sometimes d) Safe, depending on code Answer: b Explanation: The downcasting concept is made for exception cases. When there is a need to represent an entity in the form which is not suitable for it. Representing a base type in derived type is not right but can be done for special cases. 4. Downcasting ____________________ a) Can result in unexpected results b) Can’t result in unexpected result c) Can result only in out of memory error d) Can’t result in any error Answer: a Explanation: The result of downcasting can be unexpected. This is because downcasting is done on the objects into the objects which doesn’t contain any information of data in lateral object. 5. What should be used for safe downcast? a) Static cast b) Dynamic cast c) Manual cast d) Implicit cast Answer: b Explanation: The dynamic cast can be done using the operator dynamic_cast. This converts one type to another type in a safe way. 6. What does dynamic_cast return after successful type casting? a) Address of object which is converted b) Address of object that is used for conversion c) Address of object that is mentioned in the syntax d) Doesn’t return any address Answer: a Explanation: The address of the object which is converted is returned by the dynamic_cast operator. This is done to safely convert the subtype to supertype. This ensures the proper assignment and conversion from one type to another. 7. If dynamic_cast fails, which value is returned? a) void b) null c) void pointer d) null pointer Answer: d Explanation: The null pointer is returned by the dynamic_cast, if it fails. The conversion sometimes fails because of too complex
type conversion. The conversion may also fail due to memory or some related issues. 8. Which is the proper syntax of dynamic_cast? a) dynamic_cast(object) b) dynamic_cast new (object) c) dynamic_cast (object) d) dynamic_cast(object) Answer: c Explanation: The dynamic_cast is the name of the operator, which is followed by the new type in which the object have to be converted. Then the object name is given. This object name is then used after the type conversion. 9. Which is the exception handler for the exceptions of downcasting? a) CastException b) ClassCastingExeption c) ClassCasting d) ClassCastException Answer: d Explanation: The exception handler for the exceptions produced during the downcasting exception. This handler can be called during runtime to handle any exception thrown. 10. How to prevent the ClassCastExceptions? a) By using instanceof b) By using is-a check c) By using arrow operator with check function d) By checking type of conversion Answer: a Explanation: The instanceof operator can be used to check the compatibility of the conversion. This has to be done to check whether the casting would be safe or not. 11. Java supports direct downcasting. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The downcasting is not possible in java directly. This has to be done explicitly. The downcasting is not safe but can be checked for safe casting using instanceof function. 12. Which way the downcasting is possible with respect to inheritance? a) Upward the inheritance order b) Downward the inheritance order c) Either upward or downward the inheritance order d) Order of inheritance doesn’t matter Answer: b Explanation: The downcasting is always downward the inheritance order. Since the base class object have to be casted into derived class type. This is a basic definition of downcasting. 13. What happens when downcasting is done but not explicitly defined in syntax? a) Compile time error b) Runtime error c) Code write time error d) Conversion error Answer: a Explanation: The implicit downcasting is not possible. If tried, the compiler produces an error. Since the compiler doesn’t allow coasting to a type that is not compatible. 14. When is the downcasting used? a) To separate inherited class from base class b) To write a more complex code c) To compare two objects d) To disable one class in inheritance Answer: c Explanation: The downcasting can be used whenever there is a need to compare one object to another. Equals() function can be used to compare whether the objects were of same age. We can use getClass() function too. 15. Why is downcasting possible in any language? 
a) Because inheritance follows has-a relationship b) Because inheritance follows is-a relationship c) Because inheritance doesn’t follow any relationship d) Because inheritance is not involved in casting Answer: b Explanation: The downcasting is possible because the classes in inheritance follow is-a relationship. Hence the derived class is a base class. Which in turn make the downcasting possible.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Encapsulation”. 1. Which among the following best describes encapsulation? a) It is a way of combining various data members into a single unit b) It is a way of combining various member functions into a single unit c) It is a way of combining various data members and member functions into a single unit which can operate on any data d) It is a way of combining various data members and member functions that operate on those data members into a single unit Answer: d Explanation: It is a way of combining both data members and member functions, which operate on those data members, into a single unit. We call it a class in OOP generally. This feature have helped us modify the structures used in C language to be upgraded into class in C++ and other languages. 2. If data members are private, what can we do to access them from the class object? a) Create public member functions to access those data members b) Create private member functions to access those data members c) Create protected member functions to access those data members d) Private data members can never be accessed from outside the class Answer: a Explanation: We can define public member functions to access those private data members and get their value for use or alteration. They can’t be accessed directly but is possible to be access using member functions. This is done to ensure that the private data doesn’t get modified accidentally. 3. While using encapsulation, which among the following is possible? a) Code modification can be additional overhead b) Data member’s data type can be changed without changing any other code c) Data member’s type can’t be changed, or whole code have to be changed d) Member functions can be used to change the data type of data members Answer: b Explanation: Data member’s data type can be changed without changing any further code. All the members using that data can continue in the same way without any modification. Member functions can never change the data type of same class data members. 4. Which feature can be implemented using encapsulation? a) Inheritance b) Abstraction c) Polymorphism d) Overloading Answer: b Explanation: Data abstraction can be achieved by using encapsulation. We can hide the operation and structure of actual program from the user and can show only required information by the user. 5. Find which of the following uses encapsulation? a) void main(){ int a; void fun( int a=10; cout<<a); fun(); } b) class student{ int a; public: int b;}; c) class student{int a; public: void disp(){ cout<<a;} }; d) struct topper{ char name[10]; public : int marks; } Answer: c Explanation: It is the class which uses both the data members and member functions being declared inside a single unit. Only data members can be there in structures also. And the encapsulation can only be illustrated if some data/operations are associated within class. 6. Encapsulation helps in writing ___________ classes in java. a) Mutable b) Abstract c) Wrapper d) Immutable Answer: d Explanation: Immutable classes are used for caching purpose generally. And it can be created by making the class as final and making all its members private. 7. Which among the following should be encapsulated? a) The data which is prone to change is near future b) The data prone to change in long terms 
c) The data which is intended to be changed d) The data which belongs to some other class Answer: a Explanation: The data prone to change in near future is usually encapsulated so that it doesn’t get changed accidentally. We encapsulate the data to hide the critical working of program from outside world. 8. How can Encapsulation be achieved? a) Using Access Specifiers b) Using only private members c) Using inheritance d) Using Abstraction Answer: a Explanation: Using access specifiers we can achieve encapsulation. Using this we can in turn implement data abstraction. It’s not necessary that we only use private access. 9. Which among the following violates the principle of encapsulation almost always? a) Local variables b) Global variables c) Public variables d) Array variables Answer: b Explanation: Global variables almost always violates the principles of encapsulation. Encapsulation says the data should be accessed only by required set of elements. But global variable is accessible everywhere, also it is most prone to changes. It doesn’t hide the internal working of program. 10. Which among the following would destroy the encapsulation mechanism if it was allowed in programming? a) Using access declaration for private members of base class b) Using access declaration for public members of base class c) Using access declaration for local variable of main() function d) Using access declaration for global variables Answer: a Explanation: If using access declaration for private members of base class was allowed in programming, it would have destroyed whole concept of encapsulation. As if it was possible, any class which gets inherited privately, would have been able to inherit the private members of base class, and hence could access each and every member of base class. 11. Which among the following can be a concept against encapsulation rules? a) Using function pointers b) Using char* string pointer to be passed to non-member function c) Using object array d) Using any kind of pointer/array address in passing to another function Answer: d Explanation: If we use any kind of array or pointer as data member which should not be changed, but in some case its address is passed to some other function or similar variable. There are chances to modify its whole data easily. Hence Against encapsulation. 12. Consider the following code and select the correct option. class student {       int marks;     public : int* fun()     {           return &marks;      } }; main() {    student s;    int *ptr=c.fun();    return 0; } a) This code is good to go b) This code may result in undesirable conditions c) This code will generate error 
d) This code violates encapsulation Answer: d Explanation: This code violates the encapsulation. By this code we can get the address of the private member of the class, hence we can change the value of private member, which is against the rules. 13. Consider the code and select the wrong choice. class hero {      char name[10];     public : void disp()     {           cout<<name;     } }; a) This maintains encapsulation b) This code doesn’t maintain encapsulation c) This code is vulnerable d) This code gives error Answer: a Explanation: This code maintains encapsulation. Here the private member is kept private. Outside code can’t access the private members of class. Only objects of this class will be able to access the public member function at maximum. 14. Encapsulation is the way to add functions in a user defined structure. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: False, because we can’t call these structures if member functions are involved, it must be called class. Also, it is not just about adding functions, it’s about binding data and functions together. 15. Using encapsulation data security is ___________ a) Not ensured b) Ensured to some extent c) Purely ensured d) Very low Answer: b Explanation: The encapsulation can only ensure data security to some extent. If pointer and addresses are misused, it may violate encapsulation. Use of global variables also makes the program vulnerable, hence we can’t say that encapsulation gives pure security.
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Questions and Answers for Entrance exams focuses on “Virtual Functions”. 1. Virtual function is ______ class function which expected to be redefined in ______ class, so that when reference is made to derived class object using pointer then we can call virtual function to execute ________ class definition version. a) Base, derived, derived b) Derived, Derived, Derived c) Base, derived, base d) Base, base, derived Answer: a Explanation: The functions which may give rise to ambiguity due to inheritance, can be declared virtual. So that whenever derived class object is referred using pointer or reference to the base class methods, we can still call the derived class methods using virtual function. Hence this differentiates those methods from each other. 2. What does a virtual function ensure for an object, among the following? a) Correct method is called, regardless of the class defining it b) Correct method is called, regardless of the object being called c) Correct method is called, regardless of the type of reference used for function call d) Correct method is called, regardless of the type of function being called by objects Answer: c Explanation: It is property of the virtual function and one of their main use. Its use ensure that the correct method is called even though it is been called from different pointer or references. This also decreases chance of mistakes in program. 3. Virtual functions are mainly used to achieve _____________ a) Compile time polymorphism b) Interpreter polymorphism c) Runtime polymorphism d) Functions code polymorphism Answer: c Explanation: It is used to achieve runtime polymorphism. The functions which are inherited and overridden, so at runtime the correct function is executed. The correct function call is made from the intended class. 4. Which keyword is used to declare virtual functions? a) virtual b) virt c) anonymous d) virtually Answer: a Explanation: The virtual keyword is used to declare virtual functions. Anonymous keyword is used with classes and have a different meaning. The virtual functions are used to call the intended function of the derived class. 5. Where the virtual function should be defined? a) Twice in base class b) Derived class c) Base class and derived class d) Base class Answer: d Explanation: The virtual function should be declared in base class. So that when the derived class inherits from the base class, the functions can be differentiated from the one in base class and another in derived class. 6. The resolving of virtual functions is done at ______________ a) Compile time b) Interpret time c) Runtime d) Writing source code Answer: c Explanation: The resolving of virtual functions that are to be called is done at run time. The base class and the derived classes may contain different definitions and different variables, so all these things are resolved at run time and decided which function is to be called. 7. In which access specifier should a virtual function be defined? a) Private b) Public c) Protected d) Default 
Answer: b Explanation: The virtual functions must be defined in public section of a class. This is to ensure that the virtual function is available everywhere in the program. Also to avoid any error while resolving the method. 8. Virtual functions can never be made _______________ a) Static function b) Parameterized function c) Default argument function d) Zero parameter function Answer: a Explanation: The virtual function must not be static. Those functions are the property of individual objects and not of a class as a whole. The functions should not be made common for all the objects of that class. 9. Virtual functions can’t be made friend function of other classes. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The friend functions can access the private members also. This may hinder the security of class members. This is why the functions should not be made friend functions of other class. 10. Which is a must condition for virtual function to achieve runtime polymorphism? a) Virtual function must be accessed with direct name b) Virtual functions must be accessed using base class object c) Virtual function must be accessed using pointer or reference d) Virtual function must be accessed using derived class object only Answer: c Explanation: The virtual functions must be called using pointer or reference. This is mandatory so that the intended function gets executed while resolving the method at runtime. The must not be any ambiguity between the method of parent class and derived class. 11. Which among the following is true for virtual functions? a) Prototype must be different in base and derived class b) Prototype must be same in base class and derived class c) Prototype must be given only in base class d) Prototype must have different signature in base and derived class Answer: b Explanation: The prototype must be the same. Because the function is to be overridden in the derived class. If the function prototype is different in derived class then it will not override the base class function and hence virtual function concept won’t work here. 12. The virtual functions must be declared and defined in _____________ class and overridden in ___________ class. a) Base, base b) Derived, derived c) Derived, base d) Base, derived Answer: d Explanation: The virtual functions must be declared and defined in base class. The functions can be redefined in derived class. If redefined in derived class then it overrides the base class function definition. 13. It is __________ to redefine the virtual function in derived class. a) Necessary b) Not necessary c) Not acceptable d) Good practice Answer: b Explanation: It is not necessary to redefine the virtual function in the derived class. If not defined, the base class function definition is used but if defined, the intended definition is used according to need. It is not about good coding practice as it should be redefined only if needed. 14. Which among the following is true? a) A class may have virtual destructor but not virtual constructor b) A class may have virtual constructor but not virtual destructor c) A class may have virtual constructor and virtual constructor d) A class may have either virtual destructor or virtual constructor 
Answer: a Explanation: Any class can contain virtual destructor. But is not possible to define a virtual constructor. The reason behind is that the destructors can be overridden but constructors should not be. 15. If virtual function of base class is redefined in derived class then ________________ a) It must be declared virtual in derived class also b) It may or may not be declared virtual in derived class c) It can must not be declared virtual in derived class d) It must be declared normally in derived class Answer: b Explanation: The virtual functions may or may not be declared virtual in derived class. This is because if the overriding function defined in derived class is not declared virtual explicitly, the compiler makes it virtual implicitly.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Exception Handling”. 1. What is an exception? a) Problem arising during compile time b) Problem arising during runtime c) Problem in syntax d) Problem in IDE Answer: b Explanation: The problems that might occur during execution of a program are known as exceptions. The exceptions are unexpected sometimes and can be predicted. Also, the exceptions should be always considered for a better program. 2. Why do we need to handle exceptions? a) To prevent abnormal termination of program b) To encourage exception prone program c) To avoid syntax errors d) To save memory Answer: a Explanation: The exceptions should be handled to prevent any abnormal termination of a program. The program should keep running even if it gets interrupted in between. The program should preferable show the error occurred and then retry the process or just continue the program further. 3. An exception may arise when _______________ a) Input is fixed b) Input is some constant value of program c) Input given is invalid d) Input is valid Answer: c Explanation: The exceptions may arise because the input given by the user might not be of the same type that a program can manage. If the input is invalid the program gets terminated. 4. If a file that needs to be opened is not found in the target location then _____________ a) Exception will be produced b) Exceptions are not produced c) Exception might get produced because of syntax d) Exceptions are not produced because of logic Answer: a Explanation: The exceptions are produced when anything unexpected happened. The program might not be able to find a file in the target location and hence program produces an exceptions. The exception produced, then terminates the program. 5. Which is the universal exception handler class? a) Object b) Math c) Errors d) Exceptions Answer: d Explanation: Any type of exception can be handled by using class Exceptions. An object of this class is created which can manipulate the exception data. The data can be used to display the error or to run the program further based on error produced. 6. What are two exception classes in hierarchy of java exceptions class? a) Runtime exceptions only b) Compile time exceptions only c) Runtime exceptions and other exceptions d) Other exceptions Answer: c Explanation: The exceptions class is having two other derived classes which are of runtime exception handler and for other type of exceptions handling. The runtime exception handler is used to handle the exceptions produced during run time and same with case of other exceptions. 7. Which are the two blocks that are used to check error and handle the error? a) Try and catch b) Trying and catching c) Do and while d) TryDo and Check 
Answer: a Explanation: Two blocks that are used to check for errors and to handle the errors are try and catch block. The code which might produce some exceptions is placed inside the try block and then the catch block is written to catch the error that is produced. The error message or any other processing can be done in catch block if the error is produced. 8. There can be a try block without catch block but vice versa is not possible. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The try block may or may not have any catch block. But a catch block can’t be there in a program if there is no try block. It is like else-block can only be written if and only if if-block is present in the program. 9. How many catch blocks can a single try block can have? a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Maximum 127 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: There is no limit on the number of catch blocks corresponding to a try block. This is because the error can be of any type and for each type, a new catch block can be defined. This is to make sure all type of exceptions can be handled. 10. Which among the following is not a method of Throwable class? a) public String getMessage() b) public Throwable getCause() c) public Char toString() d) public void printStackTrace() Answer: c Explanation: Actually all the functions are available in throwable class. But the return type given in the option is wrong. The function toString returns string value. Hence the return type must be a String and not a char. 11. To catch the exceptions ___________________ a) An object must be created to catch the exception b) A variable should be created to catch the exception c) An array should be created to catch all the exceptions d) A string have to be created to store the exception Answer: a Explanation: The object must be created of a specific class of which the error has occurred. If the type of error is unknown then we can use an object of class Exceptions. This object will be able to handle any kind of exception that a program might produce. 12. Multiple catch blocks __________________ a) Are mandatory for each try block b) Can be combined into a single catch block c) Are not possible for a try block d) Can never be associated with a single try block Answer: b Explanation: The separate catch blocks for a single try block can be combined into a single catch block. All type of errors can be then handled in s single block. The type still have to be specified for the errors that might be produced. 13. Which symbol should be used to separate the type of exception handler classes in a single catch block? a) ? b) , c) – d) | Answer: d Explanation: A pipe symbol can be used to separate different type of exceptions. The exceptions should always be given in proper sequence to ensure that no code remains unreachable. If not done properly the code might never be used in a program. 14. Which class is used to handle the input and output exceptions? a) InputOutput b) InputOutputExceptions c) IOExceptions d) ExceptionsIO Answer: c Explanation: There is a specific class to handle each type of exceptions that might be produced in a program. The input and
output exceptions can be handled by an object of class IOExcceptions. This class handles all type of input and output exceptions. 15. Why do we use finally block? a) To execute the block if exception occurred b) To execute a code when exception is not occurred c) To execute a code whenever required d) To execute a code with each and every run of program Answer: d Explanation: Sometimes there is a need to execute a set of code every time the program runs. Even if the exception occurs and even if it doesn’t, there can be some code that must be executed at end of the program. That code is written in finally block. This block is always executed regardless of exceptions occurring.
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Questions and Answers for Experienced people focuses on “Execution of Constructor or Destructor”. 1. Which among the following best describes the constructors? a) A function which is called whenever an object is referenced b) A function which is called whenever an object is created to initialize the members c) A function which is called whenever an object is assigned to copy the values d) A function which is called whenever an object is to be given values for members Answer: b Explanation: The constructors are special type of functions which are called whenever an object is created. This is to initialize the data members of the class. The constructor allocates memory space for all the data members. 2. Which among the following best describes destructor? a) A function which is called just before the objects are destroyed b) A function which is called after each reference to the object c) A function which is called after termination of the program d) A function which is called before calling any member function Answer: a Explanation: The Destructors are special functions which are called just before an object is destroyed. This functions is responsible to free all the allocated resources to the object. Objects are destroyed whenever those go out of scope. 3. Which among the following represents correct constructor? a) ()classname b) ~classname() c) –classname() d) classname() Answer: d Explanation: The constructors must contain only the class name. The class name is followed by the blank parenthesis or we can have parameters if some values are to be passed. 4. Which among the following is correct syntax for the destructors? a) classname() b) ()classname c) ~classname() d) -classname() Answer: c Explanation: The destructor must have same name as that of the corresponding class. The class name should be preceded by the tilde symbol (~). 5. Which among the following is true? a) First the constructor of parent classes are called in sequence of inheritance b) First the constructor of child classes are called in the sequence of inheritance c) First constructor called is of the object being created d) Constructors are called randomly Answer: a Explanation: First the constructor of parent class are called. The order in which the parent class constructors are called is same in the sequence of inheritance used. 6. What is the sequence of destructors call? a) Same order as that of the constructors call b) Random order c) According to the priority d) Revere of the order of constructor call Answer: d Explanation: The destructors are called in the reverse order as that of the constructors being called. This is done to ensure that all the resources are released in sequence. That is, the derived class destructors will be called first. 7. The destructors _____________________ a) Can have maximum one argument b) Can’t have any argument c) Can have more than one argument d) Can’t have more than 3 arguments Answer: b Explanation: The destructors doesn’t have any arguments. The destructors have to be called implicitly whenever an object goes
out of scope. The user can’t pass argument to the implicit call. 8. Destructor calls ________________ (C++) a) Are only implicit b) Are only explicit c) Can be implicit or explicit d) Are made at end of program only Answer: c Explanation: The destructors are usually called implicitly whenever an object goes out of scope. The destructors can also be called explicitly if required. The call must be made, implicitly or explicitly. 9. Number of destructors called are ____________ a) Always equal to number of constructors called b) Always less than the number of constructors called c) Always greater than the number of constructors called d) Always less than or equal to number of constructors Answer: a Explanation: Destructor will be called only to free the resources allocated for an object. The resources are allocated only the constructor for an object is called. 10. For explicit call _________________ a) The destructor must be private b) The destructor must be public c) The destructor must be protected d) The destructor must be defined outside the class Answer: b Explanation: The destructor must be public for explicit calls. If it is made private or protected then it won’t be accessible outside the class. There is no restriction of definition the destructor outside the class. 11. If a class have 4 constructors then it must have 4 destructors also. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: Even if the class have 4 constructors, only one would be used. And only one destructor is allowed. 12. Which among the following is true for destructors? a) Destructors can be overloaded b) Destructors can be define more than one time c) Destructors can’t be overloaded d) Destructors are overloaded in derived classes Answer: c Explanation: The destructors can never be overloaded. The destructors doesn’t have arguments. And to get overloaded, they must have different signature. This is not possible if arguments are not allowed. 13. The constructor _____________ a) Have a return type b) May have a return type c) Of derived classes have return type d) Doesn’t have a return type Answer: d Explanation: The constructors doesn’t have any return type. The constructors are intended to allocate the resources for the object. Memory spaces are to be finalized. 14. The destructors ____________ a) Have a return type b) May have a return type c) Of derived classes have return type d) Doesn’t have a return type Answer: d Explanation: The destructors are intended to free the memory space. And all the resources that were allocated for the object. The return value is not supported since only memory has to be made free. 15. The destructor can be called before the constructor if required. a) True 
b) False Answer: b Explanation: The destructors can be called only after the constructor calls. It is not a mandatory rule but the deletion can only take place if there is something created using the constructor.
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Questions and Answers for Freshers focuses on “Overloading Member Functions”. 1. What does memory allocation for objects mean? a) Actual creation and memory allocation for object members b) Creation of member functions c) Creation of data members for a class d) Actual creation and data declaration for object members Answer: a Explanation: The memory allocated for the object members indicates actual creation of the object members. This is known as memory allocation for object. 2. Where is the memory allocated for the objects? a) HDD b) Cache c) RAM d) ROM Answer: c Explanation: The memory for the objects or any other data is allocated in RAM initially. This is while we run a program all the memory allocation takes place in some RAM segments. Arrays in heap and local members in stack etc. 3. When is the memory allocated for an object? a) At declaration of object b) At compile time c) When object constructor is called d) When object is initialized to another object Answer: c Explanation: The object memory allocation takes place when the object constructor is called. Declaration of an object doesn’t mean that memory is allocated for its members. If object is initialized with another object, it may just get a reference to the previously created object. 4. Using new is type safe as _______________________ a) It require to be specified with type of data b) It doesn’t require to be specified with type of data c) It requires the name of data d) It allocated memory for the data Answer: b Explanation: The new is type safe because we don’t have to specify the type of data that have to be allocated with memory. We can directly use it with data name. Name of the data doesn’t matter though for type of memory allocation though. 5. Which of the following function can be used for dynamic memory allocation of objects? a) malloc() b) calloc() c) create() d) both malloc() and calloc() Answer: d Explanation: The malloc() function can be used to allocate dynamic memory for objects. Function calloc() can also be use. These functions differ in the way they allocate memory for objects. 6. How much memory will be allocated for an object of class given below? class Test{ int mark1; int mark2; float avg; char name[10]; }; a) 22 Bytes b) 24 Bytes c) 20 Bytes d) 18 Bytes Answer: a Explanation: The size of an object of the class given in question will be of size 22 bytes. This is because the size of an object is always equal to the sum of sizes of the data members of the class, except static members.
7. Which keyword among the following can be used to declare an array of objects in java? a) new b) create c) allocate d) arr Answer: a Explanation: The keyword new can be used to declare an array of objects in java. The syntax must be specified with an object pointer which is assigned with a memory space containing the required number of object space. Even initialization can be done directly. 8. When is the memory allocated for an object gets free? a) At termination of program b) When object goes out of scope c) When main function ends d) When system restarts Answer: b Explanation: Whenever an object goes out of scope, the deletion of allocation memory takes place. Actually the data is not deleted, instead the memory space is flagged to be free for further use. Hence whenever an object goes out of scope the object members become useless and hence memory is set free. 9. Which among the following keyword can be used to free the allocated memory for an object? a) delete b) free c) either delete or free d) only delete Answer: c Explanation: The memory allocated for an object is usually automatically made free. But if explicitly memory has to be made free then we can use either free or delete keywords depending on programming languages. 10. Which function is called whenever an object goes out of scope? a) Destructor function b) Constructor function c) Delete function d) Free function Answer: a Explanation: The destructor function of the class is called whenever an object goes out of scope. This is because the destructor set all the resources, acquired by the object, free. This is an implicit work of compiler. 11. Which operator can be used to check the size of an object? a) sizeof(objectName) b) size(objectName) c) sizeofobject(objectName) d) sizedobject(objectName) Answer: a Explanation: The sizeof operator is used to get the size of an already created object. This operator must constail keyword sizeof(objectName). The output will give the number of bytes acquired by a single object of some class. 12. The memory allocated for an object ____________________ a) Can be only dynamic b) Can be only static c) Can be static or dynamic d) Can’t be done using dynamic functions Answer: c Explanation: The memory allocation for an object can be static or dynamic. The static memory allocation is when an object is declared directly without using any function usually. And dynamic allocation is when we use some dynamic allocation function to allocate memory for data member of an object. 13. If an object is declared in a user defined function __________________ a) Its memory is allocated in stack b) Its memory is allocated in heap c) Its memory is allocated in HDD d) Its memory is allocated in cache Answer: a 
Explanation: The memory for any data or object that are used in a user defined function are always allocated in the stack. This is to ensure that the object is destroyed as soon as the function is returned. Also this ensures that the correct memory allocation and destruction is performed. 14. In java ______________ takes care of managing memory for objects dynamically. a) Free collector b) Dust collector c) Memory manager d) Garbage collector Answer: d Explanation: The garbage collector in java takes care of the memory allocations and their deletions dynamically. When an object is no more required then the garbage collector deletes the object and free up all the resources that were held by that object. 15. Which operator can be used to free the memory allocated for an object in C++? a) Free() b) delete c) Unallocate d) Collect Answer: b Explanation: The delete operator in C++ can be used to free the memory and resources held by an object. The function can be called explicitly whenever required. In C++ memory management must be done by the programmer. There is no automatic memory management in C++.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Hierarchical Inheritance”. 1. Which among the following is best to define hierarchical inheritance? a) More than one classes being derived from one class b) More than 2 classes being derived from single base class c) At most 2 classes being derived from single base class d) At most 1 class derived from another class Answer: a Explanation: When two or more classes get derived from a single base class, it is known as hierarchical inheritance. This gives us freedom to use same code with different scopes and flexibility into different classes. 2. Do members of base class gets divided among all of its child classes? a) Yes, equally b) Yes, depending on type of inheritance c) No, it’s doesn’t get divided d) No, it may or may not get divided Answer: c Explanation: The class members doesn’t get divided among the child classes. All the members get derived to each of the subclasses as whole. The only restriction is from the access specifiers used. 3. Each class can inherit the base class ________________ a) Independently using any inheritance b) Independently with private inheritance only c) With same type of inheritance d) With each class using different inheritance only Answer: a Explanation: The classes can inherit the base class using any type of inheritance. There is no mandatory condition to use same private,public or protected inheritance only. 4. How many classes must be there to implement hierarchical inheritance? a) Exactly 3 b) At least 3 c) At most 3 d) At least 1 Answer: b Explanation: At least 3 classes must be there. Two derived classes and one base class. This lets us implement two classes that have common characteristics from base class. 5. Base class _______________ a) Can be made abstract b) Can’t be made abstract c) Must be abstract d) If made abstract, compile time error Answer: a Explanation: The base class may or may not be declared abstract. It depends on the need of program. If it is made abstract, it can contain undefined functions too. In turn, those functions will have to be implemented by each of the derived classes. 6. Which access specifiers should be used so that all the derived classes restrict further inheritance of base class members? a) Private b) Public c) Protected d) Any inheritance type can be used Answer: a Explanation: All the derived classes must use private inheritance. This will make the members of base class private in derived classes. Hence none of the members of base class will be available for further inheritance. 7. Which class uses hierarchical inheritance in following code? class A { int a; }; class B:class A {
 int b; }; class C:class A,class B { int c; }; class D:class A { int d; }; a) Class A, B, C b) Class B, C, D c) Class A, C, D d) Class D, A, B Answer: d Explanation: Class A is base class and B and D are derived classes. If class C is considered, it shows hybrid inheritance, involving single level and multiple inheritance. 8. Which among the following is correct for following code? abstract class A { public Int a; public void disp(); }; class B:public A { public: void dis() {   court&lt;&lt;a;  } }; class C:private A { public void incr() {   a++;  } } void main() { B b.disp(); } a) Compile time error b) Runtime error c) Program runs and o/p is 0 d) Program runs and o/p is garbage value Answer: a Explanation: The derived class D have not implemented the undefined function. Here the main concept involves hierarchical inheritance with abstract base class. 9. How many classes can be derived from the base class using hierarchical inheritance? a) As many as required b) Only 7 c) Only 3 d) Up to 127 Answer: a Explanation: The number of classes that can be derived from a base class doesn’t have any restriction and hence will be able to derive as many classes as required. This feature gives more flexibility and code reusability. 10. If one class have derived the base class privately then another class can’t derive the base class publically. a) True b) False Answer: b 
Explanation: The classes are independent and can access the base class and inherit it in whichever way it is required. The classes can use the base base class members privately or publically maintaining the security of data and methods. 11. Which among the following is true? a) Hierarchical inheritance is subset of multiple inheritances b) Hierarchical inheritance is strongest inheritance type c) Hierarchical inheritance uses only 2 classes for implementation d) Hierarchical inheritance allows inheritance of common features to more than one class Answer: d Explanation: Hierarchical inheritance is used to make all the inherited classes have some common features obtained from a single base class. This allows all the classes to maintain a group or to be classified under one class. 12. Hierarchical inheritance can be a subset of _________________ a) Hybrid inheritance b) Multiple inheritance c) Single level inheritance d) Multilevel inheritance Answer: a Explanation: When we use hybrid inheritance, it can contain any type of inheritance or combination or more than two types. Hence it may contain Hierarchical inheritance too, hence it can be subset of hybrid inheritance. 13. Which type of inheritance is most suitable for inheriting Same syllabus into different colleges with different streams? a) Multiple b) Single c) Hierarchical d) Multilevel Answer: c Explanation: When hierarchical inheritance is used, the common syllabus can be adopted into different college classes where the same syllabus is applicable. For changing the syllabus only the details of base class will have to changed. 14. Which class constructor is called first when an object of derived class is created? a) Base class constructor b) Derived class constructor c) Firstly created derived class constructor d) Last created derived class constructor Answer: a Explanation: The base class must be initialised first hence the constructor of base class is called first. This makes everything ready for the new object being created. 15. All the derived classes can access only a few members of base class that other derived classes can’t access at same time, in hierarchical inheritance. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The derived classes have full access to all the non private member’s of base class. Every derived class have equal access, none of the class can have special access to specific members of base class in general cases.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Hybrid Inheritance”. 1. Which among the following best defines the hybrid inheritance? a) Combination of two or more inheritance types b) Combination of same type of inheritance c) Inheritance of more than 7 classes d) Inheritance involving all the types of inheritance Answer: a Explanation: When more than one type of inheritance are used together, it results in new type of inheritance which is in general known as hybrid inheritance. This may of may not have better capabilities. 2. How many types of inheritance should be used for hybrid? a) Only 1 b) At least 2 c) At most two d) Always more than 2 Answer: b Explanation: There must be combination of at least 2 types of inheritance. The inheritance should be of different type. 3. If single inheritance is used with class A and B. A is base class. Then class C, D and E where C is base class and D is derived from C, then E is derived from D. Class C is made to inherit from class B. Which is the resultant type? a) Single level b) Multilevel c) Hybrid d) Multiple Answer: b Explanation: The statement represents multilevel inheritance. It is not hybrid since looking at complete idea, one can’t differentiate whether two type of inheritance are used. Hence it is multilevel inheritance. 4. Diamond problem includes ____________________ hybrid inheritance. a) Hierarchical and Multiple b) Hierarchical and Hierarchical c) Multiple and Multilevel d) Single, Hierarchical and Multiple Answer:a Explanation: The diamond problem arises when more than one classes are derived from one class and then those classes are used to derive single clas. Resulting in ambiguity of same functions from each class. 5. If __________________ inheritance is done continuously, it is similar to tree structure. a) Hierarchical b) Multiple c) Multilevel d) Hierarchical and Multiple Answer: a Explanation: Hierarchical inheritance is deriving more than one classes from a base class, it it is done continuously and subsequently, it results forming a tree like structure of classes being linked. 6. Which amongst the following is true for hybrid inheritance? a) Constructor calls are in reverse b) Constructor calls are priority based c) Constructor of only derived class is called d) Constructor calls are usual Answer: d Explanation: The constructors will be called in usual way. First the parent class Constructor and then the derived class Constructors. This is done to initialise all the members properly. 7. Which type of inheritance must be used so that the resultant is hybrid? a) Multiple b) Hierarchical c) Multilevel d) None Answer: d Explanation: The use of any specific type is not necessary. Though the final structure should not be the same, it should represent
more than one type of inheritance if class diagram is drawn. 8. The private member’s are made public to all the classes in inheritance. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The private member’s scope can’t be changed and those can never be accessed in other classes. Only the class containing private member’s can access its own members. 9. If hierarchical inheritance requires to inherit more than one class to single class, which syntax is correct? (A, B, C are class names) a) hierarchical class A: public B, public C b) multiple class A: public B, public C c) many class A: public B, public C d) class A: public B, public C Answer: d Explanation: The syntax is as same as declaration of other classes. There is no specific keyword defined for using hybrid inheritance in programming. Only thing is to specify the class name separated by commas. 10. What is the maximum number of classes allowed in hybrid inheritance? a) 7 b) 127 c) 255 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: The classes in any type of inheritance can inherit as many classes as required. The only condition that may arise is memory management. The classes can inherit most of the features from more than one class. 11. What is the minimum number of classes to be there in a program implementing hybrid inheritance? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) No limit Answer: d Explanation: The answer is no limit. There is no condition defined for limit of classes that has to be used in hybrid. Though you must have at least 4 classes so that one set of multiple or hierarchical inheritance is there and one more class to use single level inheritance. 12. If object of lowest level class is created (last derived class) ________________ of its parent class constructors are called. a) Few b) All c) Only parent and parent d) Base and Derived Answer: c Explanation: When derived class object is created, all of its successor parent classes constructors are called. Constructor of all the connected classes is not created. Since the parent members have to be initialised, but other derived classes are not needed. 13. If hybrid inheritance is used, it mostly shows _______________ feature of OOP. a) Flexibility b) Reusability c) Efficiency d) Code readability Answer: b Explanation: The code is reusable in most of the classes and the data becomes more linked to other classes. Other features are also exhibited, but the code reusability is used the most. Code readability becomes relatively less. Flexibility increases but it depends on how the hybrid inheritance is used. 14. The sequence of destructors being called while using hybrid inheritance is ____________ a) Reverse of constructors being called b) Reverse of classes being made c) Reverse of objects being created d) Reverse of code calling objects Answer: a 
Explanation: The destructors are always called in reverse order of constructors being called always. The type of inheritance doesn’t matter. The only important concept is the sequence of classes being inherited. 15. Overloading operators are possible only by using hybrid inheritance. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The overloading concept is not related to the types of inheritance being used. Overloading operators can be done without using inheritance. You don’t even have to use more than one class for operator overloading.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Inbuilt Classes”. 1. What are inbuilt classes? a) The predefined classes in a language b) The classes that are defined by the user c) The classes which are meant to be modified by the user d) The classes which can’t be used by the user Answer: a Explanation: The classes that are already provided in a programming language for use are inbuilt classes. These classes provide some functions or objects that can be used by the programmer for easier code. 2. Inbuilt class __________________________ a) Must be included before use b) Are not necessary to be included for use c) Are used by the compiler only d) Can be modified by programmer always Answer: a Explanation: The inbuilt classes must be included in the program. Whenever some functions are used, they must have a declaration before use. The same is the case with classes. 3. What doesn’t inbuilt classes contain? a) Function prototype b) Function declaration c) Function definitions d) Objects Answer: c Explanation: The classes contain the definitions of the special functions that are provided for the programmers use. Those functions can be used to make the programming easy and to reuse the already existing code. 4. Which among the following not an inbuilt class in C++? a) System b) Color c) String d) Functions Answer: d Explanation: There is no inbuilt class named function in java. The others are classes already provided in java. All those classes contain some special functions to be used in programming. 5. What is the InputStream class meant for? a) To handle all input streams b) To handle all output streams c) To handle all input and output streams d) To handle only input from file Answer: a Explanation: The InputStream is an inbuilt class which is used to handle all the tasks related to input handling. This class extends input from keyboard or file or any other possible input stream. 6. Which statement is true for the Array class? a) Arrays can have variable length b) The length array can be changed c) Each class has an associated Array class d) Arrays can contain different type of values Answer: c Explanation: The Array class is associated with all the other classes. This gives us the flexibility to declare an array of any type. The index goes from 0 to n, where n is some fixed size for array. 7. What is the use of Math class? a) To use the mathematical functions with strings b) To use the mathematical functions c) To suppress the use of mathematical functions d) To complex the calculations Answer: b Explanation: The Math class is provided with some special functions. These functions can be used to calculate and get result of
some special and usual mathematical functions. We don’t have to write the code to calculate the trigonometric function results, instead we can use Math functions. 8. DataInputStream is derived from ______________________ a) StreamingInput b) StreamedInput c) StreameInput d) StreamInput Answer: d Explanation: The DataInputStream is more specific class for operating on specific type of data inputs. This is used to read data of specific type. The same can be used to read data in a specific format. 9. Which attribute can be used to get the size of an array? a) Size.Array b) Array.Size c) Array_name.length d) length.Array_name Answer: c Explanation: The array name is given of which the length have to be calculated. The array length is stored in the attribute length. Hence we access it using dot operator. 10. Number class can’t manipulate ____________________ a) Integer values b) Float values c) Byte values d) Character values Answer: d Explanation: The Number class is used to work with all the number type of values. The integers, float, double, byte etc. are all number type values. Character is not a number value. 11. Which function should be used to exit from the program that is provided by System class? a) exit(int); b) gc(); c) terminate(); d) halt(); Answer: a Explanation: The exit function should be used to terminate the program. The function is passed with an argument. The argument indicated the type of error occurred. 12. Which class contain runFinalization() method? a) Finalize b) System c) Final d) SystemFinal Answer: b Explanation: The runFinalization() Function is defined in the System class. The function is used to finalize an object which undergo destruction. The action is required to terminate the object properly. 13. What does load(String)::= function do, in System class? a) Loads dynamic library for a path name b) Loads all the dynamic libraries c) Loads all the Number in string format d) Loads the processor with calculations Answer: a Explanation: Only the specified path named dynamic libraries are loaded. All the dynamic libraries can’t be loaded at a time. Hence we use this function for specific libraries. 14. Which is not a System class variable? a) err b) out c) in d) put Answer: d Explanation: Put is not a System class variable. The most general and basic variables are err, out and in. The variables can
handle most of the tasks performed in a program. 15. Which package contains the utility classes? a) java.lang b) java.utility c) java.util d) java.io Answer: c Explanation: The package java.util contains all the utility classes. This package also contains generic data structures, date, time etc. These can be used in any java program, you just have to include java.util package.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Inheritance”. 1. Which among the following best describes the Inheritance? a) Copying the code already written b) Using the code already written once c) Using already defined functions in programming language d) Using the data and functions into derived segment Answer: d Explanation: It can only be indicated by using the data and functions that we use in derived class, being provided by parent class. Copying code is nowhere similar to this concept, also using the code already written is same as copying. Using already defined functions is not inheritance as we are not adding any of our own features. 2. How many basic types of inheritance are provided as OOP feature? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 Answer: a Explanation: There are basically 4 types of inheritance provided in OOP, namely, single level, multilevel, multiple and hierarchical inheritance. We can add one more type as Hybrid inheritance but that is actually the combination any types of inheritance from the 4 basic ones. 3. Which among the following best defines single level inheritance? a) A class inheriting a derived class b) A class inheriting a base class c) A class inheriting a nested class d) A class which gets inherited by 2 classes Answer: b Explanation: A class inheriting a base class defines single level inheritance. Inheriting an already derived class makes it multilevel inheritance. And if base class is inherited by 2 other classes, it is multiple inheritance. 4. Which among the following is correct for multiple inheritance? a) class student{public: int marks;}s; class stream{int total;}; class topper:public student, public stream{ }; b) class student{int marks;}; class stream{ }; class topper: public student{ }; c) class student{int marks;}; class stream:public student{ }; d) class student{ }; class stream{ }; class topper{ }; Answer: a Explanation: Class topper is getting derived from 2 other classes and hence it is multiple inheritance. Topper inherits class stream and class student publicly and hence can use its features. If only few classes are defined, there we are not even using inheritance (as in option class student{ }; class stream{ }; class topper{ };). 5. Which programming language doesn’t support multiple inheritance? a) C++ and Java b) C and C++ c) Java and SmallTalk d) Java Answer: d Explanation: Java doesn’t support multiple inheritance. But that feature can be implemented by using the interfaces concept. Multiple inheritance is not supported because of diamond problem and similar issues. 6. Which among the following is correct for a hierarchical inheritance? a) Two base classes can be used to be derived into one single class b) Two or more classes can be derived into one class c) One base class can be derived into other two derived classes or more d) One base class can be derived into only 2 classes Answer: c Explanation: One base class can be derived into the other two derived classes or more. If only one class gets derived by only 2 other classes, it is also hierarchical inheritance, but it is not a mandatory condition, because any number of derived classes can be there. 7. Which is the correct syntax of inheritance? a) class derived_classname : base_classname{ /*define class body*/ }; b) class base_classname : derived_classname{ /*define class body*/ }; 
c) class derived_classname : access base_classname{ /*define class body*/ }; d) class base_classname :access derived_classname{ /*define class body*/ }; Answer: c Explanation: Firstly, keyword class should come, followed by the derived class name. Colon is must followed by access in which base class has to be derived, followed by the base class name. And finally the body of class. Semicolon after the body is also must. 8. Which type of inheritance leads to diamond problem? a) Single level b) Multi-level c) Multiple d) Hierarchical Answer: c Explanation: When 2 or more classes inherit the same class using multiple inheritance and then one more class inherits those two base classes, we get a diamond like structure. Here, ambiguity arises when same function gets derived into 2 base classes and finally to 3rd level class because same name functions are being inherited. 9. Which access type data gets derived as private member in derived class? a) Private b) Public c) Protected d) Protected and Private Answer: a Explanation: It is a rule, that when a derived class inherits the base class in private access mode, all the members of base class gets derived as private members of the derived class. 10. If a base class is inherited in protected access mode then which among the following is true? a) Public and Protected members of base class becomes protected members of derived class b) Only protected members become protected members of derived class c) Private, Protected and Public all members of base, become private of derived class d) Only private members of base, become private of derived class Answer: a Explanation: As the programming language rules apply, all the public and protected members of base class becomes protected members of derived class in protected access mode. It can’t be changed because it would hinder the security of data and may add vulnerability in the program. 11. Members which are not intended to be inherited are declared as ________________ a) Public members b) Protected members c) Private members d) Private or Protected members Answer: c Explanation: Private access specifier is the most secure access mode. It doesn’t allow members to be inherited. Even Private inheritance can only inherit protected and public members. 12. While inheriting a class, if no access mode is specified, then which among the following is true? (in C++) a) It gets inherited publicly by default b) It gets inherited protected by default c) It gets inherited privately by default d) It is not possible Answer: c Explanation: If the access mode is not specified during inheritance, the class is inherited privately by default. This is to ensure the security of data and to maintain OOP features. Hence it is not mandatory to specify the access mode if we want the class to be inherited privately. 13. If a derived class object is created, which constructor is called first? a) Base class constructor b) Derived class constructor c) Depends on how we call the object d) Not possible Answer: a Explanation: First the base class constructor is invoked. When we create a derived class object, the system tries to invoke its constructor but the class is derived so first the base class must be initialized, hence in turn the base class constructor is invoked
before the derived class constructor. 14. The private members of the base class are visible in derived class but are not accessible directly. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: Consider that a variable is private in base class and the derived class uses public inheritance to inherit that class. Now if we also have a global variable of same name as that of base class private variable, neither the global variable nor the base class private variable will be accessible from derived class. This is because we can’t have 2 variables with same name in same local scope. Hence the private members are accessible but not directly. 15. How can you make the private members inheritable? a) By making their visibility mode as public only b) By making their visibility mode as protected only c) By making their visibility mode as private in derived class d) It can be done both by making the visibility mode public or protected Answer: d Explanation: It is not mandatory that you have to make the visibility mode either public or protected. You can do either of those. That will give you permission to inherit the private members of base class.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “IO Class”. 1. What is the use of IO class? a) To handle all the input operations b) To handle all the output operations c) To handle all the input and output operations d) To handle all the input and output to the standard input Answer: c Explanation: The IO class provides functions that can be used to handle input and output operations. All the inputs from standard input and standard output, and also from the files can be handled. This gives the flexibility to make the programs more user friendly. 2. IO class provides input and output through ______________________ a) Data streams b) Serialization c) File system d) Data streams, serialization and file system Answer: d Explanation: The IO classes are made such that those can support the input and output from any type of source or destination. The input can be taken from system file and standard input and also some special devices if conned. Same is case to show the output. 3. Which among the following class contains the methods to access character based console device? a) Console b) File c) Device d) Pipe Answer: a Explanation: The Console class contains the methods to access the character based devices. The devices which can stream the data as character set. All those devices can be made use of by using the methods of class Console. 4. File class is ____________________________ a) An abstract of file representation only b) An abstract of path names only c) An abstract which can be used to represent path names or file d) An abstract which can represent a file in any format Answer: c Explanation: The File class is made to operate with the files. The file can be of any type. All the input and output operations that have to be performed on a file can be done using File class object. 5. What is a FileDescriptor? a) A handle for machine specific structure of an open file b) A handle for program specific structure of an open file c) A handle for compiler specific structure of an open file d) A handle for representing device files structure Answer: a Explanation: The machine specific structure of an open file have to be handled in some special ways. FileDescriptor class can handle those files. The FileDescriptor can also handle open socket, another source, sink of bytes. 6. FileInputStream _________________________ a) Gets the input stream from any device file b) Gets the input stream from any open socket c) Gets the input stream from any cache d) Gets the input stream from any open file only Answer: d Explanation: The most specific answer is that the FileInputStream can only be used for the opened files. The class can work only for the file type. No socket or another source are allowed to be accessed. 7. What does FilePermission class do? a) This class is used to give permission rights to a file b) This class is used to restrict the use of permissions c) This class is used to represent device access permissions d) This class is used to represent file access permissions 
Answer: d Explanation: The FilePermission can’t get access to the device access permissions. The Permission is given to a file when it is created or otherwise when a privileged user changes it. Then these permission rights can be accessed using the FilePermission class. 8. Which class among the following makes incorrect assumptions? a) LineNumberInputStream b) LineNumberReader c) LineReader d) LineBuffer Answer: a Explanation: The LineNumberInputStream class makes false assumptions. The false assumption is that it assumes, all the byte data is a character. Which is actually not the case, instead the character have one byte memory space. 9. Reader class is _________________ a) Used to read from files b) Abstract class to read character streams c) Abstract class to input character streams d) Used to take input from standard input stream Answer: b Explanation: The Reader class is an abstract class that can be used to read characters stream. It can’t be used for any kind of input. It can just read the existing data. 10. Which class can handle IO class interrupt? a) ExceptionIO b) InteruptedIO c) InteruptedIOException d) IOInteruptException Answer: c Explanation: The only class which handles the IO class interrupts is InteruptedIOException class. This class is specially provided to handle any case that involves the execution interrupt. 11. StringReader handles _____________________ a) Any character stream b) A character stream whose source is an array c) A character stream whose source is character array d) A character stream whose source is String only Answer: d Explanation: The StringReader can only work with the string type data. Even if a character array is given, it might produce some errors in code. Hence only the string values can be handled properly. 12. Which exception handler can be used when character encoding is not supported? a) UnsupportedException b) UnsupportedEncodingException c) SupportException d) EncodingException Answer: b Explanation: The encoding that is unsupported in a system can be handled. The exception handler is UnSupportedEncodingException class. An object of this class can be created which will catch the exception and handle it. 13. PushBackReader allows the streams to be pushed back to the stream. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The PushBackReader allows the character streams handling. The main feature is that the stream can be pushed back to the stream. This is used in special cases of handling input stream. 14. RandomAccessFile can be used to _______________________ a) Read from a random access file b) Write to a random access file c) Read and write to a random access file d) Restricts read and write to a random access file Answer: c Explanation: The RandomAccessFile class instance can be created to handle input and output operations to a random access
file. It first checks the permissions on the file and then any required operation can be done on a random access file. Comparatively faster than other files access. 15. Which among the following is a serialization descriptor for any class? a) StreamClass b) ObjectStreamClass c) ObjectStream d) StreamObjectClass Answer: b Explanation: The ObjectStreamClass object can be created to handle serializations. The class is provided specially for the serializations. It is descriptor like we have a file descriptor to handle/access files.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Local Class”. 1. What are local classes? a) Classes declared inside a package b) Classes declared inside a function c) Classes declared inside a class d) Classes declared inside structure Answer: b Explanation: The classes declared inside a package are available to all the functions and classes, hence can’t be called local. This is somewhat similar concept that we use to denote variables of a function. The classes declared inside functions will be local to them. 2. All member functions of a local class must be ___________ a) Defined outside class body b) Defined outside the function definition c) Defined inside the class body d) Defined at starting of program Answer: c Explanation: There is a restriction on where the member functions of the local class should be define. Those must be defined inside the class body only. This is to reduce the ambiguity and complexity of program. 3. Can local class members access/use the general local variables (except static, abstract etc.) of the function in which it is defined? a) Yes, it can access with arrow operator b) No, it can’t access with dot operator c) Yes, it can access using dot operator d) No, it can’t access In anyway Answer: d Explanation: The local variables of the functions are not available to the member functions of the class. This is done to reduce the ambiguity in variables and their access rules. 4. Which type of data can a local class access from the function in which it is defined? a) Static and extern b) Abstract and static c) Void and extern d) Const and static Answer: a Explanation: The local classes have this feature to access the static and extern variables of the function in which those are defined. This feature is available since these type of data are common to the program and is created only one time. Run time creation and destruction of these variables is not done. The only restriction that may apply is those members must be constants. 5. Local classes can access the type names and enumerators defined by the enclosing function. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: This is a little tricky part with local classes. Though the local class can’t access the general variables of the function but can access the types that are defined inside the function. This is because the whole definition of that type would be existing inside the class. 6. Can static variables be declared inside a local class? a) Yes, with public access specifier b) Yes, anywhere as required c) No, not possible in private access specifier d) No, not possible anyway Answer: d Explanation: No, the static variables can’t be declared inside a local class. This is because each time the function is called, all the variables get created again and are destroyed as soon as the function is returned. This would have been possible id the static variable was of function. 7. All the member functions of local classes are __________ by default. a) Static b) Inline c) Abstract 
d) Virtual Answer: c Explanation: All the members are defined inside the class body. And when the member functions are defined inside the class body, they are made inline by default. If the definition is too complex, those are made normal functions. 8. The enclosing function has no special access to the members of the local class. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: This is a rule that the enclosing function doesn’t have any special access to the members of the local class. This is done to maintain the security of class members. And to adhere to the rules of OOP. 9. Which language can use inheritance with local classes? a) Kotlin b) Java c) SmallTalk d) SAP ABAP Answer: d Explanation: Other language might support inheritance with local classes but those doesn’t provide all the proper features of inheritance. Language SAP ABAP provides a way to implement inheritance with local classes efficiently. 10. How many local classes can be defined inside a single function? a) Only 1 b) Only 3 c) Only 5 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: The local classes can be defined as required. There is no restriction on the number of local classes that can be defined inside a function. But all those classes must follow the rules and restrictions. 11. All the data members of local class must be ___________ a) Defined with declaration b) Defined in constructor c) Declared and defined in constructor d) Declared using a member function Answer: b Explanation: The data members follow the same rules as of simple classes. Hence the data members must be declared first. Then their definition must be given using the constructors. 12. Can two different functions have local class with same name? a) Yes, since local b) No, names must be different c) No, scope doesn’t work here d) No, ambiguity arises Answer: a Explanation: The local classes can have same name if they belong to different functions. The classes would be local to those specific functions and hence can have same name. This is same as that of local variables concept. 13. What is the scope of local class? a) Within the class only b) Within the function c) Within the program d) One time creation and live till end of program Answer: b Explanation: The scope of a local class is limited only within the function definition. The function can use the class as usual as local variables. The class gets destroyed as soon as the function is returned. 14. Can a function, other than the enclosing function of local class, access the class members? a) Yes, using object b) Yes, using direct call c) Yes, using pointer d) No, can’t access Answer: d 
Explanation: The local classes are local to the specific enclosing function. Other functions can’t access the class. Even if the pointers are used, the class must be alive when the pointer is used. But this will not happen if the enclosing function is returned. 15. Which among the following is the main advantage of using local classes? a) Make program more efficient b) Makes program execution faster c) Helps to add extra functionality to a function d) Helps to add more members to a function Answer: c Explanation: The closest answer is to add more functionalities to a function or to make some specific functions to be generic. Adding more members to a function can be done directly but to add some special functionality that are encapsulated, can be done using local classes.
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ MCQs focuses on “Object Use”. 1. Which among the following is the main use of object? a) To create instance of a function b) To create instance of a program c) To create instance of class d) To create instance of structures Answer: c Explanation: The objects are used to create an instance of a class. Objects can represent a class in an independent form. The basic blueprint, that contains the information of the type of data that can be stored in an object, is given by the class. 2. Which among the following is not a property of an object? a) Identity b) Properties c) Attributes d) Names Answer: d Explanation: The names are not property of an object. The identity can be in any form like address or name of object but name can’t be termed as only identity of an object. The objects contain attributes that define what type of data an object can store. 3. What is function object? a) An object with a single function b) An object with only functions c) An object with more than one function d) An object with no functions Answer: a Explanation: A function object is an object with single function. In C++ a function object can be like operator() function. This acts more like a function rather than an object. 4. Immutable object are used ______________________ a) To set up as a fixed state b) To set up variable object c) To set up an object of abstract class d) To set up an object of derived class Answer: a Explanation: An immutable object can be created for an object which has to be fixed with values. The object data will not be changed throughout the program. This can be useful to eliminate the unintentional changes in the data of object. 5. Which object can be used to contain other objects? a) First class object b) Derived class object c) Container object d) Enclosure object Answer: c Explanation: A container object can be used to contain other objects. Container object is an ADT. Its object are collection of other objects. Some specific rules apply to these types of objects. 6. A factory object is used ______________________ a) To create new classes b) To create new function c) To create new data members d) To create new objects Answer:d Explanation: The factory object is an object that can be used to create other objects. If it is seen formally, it behaves like a method that will return object on its use. The object returned is assumed to be a new object. 7. What are singleton objects? a) The only two objects of a class throughout the program b) The only object of a class throughout the program c) The objects that are alive throughout the program d) The objects that are created and then deleted without use Answer: b Explanation: If a class has only one object created and that is the only object of the class. Then the object is known as the singleton object. But only if that object is the only object of the class and no other object is created for that class.
8. Object cout and cin _________________ a) Can be used directly with << and >> symbols respectively b) Can be used directly with >> and << symbols respectively c) Must be used as a function which accepts 2 arguments d) Must be used as a function which accepts 3 arguments Answer: a Explanation: The cin and cout objects can be used directly with the >> and << operators respectively. The objects are of iostream class. Class iostream is an inbuilt class. 9. Objects type ____________________ a) Can be changed in runtime b) Can’t be changed in runtime c) Can be changed in compile time d) May or may not get changed Answer: b Explanation: The object types are always fixed. Once the object is created of a specific type then it can’t be changed. Neither at runtime nor at compile time. 10. An object can be used to represent _________________ a) A real world entity b) A real function c) Some real data only d) Some function only Answer: a Explanation: The objects are actually meant to represent an entity. The classes are real world object’s blueprint. The classes then are used to create an entity representation. 11. Objects can be used _____________________ a) To access any member of a class b) To access only public members of a class c) To access only protected members of a class d) To access only private members of a class Answer: b Explanation: The objects are created for a specific class. Then the objects can be used to access the public members of a class. The members can be the data members or the member functions of the class. 12. Which among the following is not a use of object? a) Defining a member function b) Accessing data members c) Creating instance of a class d) Using class members Answer: a Explanation: The objects can’t be used to define any member function. Member functions must be defined by the class only. Objects can only access the members and use them. 13. Which object can be used to access the standard input? a) System.inner b) cin c) System.stdin d) console.input Answer: b Explanation: Object cin can be used to take input from the standard input. It is used in C++. In java we can use System.in for the standard input stream. The syntax changes from language to language. 14. A single object can be used __________________ a) As only two class types at a time b) As only three class types at a time c) As only one class type at a time d) As of as many class types as required Answer: c Explanation: The object can be of only one type. The type of an object can’t be changed. Object type is mandatory to be of one class type to ensure the type and number of data members it have. 15. If same object name is given to different objects of different class then _____________ 
a) Its compile time error b) Its runtime error c) It’s not an error d) Program suns smooth Answer: a Explanation: It is a compile time error as the compiler doesn’t allow the same name objects to be declared more than once. Compiler produces multiple declaration errors. Every object must have a different name. To practice MCQs on all areas of Object Oriented Programming using C++, .
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Member Functions”. 1. Which among the following best describes member functions? a) Functions which are defined within the class b) Functions belonging a class c) Functions in public access of a class d) Functions which are private to class Answer: b Explanation: We can’t say that only functions that are defined inside class are member functions. There can be some inherited functions. Though they doesn’t belong to the class but are property of the objects once inheritance is used. So the nearest definition is functions belonging to a class. 2. How many types of member functions are generally there in C++? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: d Explanation: There are 5 types of member functions that are generally provided in C++. Namely, simple, static, const, inline and friend member functions. Member functions are specific to classes. 3. How can a static member function be called in the main function? a) Using dot operator b) Using arrow operator c) Using dot or arrow operator d) Using dot, arrow or using scope resolution operator with class name Answer: d Explanation: The member functions can be called using only the dot operator or the arrow operator. But the static members can be called using directly the class name followed by the scope resolution operator and static member function name. This is useful when you don’t have any object to call the member. 4. What are inline member functions? a) Member functions which can be called without object b) Member functions whose definition is expanded in place of its call c) Member functions whose definition is faster than simple function d) Member function which is defined in single line Answer: b Explanation: The member functions whose definition is expanded at the call, and no jump to function and return happened, are termed as inline functions. This is used to make the program faster and more efficient. 5. What happens if non static members are used in static member function? a) Compile time error b) Runtime error c) Executes fine d) Executes if that member function is not used Answer: a Explanation: There must be specific memory space allocated for the data members before the static member functions uses them. But the space is not reserved if object is not declared. Hence only if static members are not used, it leads to compile time error. 6. Static member functions _____________ a) Contains “this” pointer for data members b) Contains “this” pointer if used for member functions c) Doesn’t contain “this” pointer d) Doesn’t contain “this” pointer if member functions are referred Answer: c Explanation: The static member functions doesn’t contain “this” pointer. Static member functions can’t be defined as const or volatile also. These are restrictions on static member functions. 7. How to access members of the class inside a member function? a) Using this pointer only b) Using dot operator c) Using arrow operator 
d) Used directly or with this pointer Answer: d Explanation: The members of a class can be used directly inside a member function. We can use this pointer when there is a conflict between data members of class and arguments/local function variable names. 8. For overloading “( )”, “[ ]” or “->” operators, a class __________ a) Must use static member functions b) Must use non-static member functions c) Must be non-static member and should not be friend of class d) Must use static member function or a friend member function Answer: c Explanation: For overloading those operators for a class, the class must use non-static member function so that doesn’t remain common to all the objects, and each object can use it independently. The friend functions is also restricted so as to keep the security of data. 9. If a virtual member function is defined ___________ a) It should not contain any body and defined by subclasses b) It must contain body and overridden by subclasses c) It must contain body and be overloaded d) It must not contain any body and should not be derived Answer: a Explanation: The virtual functions are defined using virtual keyword. These are made in order to make all the classes to define them as the class gets inherited. Increases code understanding. 10. Member functions of a generic class are _____________ a) Not generic b) Automatically generic c) To be made generic explicitly d) Given default type as double Answer: b Explanation: When generic type is used in a class, the functions are automatically generic. This is so because the functions would use the same type as defined to make the class generic. The functions will get to know the type of data as soon as the generic class is used. It’s inbuilt feature. 11. Member function of a class can ____________ a) Access all the members of the class b) Access only Public members of the class c) Access only the private members of the class d) Access subclass members Answer: a Explanation: The member functions has access to all the members of the class. Whenever data members of a class, which might be private, have to be modified, we make use of these member functions. This is more secure way to manipulate data. 12. Which among the following is proper syntax for class given below? class A {  int a,b; public : void disp(); } a) void disp::A(){ } b) void A::disp(){ } c) void A:disp() { cout<<a<<b ; } d) void disp:A(){ cout<<a<<b; } Answer: b Explanation: The syntax in option void A::disp(){ } is correct. We use scope resolution to represent the member function of a class and to write its definition. It is not necessary for a function to have anything in its definition. 13. A member function can _______________ of the same class. a) Call other member functions b) Call only private member functions c) Call only static member functions d) Call only const member functions 
Answer: a Explanation: We can call one function inside another function to access some data of class. A public member function can be used to call a private member function which directly manipulates the private data of class. 14. Which member function doesn’t require any return type? a) Static b) Constructor c) Const d) Constructor and destructor Answer: d Explanation: All the member functions work same as normal functions with syntax. But the constructor and destructor are also considered as member functions of a class, and they never have any data type. 15. Which among the following is not possible for member function? a) Access protected members of parent class b) Definition without return type c) Access public members of subclass d) Access static members of class Answer: c Explanation: A member function of a class can only have the access to the members of its own class and parent classes if inheritance used. Otherwise a member function can never access the members of a subclass. Accessing static members of a class is possible by normal and static member functions.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Multilevel Inheritance”. 1. Which among the following best defines multilevel inheritance? a) A class derived from another derived class b) Classes being derived from other derived classes c) Continuing single level inheritance d) Class which have more than one parent Answer: b Explanation: Only if the class is being derived from other derived class, it can be called as multilevel inheritance. If a class is derived from another class, it is single level inheritance. There must be more than one level of inheritance. 2. If there are 5 classes, E is derived from D, D from C, C from B and B from A. Which class constructor will be called first if the object of E or D is created? a) A b) B c) C d) A and B Answer: a Explanation: A is parent of all other classes indirectly. Since A is parent of B and B is parent of C and so on till E. Class A constructor will be called first always. 3. If there are 3 classes. Class C is derived from class B and B is derived from A, Which class destructor will be called at last if object of C is destroyed. a) A b) B c) C d) All together Answer: a Explanation: The destructors are called in the reverse order of the constructors being called. Hence in multilevel inheritance, the constructors are created from parent to child, which leads to destruction from child to parent. Hence class A destructor will be called at last. 4. Which Class is having highest degree of abstraction in multilevel inheritance of 5 levels? a) Class at 1st level b) Class 2nd last level c) Class at 5th level d) All with same abstraction Answer: a Explanation: The class with highest degree of abstraction will be the class at the 1st level. You can look at a simple example like, a CAR is more abstract than SPORTS CAR class. The level of abstraction decrease with each level as more details comes out. 5. If all the classes use private inheritance in multilevel inheritance then ______________ a) It will not be called multilevel inheritance b) Each class can access only non-private members of its parent c) Each subsequent class can access all members of previous level parent classes d) None of the members will be available to any other class Answer: b Explanation: The classes will be able to access only the non-private members of its parent class. The classes are using private inheritance, hence all the members of the parent class become private in the derived class. In turn those won’t be allowed for further inheritance or direct access outside the class. 6. Multilevel inheritance allows _________________ in the program. a) Only 7 levels of inheritance b) At least 7 levels of inheritance c) At most 16 levels of inheritance d) As many levels of inheritance as required Answer: d Explanation: The multilevel inheritance allows any number of levels of inheritance. This is the maximum flexibility feature to make the members available to all the new classes and to add their own functionalities. The code reusability is used too. 7. What is the minimum number of levels for a implementing multilevel inheritance? a) 1 b) 2 
c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c Explanation: There must be at least 3 levels of inheritance. Otherwise if less, it will be single level inheritance or would have got no inheritance implemented. There must be a derived class from which another class is derived. 8. In multilevel inheritance one class inherits _______________ a) Only one class b) More than one class c) At least one class d) As many classes as required Answer: a Explanation: The classes inherit only from one class. This continues as each class inherits only one class. There should not be any class that inherits from two or more classes or which have more than one subclass. 9. All the classes must have all the members declared private to implement multilevel inheritance. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: There is no mandatory rule to make the members private for multilevel inheritance. Moreover, if all the classes have only the private members then there won’t be any member to get inherited. Hence the working will be of no use. 10. Can abstract classes be used in multilevel inheritance? a) Yes, always b) Yes, only one abstract class c) No, abstract class doesn’t have constructors d) No, never Answer: a Explanation: The abstract classes can always be used in multilevel inheritance. The only condition that may arise is that all the undefined functions must be defined in subclasses. There must not be any undefined function. 11. How many abstract classes can be used in multilevel inheritance? a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) At least one less than number of levels d) Can’t be used Answer: c Explanation: At least one class must implement all the undefined functions. Hence there must be at least one class which is not abstract. That is at least one less than number of levels. 12. If all the classes used parameterized constructors and no default constructor then ___________ a) The object of lower level classes can’t be created b) Object of lower level classes must call parent class constructors explicitly c) Object of lower level classes must define all the default constructors d) Only object of first class can be created, which is first parent Answer: b Explanation: Each class constructor must be called before creating the object of any subclass. Hence it will be mandatory to call the constructors of parent classes explicitly with parameters. This will make all the previous class member be initialized and then the class in use will be able to create the object. 13. In multilevel inheritance, which is the most significant feature of OOP used? a) Code readability b) Flexibility c) Code reusability d) Code efficiency Answer: c Explanation: The classes using multilevel inheritance will use the code in all the subsequent subclasses if available. Hence the most significant feature among the options given is code reusability. This feature is generally intended to use the data values and reuse the redundant functions. 14. Does following code show multiple inheritance?
 
class A
{ int a; }; class B { int b; }; class C:public A, public B { int c; }; class D:public C { int d; }; a) Yes, class C and class D b) Yes, All together it’s multilevel c) No, 4 classes are used d) No, multiple inheritance is used with class A, B and C Answer: d Explanation: Since multiple inheritance is used to derive class C and then class D is derived from class C. This is not multilevel inheritance. The classes should derive from single class. This is actually hybrid inheritance. 15. Is it compulsory for all the classes in multilevel inheritance to have constructors defined explicitly if only last derived class object is created? a) Yes, always b) Yes, to initialize the members c) No, it not necessary d) No, Constructor must not be defined Answer: c Explanation: It’s not mandatory to define the constructors explicitly. Default constructor will always be provided by the compiler itself if none another constructor is defined in those classes. If explicit default constructor is defined it will be used.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Multiple Inheritance”. 1. Multiple inheritance is ____________________ a) When a class is derived from another class b) When a class is derived from two or more classes c) When a class is derived from other two derived classes d) When a class is derived from exactly one class Answer: b Explanation: The multiple inheritance is used when a class is being derived using two base classes or more. This way a single class can have features of more than one classes inherited into a single unit. This lets us combine two class members into a single class. 2. Which problem arises due to multiple inheritance, if hierarchical inheritance is used previously for its base classes? a) Diamond b) Circle c) Triangle d) Loop Answer: a Explanation: The diamond problem arises when multiple inheritance is used. This problem arises because the same name member functions get derived into a single class. Which in turn creates ambiguity in calling those methods. 3. How many classes should a program contain to implement the multiple inheritance? a) Only 1 b) At least 1 c) At least 3 d) Exactly 3 Answer: c Explanation: For the implementation of multiple inheritance, there must be at least 3 classes in a program. At least 2 base classes and one class to inherit those two classes. If lesser, it becomes single level inheritance. 4. Which programming language restricts the use of multiple inheritance? a) C++ b) PHP c) SmallTalk d) Java Answer: d Explanation: Java doesn’t allow use of multiple inheritance with classes. But this can be done by using the interfaces. This is more secure and unambiguous way to implement multiple inheritance. 5. Is it possible to have all the abstract classes as base classes of a derived class from those? a) Yes, always b) Yes, only if derived class implements all the methods c) No, because abstract classes doesn’t have constructors d) No, never Answer: b Explanation: The condition for abstract class applies same here too. All the undefined functions must be defined. Hence all the base classes can be abstract but derived class must implement all those undefined functions. 6. If class A inherits class B and class C as “class A: public class B, public class C {// class body ;}; ”, which class constructor will be called first? a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) All together Answer: b Explanation: The constructors of parent class will be called first. In that, the constructor of the classes will be called in the same sequence as that mentioned in class definition inheritance. Since class B is mentioned first for inheritance, its constructor will be called first. 7. Why does diamond problem arise due to multiple inheritance? a) Methods with same name creates ambiguity and conflict b) Methods inherited from the superclass may conflict c) Derived class gets overloaded with more than two class methods 
d) Derived class can’t distinguish the owner class of any derived method Answer: a Explanation: All the derived classes can distinguish the base class members, but if a method is being inherited to the base classes from another class which again gets inherited into same class (diamond shape), that may create conflict in using the function from two available. 8. How many base classes can a derived class have which is implementing multiple inheritance? a) Only 2 b) At least 2 c) At most 2 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: The classes can derive from as many classes as required since the multiple inheritance feature is made to combine or group together the functions that are from different classes. This make the derived class stronger in terms of its flexibility. 9. How to overcome diamond problem? a) Using alias name b) Using seperate derived class c) Using virtual keyword with same name function d) Can’t be done Answer: c Explanation: To overcome the ambiguity and conflict we can use keyword virtual. This will help us to differentiate the functions with same name that came to last derived class in diamond problem. 10. When multiple inheritance is used, which class object should be used in order to access all the available members of parent and derived class? a) Derived class object b) Parent class objects c) Use Abstract derived class d) Derive a class from derived class Answer: a Explanation: The derived class object can access all of its own members. It can also access the available members of the parent classes, because the members are derived into the derived class. 11. If all the members of all the base classes are private then _____________ a) There won’t be any use of multiple inheritance b) It will make those members public c) Derived class can still access them in multiple inheritance d) Compile time error Answer: a Explanation: The derived class will not be able to access any members of the base classes. Since private member’s are not inheritable. It leads to no use of multiple inheritance. 12. Is it compulsory to have constructor for all the classes involved in multiple inheritance? a) Yes, always b) Yes, only if no abstract class is involved c) No, only classes being used should have a constructor d) No, they must not contain constructors Answer: b Explanation: The constructors must be defined in every class. If class is abstract, it won’t have any constructor but other classes must have constructor. Either implicit or explicit. 13. If a class contains 2 nested class and is being inherited by another class, will there be any multiple inheritance? a) No, only single level inheritance is used b) No, only multilevel inheritance is used c) Yes, because 3 classes are involved d) Yes, because more than 1 classes are being derived Answer: a Explanation: When a class having nested classes is being derived into another class. It indirectly means a simple class is being inherited to another class. This is single level inheritance. 14. Which members can’t be accessed in derived class in multiple inheritance? a) Private members of base 
b) Public members of base c) Protected members of base d) All the members of base Answer: a Explanation: The private member’s are available for only the class containing those members. Derived classes will have access to protected and public members only. 15. Can the derived class be made abstract if multiple inheritance is used? a) No, because other classes must be abstract too b) Yes, if all the functions are implemented c) Yes, if all the methods are predefined d) No, since constructors won’t be there Answer: d Explanation: The derived class must not be abstract. This is because the abstract classes doesn’t have constructor and hence we won’t be having the capability to have instances. This will restrict the use of multiple inheritance.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Nested Class”. 1. Which among the following best describes a nested class? a) Class inside a class b) Class inside a function c) Class inside a package d) Class inside a structure Answer: a Explanation: If a class is defined inside another class, the inner class is termed as nested class. The inner class is local to the enclosing class. Scope matters a lot here. 2. Which feature of OOP reduces the use of nested classes? a) Encapsulation b) Inheritance c) Binding d) Abstraction Answer: b Explanation: Using inheritance we can have the security of the class being inherited. The subclass can access the members of parent class. And have more feature than a nested class being used. 3. How many categories are nested classes divided into? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: a Explanation: The nested classes are divided into two main categories. Namely, Static and non-static. The categories define how the classes can be used inside another class. 4. Non-static nested classes have access to _____________ from enclosing class. a) Private members b) Protected members c) Public members d) All the members Answer: d Explanation: The non-static nested class can access all the members of the enclosing class. All the data members and member functions can be accessed from the nested class. Even if the members are private, they can be accessed. 5. Static nested classes doesn’t have access to _________________ from enclosing class. a) Private members b) Protected members c) Public members d) Any other members Answer: d Explanation: The static nested class doesn’t have access to any other members of the enclosing class. This is a rule that is made to ensure that only the data which can be common to all the object is being accessed by the static nested class. 6. The nested class can be declared ___________________ a) Public b) Private c) Protected d) Public, Protected, Private or Package private Answer: d Explanation: The nested class can be declared with any specifier, unlike the outer classes which can only be declared public or package private. This is flexibility given for the nested class being a member of enclosing class. 7. Use of nested class ____________ encapsulation. a) Increases b) Decreases c) Doesn’t affect d) Slightly decreases Answer: a Explanation: The use of nested class increases encapsulation as the inner class is getting even more grouped into the enclosing
class. Firstly the class encapsulate the data, having nested classes can increase the encapsulation even further. 8. Which among the following is the correct advantage/disadvantage of nested classes? a) Makes the code more complex b) Makes the code unreadable c) Makes the code efficient and readable d) Makes the code multithreaded Answer: c Explanation: The use of nested classes makes the code more streamed towards a single concept. This allows to group the most similar and related classes together and makes it even more efficient and readable. 9. How to access static nested classes? a) OuterClass.StaticNestedClass b) OuterClass->StaticNestedClass c) OuterClass(StaticNestedClass) d) OuterClass[StaticNestedClass] Answer: a Explanation: Like any other member of the class, the static nested class uses the dot operator to be accessed. The reason behind is, the static classes can’t work with instances, hence we use enclosing class name to access static nested class. 10. A nested class can have its own static members. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The nested classes are associated with the object of the enclosing class. Hence have direct access to the members of that object. Hence the inner class can’t have any static members of its own. Otherwise the rule of static members would be violated using enclosing class instance. 11. How to create object of the inner class? a) OuterClass.InnerClass innerObject = outerObject.new InnerClass(); b) OuterClass.InnerClass innerObject = new InnerClass(); c) InnerClass innerObject = outerObject.new InnerClass(); d) OuterClass.InnerClass = outerObject.new InnerClass(); Answer: a Explanation: An instance of inner class can exist only within instance of outer class. To instantiate the inner class, one must instantiate the outer class first. This can be done by the correct syntax above. 12. What will be the output of the following code? public class Test {    public int a=0;    class innerClass    { public int a=1; void innermethod(int x) {     System.out.println(“value of x = ” + x);     System.out.println(“value of this.x = ” + this.x);     System.out.println(“value of Test.this.x = ” + Test.T=this.x); }    } } public static void main( String args[] ) { Test t=new Test(); Test.innerClass im=t.new innerClass(); im.innermethod(55); } a)  value of x = 55  value of this.x = 0  value of Test.this.x = 1
b)  value of x = 1  value of this.x = 0  value of Test.this.x = 55 c)  value of x = 55  value of this.x = 1  value of Test.this.x = 0 d)  value of x = 0  value of this.x = 55  value of Test.this.x = 1 Answer: c Explanation: The variable x denotes the parameter of the function. And this.x is the variable of the inner class. Test.this.x is the variable of the outer class. Hence we get this output.
13. Instance of inner class can exist only _______________ enclosing class. a) Within b) Outside c) Private to d) Public to Answer: a Explanation: The class defined inside another class is local to the enclosing class. This means that the instance of inner class will not be valid outside the enclosing class. There is no restriction for instance to be private or public always. 14. If a declaration of a member in inner class has the same name as that in the outer class, then ________________ enclosing scope. a) Outer declaration shadows inner declaration in b) Inner declaration shadows outer declaration in c) Declaration gives compile time error d) Declaration gives runtime error Answer: b Explanation: The inner class will have more preference for its local members than those of the enclosing members. Hence it will shadow the enclosing class members. This process is known as shadowing. 15. A static nested class is _____________ class in behavior that is nested in another _________ class. a) Top level, top level b) Top level, low level c) Low level, top level d) Low level, low level Answer: a Explanation: Top level class encloses the other classes or have same preference as that of other top level classes. Having a class inside the top level class is indirectly having a top level class which higher degree of encapsulation.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “New Operator”. 1. What is the new operator? a) Allocates memory for an object or array b) Allocates memory for an object or array and returns a particular pointer c) Used as return type when an object is created d) Used to declare any new thing in a program Answer: b Explanation: The new keyword is used to allocate memory of an object or array. The new object or array can be of any type. Then it returns a suitable non zero pointer to the object. 2. Microsoft C++ Components extensions support new keyword to _____________ a) Modify a vtable b) Replace a vtable slot entry c) Add new vtable slot entries d) Rearrange vtable slot entries Answer: c Explanation: The new keyword is used for adding new vtable slot entries. This is an additional feature in Microsoft C++. It can use predefined class object for this work. 3. What happens when new fails? a) Returns zero always b) Throws an exception always c) Either throws an exception or returns zero d) Terminates the program Answer: c Explanation: While creating new objects, the new operator may fail because of memory errors or due to permissions. At that moment the new operator returns zero or it may throw an exception. The exception can be handled as usual. 4. If new throws an error, which function can be called to write a custom exception handler? a) _set_handler b) _new_handler c) _handler_setter d) _set_new_handler Answer: d Explanation: If the default exception handler has to be replaced by a user defined handler, we can call _set_new_handler runtime library function with the function name as an argument. This lets the programmer to give a custom definition for handling new operator failure. 5. In C++, if new operator is used, when is the constructor called? a) Before the allocation of memory b) After the allocation of memory c) Constructor is called to allocate memory d) Depends on code Answer: b Explanation: The constructor function is called after the allocation of memory. In C++ the feature works in a bit different way. The memory for all the data members is allocated first and then the constructor function is called to finalize the memory allocated. 6. Which among the following is correct syntax to declare a 2D array using new operator? a) char (*pchar)[10] = new char[][10]; b) char (pchar) = new char[][10]; c) char (*char) = new char[10][]; d) char (*char)[][10]= new char; Answer: a Explanation: The new operator usage to declare a 2D array requires a pointer and size of array to be declared. Data type and then the pointer with size of array. The left index can be left blank or any variable can be assigned to it. 7. For declaring data by using new operator ____________________ a) Type name can’t contain const b) Type name can’t contain volatile c) Type name can’t contain class declarations d) Type name can’t contain const, volatile, class declaration or enumerations Answer: d 
Explanation: The declaration of any data where we use new operator, any of the mentioned types are not allowed. This is because the new operator allocated memory based on the type of data which can be allocated dynamically. 8. The new operator _____________ a) Can allocate reference types too b) Doesn’t allocate reference types c) Can allocate reference to objects d) Doesn’t allocate any data Answer: b Explanation: The new operator doesn’t allocate reference types. This is because the reference types are not objects. The new operator is used to allocate memory to the direct objects. 9. Which among the following is true? a) New operator can’t allocate functions but pointer to functions can be allocated b) New operator can allocate functions as well as pointer to functions c) New operator can allocate any type of functions d) New operator is not applicable with functions allocation Answer: a Explanation: The new operator can’t allocate functions but can allocate pointer to the functions. This is a security feature as well as to reduce the ambiguity in code. The new keyword is not given functionality to directly allocate any function. 10. Which among the following is added in grammar of new operator? a) Finalize b) Arg c) Initializer d) Allocator Answer: c Explanation: The new operator grammar is added with an initializer field. This can be used to initialize an object with a user defined constructor. Hence can allocate memory as intended by the programmer. 11. Initializers __________________ a) Are used for specifying arrays b) Are used to defined multidimensional arrays c) Can’t be specified for arrays d) Can’t be specified for any data Answer: c Explanation: The initializers can’t be specified for arrays. The initializers can create arrays of object if and only if the class has a default constructor. That is a zero argument constructor so that it can be called without any argument. 12. The objects allocated using new operator ________________ a) Are destroyed when they go out of scope b) Are not destroyed even if they go out of scope c) Are destroyed anytime d) Are not destroyed throughout the program execution Answer: b Explanation: It is not necessary that the objects get destroyed when they go out of scope if allocated by using new operator. This is because new operator returns a pointer to object that it had allocated. A suitable pointer with proper scope should be defined by the programmer explicitly. 13. The new operator _________________ a) Invokes function operator new b) Doesn’t invoke function operator new c) Invokes function operator only if required d) Can’t invoke function operator new implicitly Answer: a Explanation: The new operator invokes function operator new. This is done to allocate the storage to an object. ::operator new is called for storage allocation implicitly. 14. If a new operator is defined for a class and still global new operator have to be used, which operator should be used with the keyword new? a) Colon b) Arrow c) Dot d) Scope resolution 
Answer: d Explanation: As usual, scope resolution operator is used to get the scope of parent or the global entities. Hence we can use scope resolution operator with the new operator to call the global new operator even if new operator is defined for the class explicitly. 15. How does compiler convert “::operator new” implicitly? a) ::operator new( sizeof( type ) ) b) ::operator new( sizeof( ) ) c) new operator :: type sizeof( type ) d) new sizeof( type ) operator Answer: a Explanation: The compiler implicitly converts the syntax so that the instruction can be understood by the processor and proper machine code can be generated. The conversion is done implicitly and no explicit syntax is required.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Object Array”. 1. What is an array of objects? a) An array of instances of class represented by single name b) An array of instances of class represented by more than one name c) An array of instances which have more than 2 instances d) An array of instances which have different types Answer: a Explanation: The array of objects an array of instances of a class. The array is represented by a single name. The array name is itself a pointer. Array name represents the first object. 2. Which among the following is a mandatory condition for array of objects? a) All the objects should be of different class b) All the objects should be of same program classes c) All the objects should be of same class d) All the objects should have different data Answer: c Explanation: The objects of an array must be of same class. This is mandatory because array is set of same type of elements. The objects of same class are considered to be of same type. 3. What is the type of elements of array of objects? a) Class b) Void c) String d) Null Answer: a Explanation: The class itself is the type of elements of array of objects. All the objects possess the same properties. Like any other primitive data type, the objects are of their respective class type. 4. If array of objects is declared as given below, which is the limitation on objects? Class_name arrayName[size]; a) The objects will have same values b) The objects will not be initialized individually c) The objects can never be initialized d) The objects will have same data Answer: b Explanation: If the syntax given, is used to declare the array of objects, then the objects can’t be initialized individually. All the objects will have to be initialized after this declaration. 5. Which is the condition that must be followed if the array of objects is declared without initialization, only with size of array? a) The class should have separate constructor for each object b) The class must have no constructors c) The class should not have any member function d) The class must have a default or zero argument constructor Answer: d Explanation: The class must have a default/zero argument constructor. Since the declaration is done by only specifying the size of array, the class must have default a construct to be called by default to reserve memory for each object. Also, we can’t specify the arguments in this type of declaration hence the class should provide a default initialization. 6. When are the array of objects without any initialization useful? a) When object data is not required just after the declaration b) When initialization of object data is to be made by the compiler c) When object data doesn’t matter in the program d) When the object should contain garbage data Answer: a Explanation: Sometimes the object data is not mandatory to be used just after the declaration or may be the program requires the data to be updated according to what user inputs. Hence only declaration us also useful. 7. If constructor arguments are passed to objects of array then ____________ if the constructors are overloaded. a) It is mandatory to pass same number of arguments to all the objects b) It is mandatory to pass same type of arguments to all the objects c) It is not mandatory to call same constructor for all the objects 
d) It is mandatory to call same constructor for all the constructors Answer: c Explanation: It is not mandatory to call the same constructor for all the objects in an array if initialized with the declaration. The objects can be passed with different set of arguments in the same syntax, separated by commas. 8. How the objects of array can be denoted? a) Indices b) Name c) Random numbers d) Alphabets Answer: a Explanation: Different objects in an array can be denoted with the indices of array. The first object is denoted by 0. And the further indices denote the next objects in sequence of array. 9. The objects in an object array _______________________ a) Can be created without use of constructor b) Can be created without calling default constructor c) Can’t be created with use of constructor d) Can’t be created without calling default constructor Answer: b Explanation: The objects need some constructor to get the memory spaced reserved for those. If the default constructor is not used then we can use some arguments constructor which will reserve the memory for the objects. The objects can be passed with constructor arguments during declaration. 10. The Object array is created in _____________________ a) Heap memory b) Stack memory c) HDD d) ROM Answer: a Explanation: If the object arrays are declared dynamically, then the memory will be reserved on heap. The memory for objects will be on stack only if some constructor or some call and return tasks are happening. The program doesn’t run on HDD and ROM is not used for the execution of programs. 11. If an array of objects is of size 10 and a data value have to be retrieved from 5th object then ________________ syntax should be used. a) Array_Name[4].data_variable_name; b) Data_Type Array_Name[4].data_variable_name; c) Array_Name[4].data_variable_name.value; d) Array_Name[4].data_variable_name(value); Answer: a Explanation: The array name with the index of fifth element is called, i.e. index 4. Then the dot operator is used to access the data member of that object. This Allows us to access the data members of all the objects in an object array. 12. Can we have two dimensional object array? a) Yes, always b) Yes, only if primitive type array c) No, since two indices are impossible d) No, never Answer: a Explanation: A two dimensional array can always be created. There is no rule that only primitive type objects can have more than one dimension. The object array can also be made 2 dimensional. 13. From which index does the array of objects start? a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 Answer: a Explanation: The index must start from 0. The index ends at size – 1 index. This is because the index is always till n-1 where n is the total number of beads. 14. Two dimensional array can’t be initialized with the declaration. a) True 
b) False Answer: b Explanation: The two dimensional arrays can also be initialized using curly brackets. For each set, values in curly bracket. And then another bracket is added at first and end. This ensures that all the code belongs to the user. 15. Is an array of characters always a string? a) Yes, always b) Yes, if each character is terminated by null c) No, since each character is terminated by null d) No, never Answer: d Explanation: The character arrays are not the same as string. The string once created then remains the same. The character array values may change.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Object Reference”. 1. What is reference to an object? a) It is address of an object b) It is address of where the variables and methods of object are stored c) It is pointer having address of an object d) It is address of only variables and not the methods of an object Answer: b Explanation: Reference indicates the address where the object’s variables and methods are stored. It is not actual address of the object. This is done to directly use the variables and methods whenever required. 2. Whenever an object is assigned to a variable or passed to a method ________________ a) Actually the objects aren’t used b) Actually only the objects are used c) Actually a pointer to an object is used d) Actually copy of object is used Answer: a Explanation: Whenever an object is assigned to a variable or passed to a method, we aren’t actually using objects there. Actually the reference to the objects is used. The reference makes a lot of difference as the main object may or may not get affected depending on the code. 3. Does use of object reference in assignment or passing means copy of the object is being used? a) No, because the copy would create a new temporary variable b) No, because the copy would not help to make changes to main object c) Yes, because the reference directly means using address d) Yes, because the reference directly means the constructors are involved Answer: c Explanation: We can’t say that the reference involves constructors in passing the objects to some method. The reference is used to denote the addresses and hence to point to the main object itself. There is no copy involved. 4. What will be the output of the following code? import java.awt.Point; class Testing { public static void main(String[] args) {  Point p1,p2;  p1=new Point(100,100);  p2=p1;  p1.x=200;  p1.y=200;  System.out.println(“Point 1: ” + p1.x + ”, “ + p1.y);  System.out.println(“Point 2: ” + p2.x + ”, “ + p2.y); } } a) Point 1: 100, 100 Point 2: 200, 200 b) Point 1: 200, 200 Point 2: 100, 100 c) Point 1: 100, 100 Point 2: 100, 100 d) Point 1: 200, 200 Point 2: 200, 200
Answer: d Explanation: The expected output would be like p2 with values 100, 100. But this is not the case. The tricky part is assignment used (p2=p1;). Here a reference is created from object p1 to p2, and not any new object that would copy p1’s values. Hence when we change the values of p1 object members. There changes are reflected to the object p2 also.
5. Is there any explicit use of pointers in java that would be applicable to objects? a) Yes, we use reference for this purpose b) Yes, we use java arrays for this purpose c) No, implicit pointing is possible d) No, direct class names should be used Answer: c Explanation: The question clearly asks if there is any explicit use of pointers related to objects. Pointers are not applicable in java first of all. Secondly, the pointing in java is achieved implicitly using the references and object arrays. 6. Can a super class object give reference to a subclass method? a) No, it is not possible b) Maybe, it is possible c) No, it’s not possible d) No, It’s not possible in few cases only Answer: c Explanation: The object of a super class can never refer to methods of a subclass. Whereas vice versa is possible. If there is an overridden function in subclass, then the object of super class will execute the method of itself and not from the subclass. 7. What will be the output of the following code? import java.awt.Point; class Testing { public static void main(String[] args) {  Point t1,t2,t3;  t1=new Point(100,100);  t2=t1;  t3=t1;  t1.x=200;  t1.y=200;  t2.x=300;  t3.y=500;  System.out.println(“Point 1: ” + p1.x + ”, “ + p1.y); } } a) Point 1: 200, 200 b) Point 1: 100,100 c) Point 1: 300, 300 d) Point 1: 300, 500 Answer: d Explanation: When references are used, all the variables point to the same object. Whenever any of the variable changes any values, it will be reflected to all the variables pointing to the same object. 8. If a reference variable is declared final then _________________ a) It can never be reassigned to refer to a different object b) It can be assigned to refer to any object anytime c) It can never be assigned with any object d) It can be assigned with 2 or more objects simultaneously Answer: a Explanation: Since the variable is declared final. It will have a constant value throughout the program. It can refer to only one object at a time. And if it was made to refer to none of the object, it would have got no use. 9. Which of the members are referred by this pointer usually (Java)? a) Members of class where this is used b) Member of the parent class where this is used c) Members that are passed as argument to the object d) Pointers are not applicable in java 
Answer: a Explanation: We use this pointer to differentiate the members of the class where this is used to the other inherited or passed variables. The local variables are denoted with this. Or specifically the members of class only. 10. How to refer to method of nested class? a) enclosingClassObject.innerClassObject.method(); b) innerClassObject.method(); c) method(); d) depends on where the method is being called Answer: d Explanation: This depends on where the method is being called. If the method is called inside the enclosing class itself. Then we can’t use object of enclosing class. If the method is being called within the inner class itself, then its object will also be of no use. 11. How many objects can be referenced from the same variables? a) One at a time b) Many at a time c) Many using array name d) 7 at max at same time Answer: a Explanation: There should not be any confusion in how many references can be made from a single variable. A single variable can only point to one object at a time. Even if it’s an array, the name of the array is used and is considered one object name only (representing first array element). 12. Java handles memory dynamically and references are deleted as soon as they are out of scope. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: In Java, it is inbuilt feature that handles all the memory dynamically. It is not necessary to free or destroy all the references made from a function which is going out of scope. You can call destroy or free methods explicitly but there is no mandatory rule. 13. Which among the following is true? a) Object referencing refers to methods address b) Object referencing refers to variable of object c) Object referencing points to same address, if assigned by variables d) Object referencing is used to point methods Answer: c Explanation: The object referencing will point to the same address if variables are assigned. All the variables might have a different name but they will point to the same memory location. This is most basic concept of references. 14. Invoking a method on a particular object is ____________ sending a message to that object. a) Different from b) Same as c) Somewhat similar d) Part of Answer: b Explanation: The methods invoked on a particular object is same as sending a message with same values to that object. Message would contain values in a particular format that can be used by the object. And calling a method would be just another way to do the same task. 15. Can reference to an object be returned from a method? a) Yes, always possible b) Yes, but not always c) No, never possible d) No, Not possible because referred element would be destroyed Answer: b Explanation: This is possible but not always, since the reference being returned may get destroyed with the return of method. This is an undesirable condition, hence it is not always possible to return references. But it is always possible if the referred element is not local to the method.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Objects”. 1. Which definition best describes an object? a) Instance of a class b) Instance of itself c) Child of a class d) Overview of a class Answer: a Explanation: An object is instance of its class. It can be declared in the same way that a variable is declared, only thing is you have to use class name as the data type. 2. How many objects can be declared of a specific class in a single program? a) 32768 b) 127 c) 1 d) As many as you want Answer: d Explanation: You can create as many objects of a specific class as you want, provided enough memory is available. 3. Which among the following is false? a) Object must be created before using members of a class b) Memory for an object is allocated only after its constructor is called c) Objects can’t be passed by reference d) Objects size depends on its class data members Answer: c Explanation: Objects can be passed by reference. Objects can be passed by value also. If the object of a class is not created, we can’t use members of that class. 4. Which of the following is incorrect? a) class student{ }s; b) class student{ }; student s; c) class student{ }s[]; d) class student{ }; student s[5]; Answer: c Explanation: The array must be specified with a size. You can’t declare object array, or any other linear array without specifying its size. It’s a mandatory field. 5. The object can’t be __________ a) Passed by reference b) Passed by value c) Passed by copy d) Passed as function Answer: d Explanation: Object can’t be passed as function as it is an instance of some class, it’s not a function. Object can be passed by reference, value or copy. There is no term defined as pass as function for objects. 6. What is size of the object of following class (64 bit system)? class student {  int rollno;  char  name[20];  static int studentno;  }; a) 20 b) 22 c) 24 d) 28 Answer: c Explanation: The size of any object of student class will be of size 4+20=24, because static members are not really considered as property of a single object. So static variables size will not be added. 7. Functions can’t return objects. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: Functions can always return an object if the return type is same as that of object being returned. Care has to be
taken while writing the prototype of the function. 8. How members of an object are accessed? a) Using dot operator/period symbol b) Using scope resolution operator c) Using member names directly d) Using pointer only Answer: a Explanation: Using dot operator after the name of object we can access its members. It is not necessary to use the pointers. We can’t use the names directly because it may be used outside the class. 9. If a local class is defined in a function, which of the following is true for an object of that class? a) Object is accessible outside the function b) Object can be declared inside any other function c) Object can be used to call other class members d) Object can be used/accessed/declared locally in that function Answer: d Explanation: For an object which belongs to a local class, it is mandatory to declare and use the object within the function because the class is accessible locally within the class only. 10. Which among the following is wrong? a) class student{ }; student s; b) abstract class student{ }; student s; c) abstract class student{ }s[50000000]; d) abstract class student{ }; class toppers: public student{ }; topper t; Answer: b Explanation: We can never create instance of an abstract class. Abstract classes doesn’t have constructors and hence when an instance is created there is no facility to initialize its members. Option d is correct because topper class is inheriting the base abstract class student, and hence topper class object can be created easily. 11. Object declared in main() function _____________ a) Can be used by any other function b) Can be used by main() function of any other program c) Can’t be used by any other function d) Can be accessed using scope resolution operator Answer: c Explanation: The object declared in main() have local scope inside main() function only. It can’t be used outside main() function. Scope resolution operator is used to access globally declared variables/objects. 12. When an object is returned___________ a) A temporary object is created to return the value b) The same object used in function is used to return the value c) The Object can be returned without creation of temporary object d) Object are returned implicitly, we can’t say how it happens inside program Answer: a Explanation: A temporary object is created to return the value. It is created because the object used in function is destroyed as soon as the function is returned. The temporary variable returns the value and then gets destroyed. 13. Which among the following is correct? a) class student{ }s1,s2; s1.student()=s2.student(); b) class student{ }s1; class topper{ }t1; s1=t1; c) class student{ }s1,s2; s1=s2; d) class student{ }s1; class topper{ }t1; s1.student()=s2.topper(); Answer: c Explanation: Only if the objects are of same class then their data can be copied from to another using assignment operator. This actually comes under operator overloading. Class constructors can’t be assigned any explicit value as in option class student{ }s1; class topper{ }t1; s1=t1; and class student{ }s1; class topper{ }t1; s1.student()=s2.topper();. 14. Which among following is correct for initializing the class below? class student{ int marks; int cgpa; public: student(int i, int  j){ marks=I;
cgpa=j } }; a) student s[3]={ s(394, 9); s(394, 9); s(394,9); }; b) student s[2]={ s(394,9), s(222,5) }; c) student s[2]={ s1(392,9), s2(222,5) }; d) student s[2]={ s[392,9], s2[222,5] }; Answer: b Explanation: It is the way we can initialize the data members for an object array using parameterized constructor. We can do this to pass our own intended values to initialize the object array data. 15. Object can’t be used with pointers because they belong to user defined class, and compiler can’t decide the type of data may be used inside the class. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The explanation given is wrong because object can always be used with pointers like with any other variables. Compiler doesn’t have to know the structure of the class to use a pointer because the pointers only points to a memory address/stores that address.
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ online quiz focuses on “Types of Constructors”. 1. How many types of constructors are available, in general, in any language? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: b Explanation: There are 3 types of constructors in general, namely, default constructors, parameterized constructors and copy constructors. Default one is called whenever an object is created without arguments. 2. Choose the correct option for the following code. class student {    int marks; } student s1; student s2=2; a) Object s1 should be passed with argument b) Object s2 should not be declared c) Object s2 will not be created, but program runs d) Program gives compile time error Answer: d Explanation: The object s2 can be assigned with one value only if a single argument constructor is defined in class, but here, it can’t be done as no constructor is defined. Hence every object must be declare or created without using arguments. 3. Which constructor is called while assigning some object with another? a) Default b) Parameterized c) Copy d) Direct assignment is used Answer: c Explanation: Copy constructor is used while an object is assigned with another. This is mandatory since we can’t decide which member should be assigned to which member value. By using copy constructor, we can assign the values in required form. 4. It’s necessary to pass object by reference in copy constructor because ____________ a) Constructor is not called in pass by reference b) Constructor is called in pass by reference only c) It passes the address of new constructor to be created d) It passes the address of new object to be created Answer: a Explanation: Object must be passed by reference to copy constructor because constructor is not called in pass by reference. Otherwise, in pass by value, a temporary object will be created which in turn will try to call its constructor that is already being used. This results in creating infinite number of objects and hence memory shortage error will be shown. 5. Which specifier applies only to the constructors? a) Public b) Protected c) Implicit d) Explicit Answer: d Explanation: The keyword explicit can be used while defining the constructor only. This is used to suppress the implicit call to the constructor. It ensures that the constructors are being called with the default syntax only (i.e. only by using object and constructor name). 6. Which among the following is true? a) Default constructor can’t be defined by the programmer b) Default parameters constructor isn’t equivalent to the default constructor c) Default constructor can be called explicitly d) Default constructor is and always called implicitly only Answer: c Explanation: Default constructors can be called explicitly anytime. They are specifically used to allocate memory space for the object in memory, in general. It is not necessary that these should always be called implicitly.
7. Which type of constructor can’t have a return type? a) Default b) Parameterized c) Copy d) Constructors don’t have a return type Answer: d Explanation: Constructors don’t return any value. Those are special functions, whose return type is not defined, not even void. This is so because the constructors are meant to initialize the members of class and not to perform some task which can return some value to newly created object. 8. Why do we use static constructors? a) To initialize the static members of class b) To initialize all the members with static value c) To delete the static members when not required d) To clear all the static members initialized values Answer: a Explanation: Static constructors help in initializing the static members of the class. This is provided because the static members are not considered to be property of the object, rather they are considered as the property of class. 9. When and how many times a static constructor is called? a) Created at time of object destruction b) Called at first time when an object is created and only one time c) Called at first time when an object is created and called with every new object creation d) Called whenever an object go out of scope Answer: b Explanation: Those are called at very first call of object creation. That is called only one time because the value of static members must be retained and continued from the time it gets created. 10. Which among the following is true for static constructor? a) Static constructors are called with every new object b) Static constructors are used initialize data members to zero always c) Static constructors can’t be parameterized constructors d) Static constructors can be used to initialize the non-static members also Answer: c Explanation: Static constructors can’t be parameterized constructors. Those are used to initialize the value of static members only. And that must be a definite value. Accepting arguments may make it possible that static members loses their value with every new object being created. 11. Within a class, only one static constructor can be created. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: Since the static constructors are can’t be parameterized, they can’t be overloaded. Having this case, only one constructor will be possible to be created in a local scope, because the signature will always be same and hence it will not be possible to overload static constructor. 12. Default constructor initializes all data members as ___________ a) All numeric member with some garbage values and string to random string b) All numeric member with some garbage values and string to null c) All numeric member with zero and strings to random value d) All numeric member with zero and strings to null Answer: d Explanation: Default constructor, which even the programmer doesn’t define, always initialize the values as zero if numeric and null if string. This is done so as to avoid the accidental values to change the conditional statements being used and similar conditions. 13. When is the static constructor called? a) After the first instance is created b) Before default constructor call of first instance c) Before first instance is created d) At time of creation of first instance Answer: c Explanation: The static constructor is called before creation of the first instance of that class. This is done so that even the first
instance can use the static value of the static members of the class and manipulate as required. 14. If constructors of a class are defined in private access, then __________ a) The class can’t be inherited b) The class can be inherited c) Instance can be created only in another class d) Instance can be created anywhere in the program Answer: a Explanation: If the constructors are defined in private access, then the class can’t be inherited by other classes. This is useful when the class contains static members only. The instances can never be created. 15. Which among the following is correct, based on the given code below? class student {      int marks;     public : student()     {            cout<<”New student details can be added now”;     } }; student s1; a) Cout can’t be used inside the constructor b) Constructor must contain only initializations c) This program works fine d) This program produces errors Answer: c Explanation: This program will work fine. This is because it is not mandatory that a constructor must contain only initialization only. If you want to perform a task on each instance being created, that code can be written inside the constructor. To practice all areas of Object Oriented Programming using C++ for online Quizzes, .
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ online test focuses on “OOP Basic Concepts”. 1. Which was the first purely object oriented programming language developed? a) Java b) C++ c) SmallTalk d) Kotlin Answer: c Explanation: SmallTalk was the first programming language developed which was purely object oriented. It was developed by Alan Kay. OOP concept came into the picture in 1970’s. 2. Which of the following best defines a class? a) Parent of an object b) Instance of an object c) Blueprint of an object d) Scope of an object Answer: c Explanation: A class is Blueprint of an object which describes/ shows all the functions and data that are provided by an object of a specific class. It can’t be called as parent or instance of an object. Class in general describes all the properties of an object. 3. Who invented OOP? a) Alan Kay b) Andrea Ferro c) Dennis Ritchie d) Adele Goldberg Answer: a Explanation: Alan Kay invented OOP, Andrea Ferro was a part of SmallTalk Development. Dennis invented C++ and Adele Goldberg was in team to develop SmallTalk but Alan actually had got rewarded for OOP. 4. What is the additional feature in classes that was not in structures? a) Data members b) Member functions c) Static data allowed d) Public access specifier Answer: b Explanation: Member functions are allowed inside a class but were not present in structure concept. Data members, static data and public access specifiers were present in structures too. 5. Which is not feature of OOP in general definitions? a) Code reusability b) Modularity c) Duplicate/Redundant data d) Efficient Code Answer: c Explanation: Duplicate/Redundant data is dependent on programmer and hence can’t be guaranteed by OOP. Code reusability is done using inheritance. Modularity is supported by using different code files and classes. Codes are more efficient because of features of OOP. 6. Pure OOP can be implemented without using class in a program. (True or False) a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: It’s false because for a program to be pure OO, everything must be written inside classes. If this rule is violated, the program can’t be labelled as purely OO. 7. Which Feature of OOP illustrated the code reusability? a) Polymorphism b) Abstraction c) Encapsulation d) Inheritance Answer: d Explanation: Using inheritance we can reuse the code already written and also can avoid creation of many new functions or variables, as that can be done one time and be reused, using classes.
8. Which language does not support all 4 types of inheritance? a) C++ b) Java c) Kotlin d) Small Talk Answer: b Explanation: Java doesn’t support all 4 types of inheritance. It doesn’t support multiple inheritance. But the multiple inheritance can be implemented using interfaces in Java. 9. How many classes can be defined in a single program? a) Only 1 b) Only 100 c) Only 999 d) As many as you want Answer: d Explanation: Any number of classes can be defined inside a program, provided that their names are different. In java, if public class is present then it must have the same name as that of file. 10. When OOP concept did first came into picture? a) 1970’s b) 1980’s c) 1993 d) 1995 Answer: a Explanation: OOP first came into picture in 1970’s by Alan and his team. Later it was used by some programming languages and got implemented successfully, SmallTalk was first language to use pure OOP and followed all rules strictly. 11. Why Java is Partially OOP language? a) It supports usual declaration of primitive data types b) It doesn’t support all types of inheritance c) It allows code to be written outside classes d) It does not support pointers Answer: a Explanation: As Java supports usual declaration of data variables, it is partial implementation of OOP. Because according to rules of OOP, object constructors must be used, even for declaration of variables. 12. Which concept of OOP is false for C++? a) Code can be written without using classes b) Code must contain at least one class c) A class must have member functions d) At least one object should be declared in code Answer: b Explanation: In C++, it’s not necessary to use classes, and hence codes can be written without using OOP concept. Classes may or may not contain member functions, so it’s not a necessary condition in C++. And, an object can only be declared in a code if its class is defined/included via header file. 13. Which header file is required in C++ to use OOP? a) iostream.h b) stdio.h c) stdlib.h d) OOP can be used without using any header file Answer: d Explanation: We need not include any specific header file to use OOP concept in C++, only specific functions used in code need their respective header files to be included or classes should be defined if needed. 14. Which of the two features match each other? a) Inheritance and Encapsulation b) Encapsulation and Polymorphism c) Encapsulation and Abstraction d) Abstraction and Polymorphism Answer: c Explanation: Encapsulation and Abstraction are similar features. Encapsulation is actually binding all the properties in a single class or we can say hiding all the features of object inside a class. And Abstraction is hiding unwanted data (for user) and
showing only the data required by the user of program. 15. Which feature allows open recursion, among the following? a) Use of this pointer b) Use of pointers c) Use of pass by value d) Use of parameterized constructor Answer: a Explanation: Use of this pointer allows an object to call data and methods of itself whenever needed. This helps us call the members of an object recursively, and differentiate the variables of different scopes.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “OOP Features”. 1. Which feature of OOP indicates code reusability? a) Encapsulation b) Inheritance c) Abstraction d) Polymorphism Answer: b Explanation: Inheritance indicates the code reusability. Encapsulation and abstraction are meant to hide/group data into one element. Polymorphism is to indicate different tasks performed by a single entity. 2. If a function can perform more than 1 type of tasks, where the function name remains same, which feature of OOP is used here? a) Encapsulation b) Inheritance c) Polymorphism d) Abstraction Answer: c Explanation: For the feature given above, the OOP feature used is Polymorphism. Example of polymorphism in real life is a kid, who can be a student, a son, a brother depending on where he is. 3. If different properties and functions of a real world entity is grouped or embedded into a single element, what is it called in OOP language? a) Inheritance b) Polymorphism c) Abstraction d) Encapsulation Answer: d Explanation: It is Encapsulation, which groups different properties and functions of a real world entity into single element. Abstraction, on other hand, is hiding of functional or exact working of codes and showing only the things which are required by the user. 4. Which of the following is not a feature of pure OOP? a) Classes must be used b) Inheritance c) Data may/may not be declared using object d) Functions Overloading Answer: c Explanation: Data must be declared using objects. Object usage is mandatory because it in turn calls its constructors, which in turn must have a class defined. If object is not used, it is a violation of pure OOP concept. 5. Which among the following doesn’t come under OOP concept? a) Platform independent b) Data binding c) Message passing d) Data hiding Answer: a Explanation: Platform independence is not feature of OOP. C++ supports OOP but it’s not a platform independent language. Platform independence depends on programming language. 6. Which feature of OOP is indicated by the following code? class student{  int marks;  }; class topper:public student{  int age;  topper(int age){ this.age=age; } }; a) Inheritance b) Polymorphism c) Inheritance and polymorphism d) Encapsulation and Inheritance Answer: d Explanation: Encapsulation is indicated by use of classes. Inheritance is shown by inheriting the student class into topper class. Polymorphism is not shown here because we have defined the constructor in the topper class but that doesn’t mean that default constructor is overloaded.
7. Which feature may be violated if we don’t use classes in a program? a) Inheritance can’t be implemented b) Object must be used is violated c) Encapsulation only is violated d) Basically all the features of OOP gets violated Answer: d Explanation: All the features are violated because Inheritance and Encapsulation won’t be implemented. Polymorphism and Abstraction are still possible in some cases, but the main features like data binding, object use and etc won’t be used hence the use of class is must for OOP concept. 8. How many basic features of OOP are required for a programming language to be purely OOP? a) 7 b) 6 c) 5 d) 4 Answer: a Explanation: There are 7 basic features that define whether a programing language is pure OOP or not. The 4 basic features are inheritance, polymorphism, encapsulation and abstraction. Further, one is, object use is must, secondly, message passing and lastly, Dynamic binding. 9. The feature by which one object can interact with another object is _____________ a) Data transfer b) Data Binding c) Message Passing d) Message reading Answer: c Explanation: The interaction between two object is called the message passing feature. Data transfer is not a feature of OOP. Also, message reading is not a feature of OOP. 10. ___________ underlines the feature of Polymorphism in a class. a) Nested class b) Enclosing class c) Inline function d) Virtual Function Answer: d Explanation: Virtual Functions can be defined in any class using the keyword virtual. All the classes which inherit the class containing the virtual function, define the virtual function as required. Redefining the function on all the derived classes according to class and use represents polymorphism. 11. Which feature in OOP is used to allocate additional function to a predefined operator in any language? a) Operator Overloading b) Function Overloading c) Operator Overriding d) Function Overriding Answer: a Explanation: The feature is operator overloading. There is not a feature named operator overriding specifically. Function overloading and overriding doesn’t give addition function to any operator. 12. Which among doesn’t illustrates polymorphism? a) Function overloading b) Function overriding c) Operator overloading d) Virtual function Answer: b Explanation: Function overriding doesn’t illustrate polymorphism because the functions are actually different and theirs scopes are different. Function and operator overloading illustrate proper polymorphism. Virtual functions show polymorphism because all the classes which inherit virtual function, define the same function in different ways. 13. Exception handling is a feature of OOP. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: Exception handling is a feature of OOP as it includes classes concept in most of the cases. Also it may come
handy while using inheritance. 14. Which among the following, for a pure OOP language, is true? a) The language should follow 3 or more features of OOP b) The language should follow at least 1 feature of OOP c) The language must follow only 3 features of OOP d) The language must follow all the rules of OOP Answer: d Explanation: The language must follow all the rules of OOP to be called a purely OOP language. Even if a single OOP feature is not followed, then it’s known to be a partially OOP language. 15. Does OOP provide better security than POP? a) Always true for any programming language b) May not be true with respect to all programming languages c) It depends on type of program d) It’s vice-versa is true Answer: a Explanation: It is always true as we have the facility of private and protected access specifiers. Also, only the public and global data are available globally or else the program should have proper permission to access the private data.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Overloading Constructors”. 1. Which among the following best describes constructor overloading? a) Defining one constructor in each class of a program b) Defining more than one constructor in single class c) Defining more than one constructor in single class with different signature d) Defining destructor with each constructor Answer: c Explanation: If more than one constructors are defined in a class with same signature, then that results in error. The signatures must be different. So that the constructors can be differentiated. 2. Can constructors be overloaded in derived class? a) Yes, always b) Yes, if derived class has no constructor c) No, programmer can’t do it d) No, never Answer: d Explanation: The constructor must be having the same name as that of a class. Hence a constructor of one class can’t even be defined in another class. Since the constructors can’t be defined in derived class, it can’t be overloaded too, in derived class. 3. Does constructor overloading include different return types for constructors to be overloaded? a) Yes, if return types are different, signature becomes different b) Yes, because return types can differentiate two functions c) No, return type can’t differentiate two functions d) No, constructors doesn’t have any return type Answer: d Explanation: The constructors doesn’t have any return type. When we can’t have return type of a constructor, overloading based on the return type is not possible. Hence only parameters can be different. 4. Which among the following is possible way to overload constructor? a) Define default constructor, 1 parameter constructor and 2 parameter constructor b) Define default constructor, zero argument constructor and 1 parameter constructor c) Define default constructor, and 2 other parameterized constructors with same signature d) Define 2 default constructors Answer: a Explanation: All the constructors defined in a class must have a different signature in order to be overloaded. Here one default and other parameterized constructors are used, wherein one is of only one parameter and other accepts two. Hence overloading is possible. 5. Which constructor will be called from the object created in the code below? class A {  int i; A() {   i=0; cout&lt;&lt;i;  } A(int x=0) {   i=x;  cout&lt;&lt;I;   } }; A obj1; a) Default constructor b) Parameterized constructor c) Compile time error d) Run time error Answer: c Explanation: When a default constructor is defined and another constructor with 1 default value argument is defined, creating object without parameter will create ambiguity for the compiler. The compiler won’t be able to decide which constructor should be called, hence compile time error.
6. Which among the following is false for a constructor? a) Constructors doesn’t have a return value b) Constructors are always user defined c) Constructors are overloaded with different signature d) Constructors may or may not have any arguments being accepted Answer: b Explanation: The constructors are not always user defined. The construct will be provided implicitly from the compiler if the used doesn’t defined any constructor. The implicit constructor makes all the string values null and allocates memory space for each data member. 7. When is the constructor called for an object? a) As soon as overloading is required b) As soon as class is derived c) As soon as class is created d) As soon as object is created Answer: d Explanation: The constructor is called as soon as the object is created. The overloading comes into picture as to identify which constructor have to be called depending on arguments passed in the creation of object. 8. Which among the following function can be used to call default constructor implicitly in java? a) this() b) that() c) super() d) sub() Answer: a Explanation: The function this() can be used to call the default constructor from inside any other constructor. This helps to further reuse the code and not to write the redundant data in all the constructors. 9. Why do we use constructor overloading? a) To use different types of constructors b) Because it’s a feature provided c) To initialize the object in different ways d) To differentiate one constructor from another Answer: c Explanation: The constructors are overloaded to initialize the objects of a class in different ways. This allows us to initialize the object with either default values or used given values. If data members are not initialized then program may give unexpected results. 10. If programmer have defined parameterized constructor only, then __________________ a) Default constructor will not be created by the compiler implicitly b) Default constructor will be created by the compiler implicitly c) Default constructor will not be created but called at runtime d) Compile time error Answer: a Explanation: When the programmer doesn’t specify any default constructor and only defines some parameterized constructor. The compiler doesn’t provide any default constructor implicitly. This is because it is assumed that the programmer will create the objects only with constructors. 11. Which among the following is not valid in java? a) Constructor overloading b) Recursive constructor call c) Default value constructors d) String argument constructor Answer: b Explanation: Java doesn’t provide the feature to recursively call the constructor. This is to eliminate the out of memory error in some cases that arises unexpectedly. That is an predefined condition for constructors in java. 12. Which constructor will be called from the object obj2 in the following program? class A { int i; A() {  
  i=0;   } A(int x) {    i=x+1;   } A(int y, int x) {    i=x+y;   } }; A obj1(10); A obj2(10,20); A obj3; a) A(int x) b) A(int y) c) A(int y, int x) d) A(int y; int x) Answer: c Explanation: The two argument constructor will be called as we are passing 2 arguments to the object while creation. The arguments will be passed together and hence compiler resolves that two argument constructor have to be called. 13. What are we only create an object but don’t call any constructor for it in java? a) Implicit constructor will be called b) Object is initialized to some null values c) Object is not created d) Object is created but points to null Answer: d Explanation: The object becomes a reference object which can be initialized will another object. Then this object will indirectly become another name of the object being assigned. If not assigned, it simply points to null address. 14. Which among the following is false? a) Constructor can’t be overloaded in Kotlin b) Constructors can’t be called recursively in java c) Constructors can be overloaded in C++ d) Constructors overloading depends on different signatures Answer: a Explanation: Kotlin language allows constructor overloading. This is a basic feature for the constructors. The constructor overloading allows the object to be initialized according to the user. 15. Which is correct syntax? a) classname objectname= new() integer; b) classname objectname= new classname; c) classname objectname= new classname(); d) classname objectname= new() classname(); Answer: c Explanation: The syntax for object creating in java with calling a constructor for is it is as in option c. The syntax must contain the classname followed by the object name. The keyword new must be used and then the constructor call with or without the parameters as required.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “This Pointer”. 1. Which is the pointer which denotes the object calling the member function? a) Variable pointer b) This pointer c) Null pointer d) Zero pointer Answer: b Explanation: The pointer which denotes the object calling the member function is known as this pointer. The this pointer is usually used when there are members in the function with same name as those of the class members. 2. Which among the following is true? a) this pointer is passed implicitly when member functions are called b) this pointer is passed explicitly when member functions are called c) this pointer is passed with help of pointer member functions are called d) this pointer is passed with help of void pointer member functions are called Answer: a Explanation: When an object calls some member function, it implicitly passes itself as an argument. This allows the compiler to know which member should be used for the purposes. This also allows to reduce the ambiguity among the variable and data member names. 3. The this pointer is accessible __________________ a) Within all the member functions of the class b) Only within functions returning void c) Only within non-static functions d) Within the member functions with zero arguments Answer: c Explanation: The this pointer is available only within the non-static member functions of a class. If the member function is static, it will be common to all the objects and hence a single object can’t refer to those functions independently. 4. An object’s this pointer _____________________ a) Isn’t part of class b) Isn’t part of program c) Isn’t part of compiler d) Isn’t part of object itself Answer: d Explanation: The object’s this pointer being called are not part of the object itself. This can be cross verified by checking that it doesn’t take up any space for the data to be stored or pointed. 5. The result of sizeof() function __________________ a) Includes space reserved for this pointer b) Includes space taken up by the address pointer by this pointer c) Doesn’t include the space taken by this pointer d) Doesn’t include space for any data member Answer: c Explanation: The space taken by this pointer is not reflected in by the sizeof() operator. This is because object’s this pointer is not part of object itself. This is a cross verification for the concept stating that this pointer doesn’t take any space in the object. 6. Whenever non-static member functions are called _______________ a) Address of the object is passed implicitly as an argument b) Address of the object is passed explicitly as an argument c) Address is specified globally so that the address is not used again d) Address is specified as return type of the function Answer: a Explanation: The address is passed implicitly as an argument to the function. This doesn’t have to be passed explicitly. The address is passed, of the object which is calling the non-static member function. 7. Which is the correct interpretation of the member function call from an object, object.function(parameter); a) object.function(&this, parameter) b) object(&function,parameter) c) function(&object,&parameter) d) function(&object,parameter) Answer: d 
Explanation: The function name is specified first and then the parameter lists. The parameter list is included with the object name along with & symbol. This denotes that the address of the object is being passed as an argument. 8. The address of the object _________________ a) Can’t be accessed from inside the function b) Can’t be accessed in the program c) Is available inside the member function using this pointer d) Can be accessed using the object name inside the member function Answer: c Explanation: The address of the object with respect to which the member functions are being called, are stored in this pointer. This pointer is hence used whenever there are members with same name as those of the variables inside the function. 9. Which among the following is true? a) This pointer can be used to guard against any kind of reference b) This pointer can be used to guard against self-reference c) This pointer can be used to guard from other pointers d) This pointer can be used to guard from parameter referencing Answer: b Explanation: The this pointer can be used to guard itself whenever self-reference is used. This allows accidental address access. And accidental modification of data. 10. Which syntax doesn’t execute/is false when executed? a) if(&object != this) b) if(&function !=object) c) this.if(!this) d) this.function(!this) Answer: a Explanation: The condition becomes false when executed and hence doesn’t executes. This is the case where this pointer can guard itself from the self-reference. Here if the address of the object doesn’t match with this pointer that means the object doesn’t refer itself. 11. The this pointers _____________________ a) Are modifiable b) Can be assigned any value c) Are made variables d) Are non-modifiable Answer: d Explanation: The this pointer is non modifiable. This is because the address of any object remains constant throughout its life time. Hence the address must not be changed otherwise wrong members of invalid addresses might get accessed. 12. Earlier implementations of C++ ___________________ a) Never allowed assignment to this pointer b) Allowed no assignment to this pointer c) Allowed assignments to this pointer d) Never allowed assignment to any pointer Answer: c Explanation: The earlier, most initial versions of C++ used to allow assignments to this pointers. That used to allow modifications of this pointer. Later that feature got disabled. 13. This pointer can be used directly to ___________ a) To manipulate self-referential data structures b) To manipulate any reference to pointers to member functions c) To manipulate class references d) To manipulate and disable any use of pointers Answer: a Explanation: This is a feature provided, that can be used directly. The manipulation of self-referential data structures is just an application of this feature. Other conditions fails as this pointer doesn’t deal with those things. 14. Which among the following is/are type(s) of this pointer? a) const b) volatile c) const or volatile d) int Answer: c 
Explanation: The this pointer can be declared const or volatile. This depends on need of program and type of code. This is just an additional feature. 15. Which is the correct syntax for declaring the type of this in a member function? a) classType [cv-qualifier-list] *const this; b) classType const[cv-qualifier-list] *this; c) [cv-qualifier-list]*const classType this; d) [cv-qualifier-list] classType *const this; Answer: d Explanation: The syntax contains the cv-qualifier-list that can be determined from the member function declaratory that can be either const or volatile or can be made both. Hence we write it as list. classType denotes the name of class to mention to which class does the object belong to. And *const this denotes that the this pointer is having a constant value.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Polymorphism”. 1. Which among the following best describes polymorphism? a) It is the ability for a message/data to be processed in more than one form b) It is the ability for a message/data to be processed in only 1 form c) It is the ability for many messages/data to be processed in one way d) It is the ability for undefined message/data to be processed in at least one way Answer: a Explanation: It is actually the ability for a message / data to be processed in more than one form. The word polymorphism indicates many-forms. So if a single entity takes more than one form, it is known as polymorphism. 2. What do you call the languages that support classes but not polymorphism? a) Class based language b) Procedure Oriented language c) Object-based language d) If classes are supported, polymorphism will always be supported Answer: c Explanation: The languages which support classes but doesn’t support polymorphism, are known as object-based languages. Polymorphism is such an important feature, that is a language doesn’t support this feature, it can’t be called as a OOP language. 3. Which among the following is the language which supports classes but not polymorphism? a) SmallTalk b) Java c) C++ d) Ada Answer: d Explanation: Ada is the language which supports the concept of classes but doesn’t support the polymorphism feature. It is an object-based programming language. Note that it’s not an OOP language. 4. If same message is passed to objects of several different classes and all of those can respond in a different way, what is this feature called? a) Inheritance b) Overloading c) Polymorphism d) Overriding Answer: c Explanation: The feature defined in question defines polymorphism features. Here the different objects are capable of responding to the same message in different ways, hence polymorphism. 5. Which class/set of classes can illustrate polymorphism in the following code? abstract class student {   public : int marks;   calc_grade(); } class topper:public student {    public : calc_grade()    {         return 10;     } }; class average:public student {      public : calc_grade()     {         return 20;      } }; class failed{ int marks; }; a) Only class student can show polymorphism b) Only class student and topper together can show polymorphism c) All class student, topper and average together can show polymorphism 
d) Class failed should also inherit class student for this code to work for polymorphism Answer: c Explanation: Since Student class is abstract class and class topper and average are inheriting student, class topper and average must define the function named calc_grade(); in abstract class. Since both the definition are different in those classes, calc_grade() will work in different way for same input from different objects. Hence it shows polymorphism. 6. Which type of function among the following shows polymorphism? a) Inline function b) Virtual function c) Undefined functions d) Class member functions Answer: b Explanation: Only virtual functions among these can show polymorphism. Class member functions can show polymorphism too but we should be sure that the same function is being overloaded or is a function of abstract class or something like this, since we are not sure about all these, we can’t say whether it can show polymorphism or not. 7. In case of using abstract class or function overloading, which function is supposed to be called first? a) Local function b) Function with highest priority in compiler c) Global function d) Function with lowest priority because it might have been halted since long time, because of low priority Answer: b Explanation: Function with highest priority is called. Here, it’s not about the thread scheduling in CPU, but it focuses on whether the function in local scope is present or not, or if scope resolution is used in some way, or if the function matches the argument signature. So all these things define which function has the highest priority to be called in runtime. Local function could be one of the answer but we can’t say if someone have used pointer to another function or same function name. 8. Which among the following can’t be used for polymorphism? a) Static member functions b) Member functions overloading c) Predefined operator overloading d) Constructor overloading Answer: a Explanation: Static member functions are not property of any object. Hence it can’t be considered for overloading/overriding. For polymorphism, function must be property of object, not only of class. 9. What is output of the following program? class student {     public : int marks;  void disp()  {   cout<<”its base class” }; class topper:public student {  public :   void disp()  {    cout<<”Its derived class”;   } } void main() { student s; topper t; s.disp(); t.disp(); } a) Its base classIts derived class b) Its base class Its derived class c) Its derived classIts base class d) Its derived class Its base class Answer: a Explanation: You need to focus on how the output is going to be shown, no space will be given after first message from base class. And then the message from derived class will be printed. Function disp() in base class overrides the function of base
class being derived. 10. Which among the following can show polymorphism? a) Overloading || b) Overloading += c) Overloading << d) Overloading && Answer: c Explanation: Only insertion operator can be overloaded among all the given options. And the polymorphism can be illustrated here only if any of these is applicable of being overloaded. Overloading is type of polymorphism. 11. Find the output of the following program. class education {  char name[10]; public : disp() {   cout<<”Its education system”; } class school:public education {  public: void dsip()  {    cout<<”Its school education system”;  }    }; void main() {                school s;                s.disp(); } } a) Its school education system b) Its education system c) Its school education systemIts education system d) Its education systemIts school education system Answer: a Explanation: Notice that the function name in derived class is different from the function name in base class. Hence when we call the disp() function, base class function is executed. No polymorphism is used here. 12. Polymorphism is possible in C language. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: It is possible to implement polymorphism in C language, even though it doesn’t support class. We can use structures and then declare pointers which in turn points to some function. In this way we simulate the functions like member functions but not exactly member function. Now we can overload these functions, hence implementing polymorphism in C language. 13. Which problem may arise if we use abstract class functions for polymorphism? a) All classes are converted as abstract class b) Derived class must be of abstract type c) All the derived classes must implement the undefined functions d) Derived classes can’t redefine the function Answer: c Explanation: The undefined functions must be defined is a problem, because one may need to implement few undefined functions from abstract class, but he will have to define each of the functions declared in abstract class. Being useless task, it is a problem sometimes. 14. Which among the following is not true for polymorphism? a) It is feature of OOP b) Ease in readability of program c) Helps in redefining the same functionality d) Increases overhead of function definition always 
Answer: d Explanation: It never increases function definition overhead, one way or another if you don’t use polymorphism, you will use the definition in some other way, so it actually helps to write efficient codes. 15. If 2 classes derive one base class and redefine a function of base class, also overload some operators inside class body. Among these two things of function and operator overloading, where is polymorphism used? a) Function overloading only b) Operator overloading only c) Both of these are using polymorphism d) Either function overloading or operator overloading because polymorphism can be applied only once in a program Answer: d Explanation: Both of them are using polymorphism. It is not necessary that polymorphism can be used only once in a program, it can be used anywhere, any number of times in a single program.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Private Access Specifier”. 1. If a function has to be called only by using other member functions of the class, what should be the access specifier used for that function? a) Private b) Protected c) Public d) Default Answer: a Explanation: The function should be made private. In this way, the function will be available to be called only from the class member functions. Hence the function will be secure from the outside world. 2. Which among the following is correct for the code given below? class student {   private: student() {   } public : student( int x)  {   marks =x;  } }; a) The object can never be created b) The object can be created without parameters c) Only the object with only 1 parameter can be created d) Only the object with some parameters can be created Answer: c Explanation: For creating object without parameters, the default constructor must be defined in public access. But here, only parameterized constructor is public, hence the objects being created with only one parameter will only be allowed. 3. Which among the following is true for the code given below? class A { private : int marks; char name[20]; public : A(int x=100) {   marks=x;   } }; a) Objects can be created with one parameter or without parameter b) Object can be created only with one parameter c) Object can be created with more than one parameter d) Objects can be create only without parameter Answer: a Explanation: The constructor here has a default argument constructor. Hence we can pass one parameter, but that is optional. If an object is created without parameter, the default value will be used in the constructor definition. 4. Which among the following is correct to call a private member from outside the class? a) object.memberfunction( parameters ); b) object->memberfunction( parameters ); c) object->memberfunction( parameteres); or object.memberfunction( parameters ); d) Not possible Answer: d Explanation: The private member function will not be accessible from outside the class. Hence any syntax will not work to access the private members. If you have the address of the member, may be you can access those members, but that is a totally different case and concept. 5. If private members have to be accessed directly from outside the class but the access specifier must not be changed, what should be done? 
a) Specifier must be changed b) Friend function should be used c) Other public members should be used d) It is not possible Answer: b Explanation: For calling the function directly, we can’t use another function because that will be indirect call. Using friend function, we can access the private members directly. 6. Which access specifier is/are most secure during inheritance? a) Private b) Default c) Protected d) Private and default Answer: a Explanation: The private members are most secure in inheritance. The default members can still be in inherited in special cases, but the private members can’t be accessed in any case. 7. Choose the correct option for the code given below. class A{ static int c=0; public: A(){ c++; } }; a) Constructor will make c=1 for each object created b) Constructor will make c=0 for each object created c) Constructor will keep number of objects created d) Constructor will just initialize c=0 then increment by 1 Answer: c Explanation: The constructor is using a static member to keep the count of the number of objects created. This is done because the variable c is static and hence the value will be common for all the objects created. 8. Which option is false for the following code? class A { private : int sum(int x, int y) {   return x+y;  } public: A() {   } A(int x, int y) {   cout&lt;&lt;sum(x,y);   } }; a) Constructor can be created with zero argument b) Constructor prints sum, if two parameters are passed with object creation c) Constructor will give error if float values are passed d) Constructor will take 0 as default value of parameters if not passed Answer: d Explanation: Constructor is not having any default arguments hence no default value will be given to any parameters. Only integer values must be passed to the constructor if we need the sum as output, otherwise if float values are passed, type mismatch will be shown as error. 9. Which member will never be used from the following class? class A() {  int marks; char name[20]; public : A() {   marks=100;  } void disp() {   cout&lt;&lt;”Marks= ”&lt'&lt;marks;  cout&lt;&lt;”Student”;
 } }; a) name variable will never be used b) marks variable will never be used c) constructor will never be used d) disp() function will never be used Answer: a Explanation: Variable name will never be used. It is a private member. None other than class members can access name, also, neither the constructor nor the disp() function are accessing the variable name. Hence it will never be accessible. 10. Private member functions can be overloaded. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The private functions can also be overloaded. This can be done in usual way by having the same name of the member function and having different signature. Only thing is, they must be accessed from members of class only. 11. Which among the following is true? a) Private member functions can’t be overloaded b) Private member functions can be overridden c) Private member functions can’t be overloaded with a public member d) Private member function can’t be overridden Answer: d Explanation: The private member functions can be overloaded but they can’t be overridden. This is because, overriding means a function with same name in derived class, gets more priority when called from object of derived class. Here, the member function is private so there is no way that it can be overridden. 12. Which data member in following code will be used whenever an object is created? Class A {    int x; int y; int z;   public : A()   {       y=100; x=100*y;    } }; a) x will be used b) y will be used c) z will be used d) All will be used Answer: c Explanation: Whenever an object will be created, the constructor will be called. Inside constructor we are using the data members x and y. Hence these two will always be used with each object creation. 13. Which member can be considered most secure in the code below? class A() { int a; private : int b; protected : int c; public : int d; }; a) a b) b c) c d) d Answer: b Explanation: The default variables can be inherited in some special cases but the public members can never be inherited. Hence the most secure data member in the class is b. 14. Which among the following is correct for the code given below?
class A { private : A() {  } public : A(int x) {   } }; A a; A b(100); a) Program will give compile time error b) Program will run fine c) Program will give runtime error d) Program will give logical error Answer: a Explanation: The program will be giving a compile time error as the default constructor is private in class. And, the logical errors are usually runtime so we can’t say that the program will give logical error. The program will not run. 15. Which among the following is correct? a) Private specifier must be used before public specifier b) Private specifier must be used before protected specifier c) Private specifier must be used first d) Private specifier can be used anywhere in class Answer: d Explanation: The private specifier can be used anywhere in the class as required. It is not a rule to mention the private members first and then others. It is just followed to write first for better readability.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Public Access Specifier”. 1. Which among the following is true for the code given below? class A { int marks; public : disp() {   cout&lt;&lt;marks;  } } class B: protected A { char name[20]; } A a; a.disp(); B b; b.disp(); a) Only object of class A can access disp() function b) Only object of class B can access disp() function c) Both instances can access disp() function d) Accessing disp() outside class is not possible Answer: a Explanation: The object of class A can access the disp() function. This is because the disp() function is public in definition of class A. But it can’t be accessed from instance of class B because the disp() function is protected in class B, since it was inherited as protected. 2. If the members have to be accessed from anywhere in the program and other packages also, which access specifier should be used? a) Public b) Private c) Protected d) Default Answer: a Explanation: The access specifier must be public so as to access the members outside the class and anywhere within the program without using inheritance. This is a rule, predefined for the public members. 3. Which among the following have least security according to the access permissions allowed? a) Private b) Default c) Protected d) Public Answer: d Explanation: The public members are available to the whole program. This makes the members most vulnerable to accidental changes, which may result in unwanted modification and hence unstable programming. 4. Which among the following can be used for outermost class access specifier in java? a) Private b) Public c) Default d) Default or Public Answer: d Explanation: Either default or public access specifier must be used for outermost classes. Private can be used with inner classes. This is done so that all the members can access and use the utmost class and that program execution can be done from anywhere. Inner classes can be made private for security. 5. We can reduce the visibility of inherited methods. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The statement given is false. This is because when we inherit the members they can either be made more secure or be at same access. But the visibility reduction is not possible, for example, if a member is protected in parent class, then it can only be made protected or private in subclass and not public in any case.
6. If members of a super class are public, then________ a) All those will be available in subclasses b) None of those will be available in subclasses c) Only data members will be available in subclass d) Only member functions will be available in subclass Answer: a Explanation: All the members will be available in subclasses. Though it is not guaranteed whether the members will be available in subsequent subclasses from the first subclass. 7. How many public class(s) (outermost) can be there in a java program? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) As required Answer: a Explanation: There can be only one public class in a java program. The public class name must match the name of file. And there can’t be more than one class with same name in a single program in same scope. Hence it is not possible to have more than one public class in java program. 8. What is the output of the following code? package pack1; class A { public A() {   System.out.print(“object created”);  }   } package pack2; import pack1.*; class B { A a=new A(); } a) Output is: object created b) Output is: object createdobject created c) Compile time error d) Run time error Answer: c Explanation: The program will give compile time error. Class A is defined with default access specifier. This directly means that class A will be available within package only. Even if the constructor is public, the object will not be created. 9. Which among the following for public specifier is false? a) The static members can’t be public b) The public members are available in other packages too c) The subclasses can inherit the public members privately d) There can be only one public class in java program Answer: a Explanation: The static members are not property of any object of the class. Instead, those are treated as property of class. This allows us to have public static members too. 10. A class has its default constructor defined as public. Class B inherits class A privately. The class ___________ a) B will not be able to have instances b) Only A can have instances c) Only B can have instances d) Both classes can have instances Answer: d Explanation: Class A can have instances as it has public default constructor. Class will have its own constructors defined. Hence both classes can have instances. 11. Which specifier can be used to inherit protected members as protected in subclass but public as public in subclass? a) Private b) Default 
c) Public d) Protected Answer: c Explanation: The specifier that can make protected member’s protected in subclass and public member’s public in subclass, is public. This is done to maintain the security level of protected members of parent class. 12. Which among the following is true for public class? a) There can be more than one public class in a single program b) Public class members can be used without using instance of class c) Public class is available only within the package d) Public classes can be accessed from any other class using instance Answer: d Explanation: The public class is a usual class. There is no special rule but the members of the class can be accessed from other classes using instance of the class. This is usually useful to define main() function. 13. If a class doesn’t have public members, then________ a) None of its members will be able to get inherited b) None of its instance creation will be allowed c) None of its member function can be called outside the class d) None of its data members will be able to get initial value Answer: c Explanation: According to rule of private, protected and default access specifiers, none of the members under these specifiers will be able to get invoked outside the class. We are not sure about the members of class specifically so other options doesn’t give a fixed answer. 14. In multi-level inheritance(all public), the public members of parent/superclass will ________ a) Will continue to get inherited subsequently b) Will not be inherited after one subclass inheritance c) Will not be available to be called outside class d) Will not be able to allocated with any memory space Answer: a Explanation: The public inheritance makes the public members of the base class, public in derived classes. This can be used when the same feature have to be redefined with each new class inheriting the base class. 15. Which specifier allows to secure the public members of base class in inherited classes? a) Private b) Protected c) Public d) Private and Protected Answer: d Explanation: Both the private and protected specifiers can make the public members of the base class more secure. This is useful if we stop using the parent class members and use the classes which inherited the parent class, so as to secure data better.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Public Member Functions”. 1. What are public member functions? a) Functions accessible outside the class but not in derived class b) Functions accessible outside the class directly c) Functions accessible everywhere using object of class d) Functions that can’t be accessed outside the class Answer: c Explanation: The most suitable definition would be that public member functions are accessible everywhere using object of the class. If derived classes are using those, derived class object can be used to call those functions. 2. Which among the following is true for public member functions? a) Public member functions doesn’t have a return type b) Public member functions doesn’t have any security c) Public member functions are declared outside the class d) Public member functions can be called using object of class Answer: d Explanation: The public member functions can be called using object of the class. The members can’t be declared outside the class as those would become non-member functions of the class. The functions have security as those can be accessed using the class object only. 3. Which type of member functions get inherited in the same specifier in which the inheritance is done? (If private inheritance is used, those become private and if public used, those become public) a) Private member functions b) Protected member functions c) Public member functions d) All member functions Answer: c Explanation: The public member functions gets into the same specifier in which the inheritance is done. If protected members are involved in public inheritance, still those remain protected in the derived class but public members become public on public inheritance and protected in protected inheritance. 4. Which syntax among the following is correct for public member functions? a) public::void functionName(parameters) b) public void functionName(parameters) c) public(void functionName(parameters)) d) public:-void functionName(Parameters) Answer: b Explanation: The public member functions declaration must be mentioned with the keyword public. The syntax given is used in java. Keyword public is followed by the usual function declaration. 5. Which syntax is applicable to declare public member functions in C++? a) public: <function declaration> b) public(<function declaration>) c) public void <function declaration> d) public::<function declaration> Answer: a Explanation: The syntax in C++ must contain the public keyword followed by a colon. Thereafter, all the public members can be declared. But in few other language, public have to be mentioned explicitly with each member. 6. In java, which rule among the following is applicable? a) Keyword public can’t be preceded with all the public members b) Keyword public must be preceded with all the public members c) Keyword public must be post mentioned the function declaration d) Keyword public is not mandatory Answer: b Explanation: The public members in java must be preceded with the keyword public. It must be mentioned with each public member, unlike C++ where we mention it only once. In java, each member must have explicit declaration of specifier type. 7. How many public members are allowed in a class? a) Only 1 b) At most 7 c) Exactly 3 
d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: The number of public members that can be defined in a class doesn’t have any limit. Though the programmer should not use too many functions, instead should use another class for more specific functions to reduce the readability complexity. 8. Which is not a proper way to access public members of a class? a) Using object pointer with arrow operator b) Using object of class in main function c) Using object of class with arrow operator d) Using object anywhere in the program Answer: c Explanation: The public members can be accessed anywhere in the program using the object of the class. And if object pointer is used, then arrow operator is used to access class members. If normal object is used with arrow operator, an error will be generated. 9. Which call is correct for public members of a nested class? a) Can be called from object of enclosing class b) Can be called within enclosing class only with direct names c) Direct names should be used for the nested classes d) Only with help of nested class object pointer Answer: a Explanation: The closest definition is that any public member function of the nested class can be accessed with the help of enclosing class object. The nested class object pointer can be used only within the enclosing class. It’s not mandatory to use the members of nested class only within the enclosing class. 10. Which public function call among the following is correct outside the class, if return type is void (C++)? a) object.void functionName(parameters); b) object.functionName(parameters); c) object.functionName void (parameters) d) object.void functionName(); Answer: b Explanation: The condition given says that there is no return type hence we can call the function directly. The object name should be mentioned with a dot operator to access its class members. Then the function name with parameters, if required, can be given. 11. If public members are to be restricted from getting inherited from the subclass of the class containing that function, which alternative is best? a) Make the function private b) Use private inheritance c) Use public inheritance d) Use protected inheritance Answer: b Explanation: If private inheritance is used then the class containing the function will be able to use the function with rules of whichever specifier is used. Then the derived class makes those function the private members of itself. This restricts the public members of parent class from further inheritance. 12. A derived class object can access the public members of the base class. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The public members of the base class can be accessed from the derived class object only if public inheritance is used. If protected or private inheritance is used then those members become public/protected in derived class and hence won’t be able to be called from object of the derived class. 13. If a class have a public member function and is called directly in the main function then ___________________________ a) Undeclared function error will be produced b) Out of memory error is given c) Program gives warning only d) Program shut down the computer Answer: a Explanation: If the function is called directly without using any object then the compiler doesn’t gets to know that the function have to be called from a specific class. And if there are no global or in-scope function with same name then the compiler produces an
error stating that the called function is undeclared. 14. The function main() must always be public. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The main() function must always be public. This is because the whole function and the operating system that is out of the package have to access the main function throughout the program execution. Hence the main() function should be public so as to be available everywhere in the program. 15. All the public member functions ___________________ a) Can’t access the private members of a class b) Can’t access the protected members of a class c) Can access only public members of a class d) Can access all the member of its class Answer: d Explanation: The public member function can access any private, protected and public member of its class. Not only public member function, any member function of a class can access each and every other member declared inside the class. Hence are flexible to program.
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Quiz focuses on “Constant Member Functions”. 1. What are the constant member functions? a) Functions which doesn’t change value of calling object b) Functions which doesn’t change value of any object inside definition c) Functions which doesn’t allow modification of any object of class d) Functions which doesn’t allow modification of argument objects Answer: a Explanation: The constant member functions are a special type of member functions. These are intended to restrict any modification in to the values of object which is used to invoke that function. This is done to ensure that there are no accidental modifications to the object. 2. Which keyword must be used to declare a member function as a constant member function? a) Constant b) Const c) FunctionConst d) Unchanged Answer: b Explanation: The keyword const is provided in most of the programming languages. This indicates that the member on which it is specified remains constant with the respective values of members. The keyword must be mentioned so as to declare a member function to be constant. 3. Which objects can call the const functions? a) Only const objects b) Only non-const objects c) Both const and non-const objects d) Neither const not non-const objects Answer: c Explanation: All the objects of a class can call const functions for its use. Const objects can call the const functions to since those values are already constant. And the non- const objects can call the const functions to keep their values constant. 4. Non-const functions _______________________ a) Can be called only from non-const object b) Can be called only from const object c) Can be called both by const and non-const object d) Can’t be called with object Answer: a Explanation: The non-const functions are able to modify the values of object which called the function. So only the non-const functions can be called. If const object is used then the compiler produces an error as the const object is being given to a function which can modify its values. 5. Which is the correct condition on const member functions? a) Const member functions can’t call non-const member functions b) Const member functions can’t call any other function c) Const member functions can call only the functions which are neither const nor non-const d) Const member functions can call only data members of call not member functions Answer: a Explanation: The const member functions are restricted to call any other non-const member functions. This is to ensure that the const function doesn’t have any code that might modify the calling object. 6. If a const object calls a non-const member function then ____________________ a) Run time error may get produced b) Compile time error may get produced c) Either compile time or run time error is produced d) The program can’t be compiled Answer: b Explanation: The program gets compiled but produces an error. The error is produced because a constant value is being changed. Even if there is no code that can change any object value, but non-const member functions are assumed to change the values. 7. Can a constructor function be constant? a) Yes, always b) Yes, only if permissions are given c) No, because objects are not involved 
d) No, never Answer: d Explanation: The constructors can’t be made const. This is to ensure that the constructor is capable of initializing the values to the members of the object. If it is made constant then it won’t be able to initialize any data member values. 8. A function can have both the const and non-const version in the same program. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The functions in a program can be made both const and non-const. This feature is made available to make programming more flexible. This ensures the security too as we can call const function whenever required. 9. How is it possible to have both const and non-const version of a function? a) Function overriding b) Function prototyping c) Function overloading d) Function declaring Answer: c Explanation: The functions can be declared const and non-const in the same program. The technique used is function overloading. We can define a const function and then a non-const version of same function using overloading. 10. When both the const and non-const version of functions are required? a) Return value have to be different in const b) Return value have to be same in const c) Return values have to be ignored d) Return values have to be suppressed Answer: a Explanation: The return values can help to overload the functions. Also, this will allow us to use a non-const function to be called inside both the const and non-const version of functions. 11. If a function is to be made const, which is the correct syntax? a) const functionName(parameters); b) const returnType functionName(parameters); c) const functionName(returnType)(Parameters); d) const (functionName(parameters)); Answer: b Explanation: The function declaration must contain the keyword const. The const keyword makes the function const type. The usual function declaration can be given followed by the keyword. The keyword const can be given after the declaration of function and before definition. 12. Functions which differ in const-ness are considered ______________________ a) To have same signature b) To have different signature c) To produce compile time error d) To produce runtime error Answer: b Explanation: The functions are considered to have different signature. This is because the const-ness also defines the type of function or the working of functions. And hence the functions can be considered different. This is the reason that we can use function overloading for const and non-const version of same function. 13. If const version of a function when overloading is used, the function ___________________ a) Returns reference to object b) Returns volatile reference c) Returns mutable reference d) Returns const reference Answer: d Explanation: The function returns a const reference. This is to ensure that the value of object calling the function is not modified. This is a security feature. 14. Which among the following is recommended for const functions? a) Const function use should be reduced in a program b) Const function use should be more in a program c) Const function use should not matter in a program d) Const function use should be able to modify the values 
Answer: b Explanation: The const member functions should be used more in a program. The reason behind is to ensure there is no accidental modification of data of object. Also to ensure any unintended modification which may result in unexpected termination of program. 15. Use of const member function in a program _________________________ a) Is mandatory, always b) Is optional, always c) Is mandatory, if objects are used d) Is optional, if const objects are used Answer: b Explanation: The use of const member functions is not mandatory. If const objects are involved then there is a high use of const member functions too. But there is no mandatory condition.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Returning Objects”. 1. In which of the following way(s) can the object be returned from a function? a) Can only be returned by value b) Can only be returned by reference c) Can be returned either by value or reference d) Can neither be returned by value nor by reference Answer: c Explanation: The objects can be returned either by value or reference. There is no mandatory condition for the way it should be used. The way of returning object can be decided based on the requirement. 2. Whenever an object is returned by value ____________________ a) A temporary object is created b) Temporary object is not created c) Temporary object may or may not be created d) New permanent object is created Answer: a Explanation: A temporary object is created when an object is returned by value. The temporary object is used to copy the values to another object or to be used in some way. The object holds all the values of the data members of the object. 3. Where the temporary objects (created while return by value) are created? a) Outside the function scope b) Within the function c) Inside the main function d) Inside the calling function Answer: b Explanation: The temporary object are created within the function and are intended to return the value for specific use. Either the object can be assigned to another object or be used directly if possible. 4. Which is the correct syntax for returning an object by value? a) void functionName ( ){ } b) object functionName( ) { } c) class object functionName( ) { } d) ClassName functionName ( ){ } Answer: d Explanation: The class name itself should be the return type of the function. This notifies that the function will return an object of specified class type. Only the class name should be specified. 5. Which is the correct syntax for defining a function which passes an object by reference? a) className& functionName ( ) b) className* functionName( ) c) className-> functionName( ) d) &className functionName() Answer: a Explanation: The function declaration must contain the class name as return type. But, a & symbol should be followed by the class name. & indicates that the object being returned will be returned by reference. 6. If an object is declared inside the function then ____________________ outside the function. a) It can be returned by reference b) It can’t be returned by reference c) It can be returned by address d) It can’t be returned at all Answer: b Explanation: The object which is declared inside the class can never be returned by reference. This is because the object will be destroyed as it goes out of scope when the function is returned. The local variables get destroyed when function is returned hence the local objects can’t be returned by reference. 7. How many independent objects can be returned at same time from a function? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: a 
Explanation: Only one object can be returned at a time. This is because a function is only capable of returning a single value at a time. Though array of objects can be returned from a function. 8. Which error will be produced if a local object is returned by reference outside a function? a) Out of memory error b) Run time error c) Compile time error d) No error Answer: c Explanation: If the local object is returned outside the function then the compile-time error arises. While the program is being converted and the processes happening during compile time, the compiler won’t be able to resolve the statement. 9. If object is passed by reference ____________________ a) Temporary object is created b) Temporary object is created inside the function c) Temporary object is created for few seconds d) Temporary object is not created Answer: d Explanation: The temporary object is not created. If object is returned by reference, a particular memory location will be denoted with another name and hence same address values will be used. 10. Which among the following is correct? a) Individual data members can’t be returned b) Individual data members can be returned c) Individual member functions can be returned from another function d) Individual data members can only be passed by reference Answer: b Explanation: It is not mandatory to return the whole object. Instead we can return a specific data member value. But the return type given must match with the data type of the data being returned. 11. Can we return an array of objects? a) Yes, always b) Ye, only if objects are having same values c) No, because objects contain many other values d) No, because objects are single entity Answer: a Explanation: The Object array can be returned from a function. This can be done by putting a className* as the return type of the function. This makes the return type to accept an array of objects in return. 12. If an object is passed by reference to a function then it must be returned by reference. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: It is not compulsory to return the object in the same way as it was passed. If the object is passed by reference then there is actually no need to return the object. Because the changes made inside the function will be visible on the original object of caller function also. 13. Which among the following is true? a) Two objects can point to the same memory location b) Two objects can never point to the same memory location c) Objects not allowed to point at a location already occupied d) Objects can’t point to any address Answer: a Explanation: When an object is created and instead of calling a constructor, another object is assigned to it. Both the objects point to the same memory location. This can be illustrated with help of return by reference. 14. If an object is being returned by value then __________________________ a) Its member values are made constant b) Its member values have to be copied individually c) Its member values are not used d) Its member values are copied using copy constructor Answer: d Explanation: When an object is returned by value, it will be returned to another object or will be directly used. Still in all the conditions the copy constructor will be used to copy all the values from the temporary object that gets created.
15. Why temporary object is not created in return by reference? a) Because compiler can’t create temporary objects b) Because the temporary object is created within the function c) Because return by reference just make the objects points to values memory location d) Because return by reference just make the object point to null Answer: c Explanation: A reference to the memory location where the returned object is stored is made. This allows the new object which takes the return value, point to the memory location and hence access the same values.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Single Level Inheritance”. 1. Which among the following defines single level inheritance? a) One base class derives another class b) One derived class inherits from one base class c) One base class inherits from one derived class d) One derived class derives from another derived class Answer: b Explanation: If only one base class is used to derive only one subclass, it is known as single level inheritance. The reason of this name is that we inherit the base class to one more level and stop the inheritance any further. 2. If class A and class B are derived from class C and class D, then ________________ a) Those are 2 pairs of single inheritance b) That is multilevel inheritance c) Those is enclosing class d) Those are all independent classes Answer: a Explanation: Since class A is derived from class C and then class B is derived from class D, there are two pairs of classes which shows single inheritance. Those two pairs are independent of each other though. 3. If single inheritance is used, program will contain ________________ a) At least 2 classes b) At most 2 classes c) Exactly 2 classes d) At most 4 classes Answer: a Explanation: The program will contain at least 2 classes in the sense of base and derived classes. At least one base class and one derived class must be there. Types of inheritance remains the same though. 4. Single level inheritance supports _____________ inheritance. a) Runtime b) Compile time c) Multiple inheritance d) Language independency Answer: a Explanation: The runtime inheritance is done when object of a class is created to call a method. At runtime the function is searched if it is in class of object. If not, it will search in its parent classes and hierarchy for that method. 5. Which method in the code below is single level inherited? class A { protected int a, b; public: void show() {   cout&lt;&lt;a&lt;&lt;b; } }; class B: public A { public: void disp() {   cout&lt;&lt;a++&lt;&lt;b++;  } }; class C: private A, public B { void avg() {   cout&lt;&lt;(a+b)/2;  } }; a) Class A b) Class B 
c) Class C d) None Answer: b Explanation: Class B is using single level inheritance. Class C is using multiple inheritance. And class A is parent of other two classes. 6. If single level inheritance is used and an abstract class is created with some undefined functions, can its derived class also skip some definitions? a) Yes, always possible b) Yes, possible if only one undefined function c) No, at least 2 undefined functions must be there d) No, the derived class must implement those methods Answer: d Explanation: The derived class must implement those methods. This is because the parent class is abstract and hence will have some undefined functions which has to be defined in derived classes. Since we are using single level inheritance, if derived class doesn’t implement those functions then one more class has to be there which will become multi-level inheritance. 7. Which among the following is false for single level inheritance? a) There can be more than 2 classes in program to implement single inheritance b) There can be exactly 2 classes to implement single inheritance in a program c) There can be more than 2 independent classes involved in single inheritance d) The derived class must implement all the abstract method if single inheritance is used Answer: c Explanation: If more than 2 independent classes are involved to implement the single level inheritance, it won’t be possible as there must be only one child and one parent class and none other related class. 8. Which concept will result in derived class with more features (consider maximum 3 classes)? a) Single inheritance b) Multiple inheritance c) Multilevel inheritance d) Hierarchical inheritance Answer: b Explanation: If single inheritance is used then only feature of a single class are inherited, and if multilevel inheritance is used, the 2nd class might have use private inheritance. Hence only multiple inheritance can result in derived class with more features. This is not mandatory but in a case if we consider same number of features in each class, it will result the same. 9. Single level inheritance is safer than _____________ a) Multiple inheritance b) Interfaces c) Implementations d) Extensions Answer: a Explanation: Interfaces also represent a way of inheritance but is a wide word to decide which inheritance we are talking about in it, hence can’t be considered. Implementation and extensions also doesn’t match that level of specific idea. And multiple inheritance not so safe as it might result in some ambiguity. 10. Which language doesn’t support single level inheritance? a) Java b) C++ c) Kotlin d) All languages support it Answer: d Explanation: All the languages support single level inheritance. Since any class can inherit other classes as required, if single level inheritance was not allowed it would result in failing a lot of features of OOP. 11. What is the output of the following program? class A { protected: int a,b; public: void disp() {   cout&lt;&lt;a&lt;&lt;b;  }
}; class B:public A { int x,y; }; a) Garbage value b) Compile time error c) Runtime error d) Runs but gives random values as output Answer: b Explanation: The compiler doesn’t find the main function and hence will throw an error main() missing. This program is using single level inheritance but the program is incomplete. Every program must implement main function. 12. What is the output of the following program? class A {   float sal=40000;  }  class B extends A {   int salBonus=10000;   public static void main(String args[]) {    B p=new B();    System.out.println("B salary is:"+p.sal);    System.out.println("Bonus of B is:"+p.bonus);   }  } a) B salary is: 4000.0 Bonus of B is: 10000 b) B salary is 10000 Bonus of B is: 4000.0 c) Compile time error d) Runtime error Answer: a Explanation: The program gives output as in option a. The program have used single level inheritance and hence have access to the parent class methods and variables. This program simply prints the value from parent class and from the child class. 13. Single level inheritance will be best for___________ a) Inheriting a class which performs all the calculations b) Inheriting a class which can print all the calculation results c) Inheriting a class which can perform and print all calculations d) Inheriting all the classes for different calculations Answer: b Explanation: Inheriting a class which can perform the most common task will be more efficient. If class which can perform all the calculations is inherited then there won’t be any problem to print the result too. But if a class which can do the most common task for all the other tasks, it will make real use of inheritance. 14. Which constructor will be called first from the classes involved in single inheritance from object of derived class? a) Base class constructor b) Derived class constructor c) Both class constructors at a time d) Runtime error Answer: a Explanation: The base class constructor will be called first from the object of derived class constructor. When the derived class members are to be initialized and allocated memory, the base class members should also be confirmed with the memory allocation.
15. If base class contains 2 nested classes, will it be possible to implement single level inheritance? a) Yes, always b) Yes, only if derived class also have nested classes c) No, it will use more than 2 classes which is wrong d) No, never Answer: a Explanation: The nested classes are also members of a class. They behave as a used defined data type with some methods implementation. So the inheritance will be as usual with the nested classes being member of base class and of derived class if not private.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Static Data Members”. 1. Which among the following best defines static variables members? a) Data which is allocated for each object separately b) Data which is common to all the objects of a class c) Data which is common to all the classes d) Data which is common to a specific method Answer: b Explanation: The static data members are made common to all the object of a class. They doesn’t change from object to object. Those are property of class rather than of any individual object. 2. Which keyword should be used to declare static variables? a) static b) stat c) common d) const Answer: a Explanation: The keyword used to declare static variables is static. This is must be used while declaring the static variables. The compiler can make variables static if and only if they are mentioned with static keyword. 3. Any changes made to static data member from one member function _____________ a) Is reflected to only the corresponding object b) Is reflected to all the variables in a program c) Is reflected to all the objects of that class d) Is constant to that function only Answer: c Explanation: The changes made from any function to static data member will be a common change for all the other objects also. If the change is made with respect to one object and change is printed from another object, the result will be same. 4. Which is the correct syntax for declaring static data member? a) static mamberName dataType; b) dataType static memberName; c) memberName static dataType; d) static dataType memberName; Answer: d Explanation: The syntax must firstly be mentioned with the keyword static. Then the data type of the member followed by the member name should be given. This is general form of declaring static data members. 5. The static data member ______________________ a) Must be defined inside the class b) Must be defined outside the class c) Must be defined in main function d) Must be defined using constructor Answer: b Explanation: The static data members must be defined outside the class. Since these are common to all the objects and should be created only once, they must not be defined in the constructor. 6. The syntax for defining the static data members is __________ a) dataType className :: memberName = value; b) dataType className : memberName = value; c) dataType className . memberName = value; d) dataType className -> memberName =value; Answer: a Explanation: The syntax doesn’t contain the static keyword. Since it is already been declared as static inside the class. The data type and the corresponding class name must be there to allocate the variable to a class. The value is assigned using scope resolution operator for the member name. 7. If static data members have to be used inside a class, those member functions _______________ a) Must not be static member functions b) Must not be member functions c) Must be static member functions d) Must not be member function of corresponding class Answer: c 
Explanation: Only the static member functions can access the static data members. The definition of static members is made common and hence the member function should be capable of manipulating the static data members. 8. The static data member __________________________ a) Can be accessed directly b) Can be accessed with any public class name c) Can be accessed with dot operator d) Can be accessed using class name if not using static member function Answer: d Explanation: The static data members can be accessed using the class name also. If the member functions is not used or is not to be used then we can call the static data members directly by using its corresponding class name. 9. Which among the following is the correct syntax to access static data member without using member function? a) className -> staticDataMember; b) className :: staticDataMember; c) className : staticDataMember; d) className . staticDataMember; Answer: b Explanation: For accessing the static data members without using the static member functions, the class name can be used. The class name followed by scope resolution, indicating that static data members is member of this class, and then the data member name. 10. Which data members among the following are static by default? a) extern b) integer c) const d) void Answer: c Explanation: The const data members of any class are made static by default. This is an implicit meaning given by the compiler to the member. Since const values won’t change from object to object, hence are made static instead. 11. What is the output of the following program? class Test { private: static int x; public: static void fun() {  cout &lt;&lt; ++x &lt;&lt; “ ”; } }; int Test :: x =20; void main() { Test x; x.fun(); x.fun(); } a) 20 22 b) 20 21 c) 21 22 d) 22 23 Answer: c Explanation: The static member is initialized with 20. Then the function is called which used pre-increment and printed value of x. The function is called twice. Hence we get 21 22 as output. 12. Whenever any static data member is declared in a class ______________________ a) Only one copy of the data is created b) New copy for each object is created c) New memory location is allocated with each object d) Only one object uses the static data Answer: a Explanation: The static data is same for all the objects. Instead of creating the same data each time an object is created, the compiler created only one data which is accessed by all the objects of the class. This saves memory and reduces redundancy.
13. If object of class are created, then the static data members can be accessed ____________ a) Using dot operator b) Using arrow operator c) Using colon d) Using dot or arrow operator Answer: d Explanation: The static data members can be accessed in usual way as other members are accessed using the objects. The dot operator is used generally. Arrow can be used with the pointers. 14. What will be the output of the following program? class Test { public: Test()  {   cout  &lt;&lt; "Test's Constructor is Called " &lt;&lt; endl;   } };
 
class Result { static Test a; public: Result()  {   cout  &lt;&lt; "Result's Constructor is Called " &lt;&lt; endl;  } }; 
 
void main() {  Result b; } a) Test’s Constructor is Called b) Result’s Constructor is Called c) Result’s Constructor Called Test’s Constructor is Called d) Test’s Constructor Called Result’s Constructor is Called Answer: b Explanation: The output is the message printed from the constructor of class Result. There is no inheritance used hence only one constructor is called. Since static members are declared once in class declaration and are not defined. The constructor of class Test will not be called. 15. Which among the following is wrong syntax related to static data members? a) className :: staticDataMember; b) dataType className :: memberName =value; c) static dataType memberName; d) className : dataType -> memberName; Answer: d Explanation: The syntax given in option d doesn’t belong to any particular declaration or definition. First one is to access the static members using the class name. Second is to define the static data outside the class. Third syntax id to declare a data member as static in a class.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Static Member Functions”. 1. Which among the following is correct definition for static member functions? a) Functions created to allocate constant values to each object b) Functions made to maintain single copy of member functions for all objects c) Functions created to define the static members d) Functions made to manipulate static programs Answer: b Explanation: The functions which are made common, with respect to definition and data usage, to all the objects. These functions are able to access the static data members of a class. 2. The static member functions __________________ a) Have access to all the members of a class b) Have access to only constant members of a class c) Have access to only the static members of a class d) Have direct access to all other class members also Answer: c Explanation: The static member functions are common for all the objects. These functions can use only the static members of a class in which those are defined. This is because other members change with respect to each object created. 3. The static member functions ____________________ a) Can be called using class name b) Can be called using program name c) Can be called directly d) Can’t be called outside the function Answer: a Explanation: The static members can be accessed using class name also. This is because the static members remain common to all the objects. Hence objects are not required. 4. Which is correct syntax to access the static member functions with class name? a) className . functionName; b) className -> functionName; c) className : functionName; d) className :: functionName; Answer: d Explanation: The scope resolution operator must be used to access the static member functions with class name. This indicates that the function belongs to the corresponding class. 5. Which among the following is not applicable for the static member functions? a) Variable pointers b) void pointers c) this pointer d) Function pointers Answer: c Explanation: Since the static members are not property of objects, they doesn’t have this pointer. Every time the same member is referred from all the objects, hence use of this pointer is of no use. 6. Which among the following is true? a) Static member functions can’t be virtual b) Static member functions can be virtual c) Static member functions can be declared virtual if it is pure virtual class d) Static member functions can be used as virtual in Java Answer: a Explanation: The static member functions can’t be virtual. This is a restriction on static member functions, since the definition should not change or should not be overridden by any other function of derived class. The static members must remain same for all the objects. 7. The static members are ______________________ a) Created with each new object b) Created twice in a program c) Created as many times a class is used d) Created and initialized only once Answer: d 
Explanation: The static members are created only once. Then those members are reused whenever called or invoked. Memory is allocated only once. 8. Which among the following is true? a) Static member functions can be overloaded b) Static member functions can’t be overloaded c) Static member functions can be overloaded using derived classes d) Static member functions are implicitly overloaded Answer: b Explanation: The static member functions can’t be overloaded because the definition must be the same for all the instances of a class. If an overloaded function have many definitions, none of them can be made static. 9. The static member functions _______________ a) Can’t be declared const b) Can’t be declared volatile c) Can’t be declared const or volatile d) Can’t be declared const, volatile or const volatile Answer: d Explanation: The static member functions can’t be made const, since any object or class itself should be capable of making changes to the function. And the function must retain all changes common to all the objects. 10. Which keyword should be used to declare the static member functions? a) static b) stat c) const d) common Answer: a Explanation: The member functions which are to be made static, must be preceded with the keyword static. This indicates the compiler to make the functions common to all the objects. And a new copy is not created with each of the new object. 11. The keyword static is used _______________ a) With declaration inside class and with definition outside the class b) With declaration inside class and not with definition outside the class c) With declaration and definition wherever done d) With each call to the member function Answer: b Explanation: The keyword is used only inside the class while declaring the static member. Outside the class, only definition with proper syntax is given. There is no need of specifying the keyword static again. 12. Which among the following can’t be used to access the members in any way? a) Scope resolution b) Arrow operator c) Single colon d) Dot operator Answer: c Explanation: The single colon can’t be used in any way in order to access the static members of a class. Other symbols can be used according to the code and need. 13. We can use the static member functions and static data member __________________ a) Even if class object is not created b) Even if class is not defined c) Even if class doesn’t contain any static member d) Even if class doesn’t have complete definition Answer: a Explanation: The static members are property of class as a whole. There is no need of specific objects to call static members. Those can be called directly or with class name. 14. The static data member _________________ a) Can be mutable b) Can’t be mutable c) Can’t be integer d) Can’t be characters Answer: b Explanation: The static data members can never be mutable. There copies are not made. Since those are common and created
only once. 15. If static data member are made inline, ______________ a) Those should be initialized outside the class b) Those can’t be initialized with the class c) Those can be initialized within the class d) Those can’t be used by class members Answer: c Explanation: Since the members are created once and are common for all the instances, those can be initialized inside the class. Those doesn’t change with each object being created hence can be defined inside the class once for all.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “String Class”. 1. Which is a true statement for object of String class? a) Object are immutable b) Object are mutable c) Object are created only once d) Object can’t be created Answer: a Explanation: The object of string class are mostly immutable. This means that the String objects are constant. These can’t be changed once created. 2. How to declare an object of class String? a) String object_Name = value; b) String object_name = new; c) String object_name= new value; d) String object_name= value new; Answer: a Explanation: The class name String is given. And then the object name is mentioned. There are two ways to declare and initialize the string. Either by giving direct string value or by using new keyword. But if new operator is used, constructor of String class have to be called. From the given options, the direct string value declaration is correct. 3. What does function length do in String class? a) Returns length of string including null character b) Returns length of string excluding null character c) Returns length of substring d) Returns size of string in bytes Answer: b Explanation: The length function returns the length of string. The length is the number of characters in the string but the last null character is not counted. The string length can be used to loop through each character in the string. 4. Which is the function to get the character present at a particular index in the string? a) char charAt(index); b) char charIn(StringName); c) char charAt(StringName); d) char charIn(index); Answer: a Explanation: The function can be called using dot operator with the string object. Char is the return type of the function to return the character at specified position. The index must be an integer value, less than the length of string. 5. If only one parameter is passed to substring function then __________________ a) It returns the character at the specified position b) It returns the string of length 1 from the specified index c) It returns the string from specified index till the end d) It returns the string from starting of string till the specified index Answer: c Explanation: The substring function returns a string value. The string is the substring starting from the specified index till the end. The substring function have to be called with the object of string class. 6. If two index are given as argument to substring function then ___________________ a) String of length equal to sum of two arguments is returned b) String starting from first index and of length equal to send argument c) String starting from first index and of length equal to sum of two arguments d) String starting from first index and ending at second index position Answer: d Explanation: A value of string type is returned from this function. The returned string is a substring that starts from the first argument position, till the second index position. The indices must be less than the length of actual string. 7. String class have a concat() function that is used to _____________________ a) Replace old string by new string b) Add two strings c) Append one string at end of another string d) Remove a string from end of one string Answer: c 
Explanation: The concat function is used to append string into another string. The new string is always appended at the end of source string. The target string is appended as it is and the whole string is then ended by null character. 8. The function lastIndexOf() is used to ___________________ a) Get the index of last occurrence of specified character in argument b) Get the index of first occurrence of specified character in argument c) Get the index of last occurrence of first character in string d) Get the index of last occurrence of last character of string Answer: a Explanation: The function is used to get the last occurrence index of a character present in a string. The return type is char. Single character is returned. The function is used with a string object and the target character is passed as its argument. 9. Function equals() is _______________ and equalIgnoreCase() is _________________ a) Case Insensitive, case insensitive b) Case sensitive, Case insensitive c) Case sensitive, case sensitive d) Case insensitive, case sensitive Answer: b Explanation: Both the functions return Boolean value. The function equal() is case sensitive and returns false even if a single character is case different in two strings. The other function ignores the case sensitivity and only checks if the spellings are same. 10. The compareTo() function is used to ________________ a) Compare strings value to string object b) Compare string value to string value c) Compare string object to another string object d) Compare string object to another string value Answer: c Explanation: The source and target must be objects of the string class. The compare is always case sensitive. To compare two string objects without case sensitivity then we can use compareToIgnoreCase() function. 11. String class provides function toUpper() to _____________________ a) Convert first character to uppercase b) Convert last character to uppercase c) Convert the whole string characters to uppercase d) Convert uppercase to lower and lower to uppercases Answer: c Explanation: The function is used to convert each character of the string. If the character is already uppercase then it remains the same. But if some character is in lowercase then it will be converted to uppercase. 12. String trim() function is used to _______________________ a) Remove all the white spaces from the string b) Remove white space from start of string c) Remove white space at end of string d) Remove white space from both the ends of string Answer: d Explanation: The function is used to remove any white space from both the ends of a given string. The white space include space, tab, next line etc. It will be removed both from the starting of string and from the end of string. 13. Function replace() accepts _____________ arguments. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b Explanation: The first argument is the target character. This target character will be replaced by another character. The new character is the second argument to the function. Only the characters can be passed as argument, not a string. 14. If two arguments are passed to the indexOf() function then ___________________ a) Second argument indicates the occurrence number of specified character from starting b) Second argument indicates the occurrence number of specified character from end c) Second argument indicates the index of the character in first argument d) Second argument indicates the index of the character from the last of the string Answer: a 
Explanation: The string may have more than one occurrence of a character. We use this function to get the index at which the specified number of times a specific character has occurred in a string. For example, we can get the index of 5th occurrence of character “j” in a string. 15. The string class deals with string of only character type. a) True b) False Answer: a Explanation: The string class objects can be used for any string consisting of characters. The characters include numbers, alphabets and few special characters. String class is not necessary to be used but provides a huge set of inbuilt functions to make the string operations easier.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Template Class”. 1. A template class can have _____________ a) More than one generic data type b) Only one generic data type c) At most two data types d) Only generic type of integers and not characters Answer: a Explanation: The template class can support more than one data type. The only thing is to add all the data types required in a list separated by comma within template specification. 2. Which among the following is the proper syntax for the template class? a) template <typename T1, typename T2>; b) Template <typename T1, typename T2>; c) template <typename T> T named(T x, T y){ } d) Template <typename T1, typename T2> T1 named(T1 x, T2 y){ } Answer: c Explanation: The syntax must start with keyword template, case sensitive. Then it should include the typename and a variable to denote it. Then whenever that variable is used, it replaces it with the data type needed. 3. Can default arguments be used with the template class? a) Yes, in some special cases b) Yes, always c) No, it must satisfy some specific conditions first d) No, it can’t be done Answer: b Explanation: The template class can use default arguments. This is used to specify the data type to be considered if it is not specified while passing to the generic class. The default type will be used. 4. What is the syntax to use explicit class specialization? a) template <int> class myClass<>{ } b) template <int> class myClass<int>{ } c) template <> class myClass<>{ } d) template <> class myClass<int>{ } Answer: d Explanation: The class specialization is creation of explicit specialization of a generic class. We have to use template<> constructor for this to work. It works in the same way as with explicit function specialization. 5. Which is the most significant feature that arises by using template classes? a) Code readability b) Ease in coding c) Code reusability d) Modularity in code Answer: c Explanation: The code reusability is the feature that becomes more powerful with the use of template classes. You can generate a single code that can be used in variety of programming situations. 6. A template class defines the form of a class _____________________ it will operate. a) With full specification of the data on which b) With full specification of the functions on which c) Without full specification of the data on which d) Without full specification of the functions on which Answer: c Explanation: The template classes can accept all types of data types. There is no need to specify the data on which the class has to operate. Hence it gives us flexibility to code without worrying about the type of data that might be used in the code. 7. What are the two specializations of I/O template classes in C++? a) 16-bit character and wide characters b) 8-bit character and wide characters c) 32-bit character and locale characters d) 64-bit characters and locale characters Answer: b Explanation: The I/O specialization is made with wide character and 8-bit characters. Wide characters are used to store the
characters that might take more than 1 byte of space in memory or any size that is different from the one that the machine is using. 8. Can typeid() function be used with the object of generic classes? a) Yes, only if default type is given b) Yes, always c) No, generic data can’t be determined d) No, never possible Answer: b Explanation: The typeid() function can be used with the objects of generic classes. An instance of a template class will take the type of data that is being used with it. Hence when typeid() function is used, the data type would have already been defined and hence we can get desired result from typeid() function. 9. The _____________ class is a specialization of a more general template class. a) String b) Integer c) Digit d) Math Answer: a Explanation: The string class is more specialized. Since the string must be able to store any kind of data that is given to the string. Hence it needs maximum specialization. 10. How is function overloading different from template class? a) Overloading is multiple function doing same operation, Template is multiple function doing different operations b) Overloading is single function doing different operations, Template is multiple function doing different operations c) Overloading is multiple function doing similar operation, Template is multiple function doing identical operations d) Overloading is multiple function doing same operation, Template is same function doing different operations Answer: c Explanation: The function overloading is multiple functions with similar or different functionality but generic class functions perform the same task on given different types of data. 11. What if static members are declared inside template classes? a) All instances will share the static variable b) All instances will have their own static variable c) All the instances will ignore the static variable d) Program gives compile time error Answer: b Explanation: The generic class have a special case with static members. Each instance will have its own static member. The static members are not shared usually. 12. What is the output of following program? template <typename T> void test(const T&x) {    static int count = 0;    cout &lt;&lt; "x = " &lt;&lt; x &lt;&lt; " count = " &lt;&lt; count &lt;&lt; endl;    ++count;    return; }
 
void main() {    test<int> (2);    test<int>(2);    test<double>(2.2); } a) x = 2 count = 0 x = 2.2 count = 0 x = 2.2 count = 0 b) x = 2 count = 0
x = 2 count = 0 x = 2.2 count = 0 c) x = 2 count = 0 x = 2 count = 1 x = 2.2 count = 0 d) x = 2 count = 0 x = 2 count = 1 x = 2.2 count = 2 Answer: c Explanation: For each new type, the class will have separate instance. Here two instances will be created and hence counter for integer goes to 1. And for float value, the count remains 0 for the output.
13. If template class is defined, is it necessary to use different types of data for each call? a) No, not necessary b) No, but at least two types must be there c) Yes, to make proper use of template d) Yes, for code efficiency Answer: a Explanation: It is not necessary to use different type with each call to the generic function. Data may be of same type with each call but still the function works. We don’t consider other properties like efficiency with this concept because it is made generic to all data type, hence always works. 14. How many generic types can be given inside a single template class? a) Only 1 b) Only 3 c) Only 7 d) As many as required Answer: d Explanation: There is no restriction on the number of types to be used for making the class generic. There can be any number of generic types with a single class. Hence giving flexibility to code with all the data types. 15. Template classes must have at least one static member. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: There is no mandatory condition to have static members inside template class. Not only template, it is not mandatory to have static members anywhere. We can use them as required in the code.
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ test focuses on “Memory Allocation of Object”. 1. What does memory allocation for objects mean? a) Actual creation and memory allocation for object members b) Creation of member functions c) Creation of data members for a class d) Actual creation and data declaration for object members Answer: a Explanation: The memory allocated for the object members indicates actual creation of the object members. This is known as memory allocation for object. 2. Where is the memory allocated for the objects? a) HDD b) Cache c) RAM d) ROM Answer: c Explanation: The memory for the objects or any other data is allocated in RAM initially. This is while we run a program all the memory allocation takes place in some RAM segments. Arrays in heap and local members in stack etc. 3. When is the memory allocated for an object? a) At declaration of object b) At compile time c) When object constructor is called d) When object is initialized to another object Answer: c Explanation: The object memory allocation takes place when the object constructor is called. Declaration of an object doesn’t mean that memory is allocated for its members. If object is initialized with another object, it may just get a reference to the previously created object. 4. Using new is type safe as _______________________ a) It require to be specified with type of data b) It doesn’t require to be specified with type of data c) It requires the name of data d) It allocated memory for the data Answer: b Explanation: The new is type safe because we don’t have to specify the type of data that have to be allocated with memory. We can directly use it with data name. Name of the data doesn’t matter though for type of memory allocation though. 5. Which of the following function can be used for dynamic memory allocation of objects? a) malloc() b) calloc() c) create() d) malloc() and calloc() Answer: d Explanation: The malloc() function can be used to allocate dynamic memory for objects. Function calloc() can also be use. These functions differ in the way they allocate memory for objects. 6. How much memory will be allocated for an object of class given below? class Test { int mark1; int mark2; float avg; char name[10]; }; a) 22 Bytes b) 24 Bytes c) 20 Bytes d) 18 Bytes Answer: a Explanation: The size of an object of the class given in question will be of size 22 bytes. This is because the size of an object is always equal to the sum of sizes of the data members of the class, except static members.
7. Which keyword among the following can be used to declare an array of objects in java? a) new b) create c) allocate d) arr Answer: a Explanation: The keyword new can be used to declare an array of objects in java. The syntax must be specified with an object pointer which is assigned with a memory space containing the required number of object space. Even initialization can be done directly. 8. When is the memory allocated for an object gets free? a) At termination of program b) When object goes out of scope c) When main function ends d) When system restarts Answer: b Explanation: Whenever an object goes out of scope, the deletion of allocation memory takes place. Actually the data is not deleted, instead the memory space is flagged to be free for further use. Hence whenever an object goes out of scope the object members become useless and hence memory is set free. 9. Which among the following keyword can be used to free the allocated memory for an object? a) delete b) free c) either delete or free d) only delete Answer: c Explanation: The memory allocated for an object is usually automatically made free. But if explicitly memory has to be made free then we can use either free or delete keywords depending on programming languages. 10. Which function is called whenever an object goes out of scope? a) Destructor function b) Constructor function c) Delete function d) Free function Answer: a Explanation: The destructor function of the class is called whenever an object goes out of scope. This is because the destructor set all the resources, acquired by the object, free. This is an implicit work of compiler. 11. Which operator can be used to check the size of an object? a) sizeof(objectName) b) size(objectName) c) sizeofobject(objectName) d) sizedobject(objectName) Answer: a Explanation: The sizeof operator is used to get the size of an already created object. This operator must constail keyword sizeof(objectName). The output will give the number of bytes acquired by a single object of some class. 12. The memory allocated for an object ____________________ a) Can be only dynamic b) Can be only static c) Can be static or dynamic d) Can’t be done using dynamic functions Answer: c Explanation: The memory allocation for an object can be static or dynamic. The static memory allocation is when an object is declared directly without using any function usually. And dynamic allocation is when we use some dynamic allocation function to allocate memory for data member of an object. 13. If an object is declared in a user defined function __________________ a) Its memory is allocated in stack b) Its memory is allocated in heap c) Its memory is allocated in HDD d) Its memory is allocated in cache Answer: a 
Explanation: The memory for any data or object that are used in a user defined function are always allocated in the stack. This is to ensure that the object is destroyed as soon as the function is returned. Also this ensures that the correct memory allocation and destruction is performed. 14. In java, ____________________ takes care of managing memory for objects dynamically. a) Free collector b) Dust collector c) Memory manager d) Garbage collector Answer: d Explanation: The garbage collector in java takes care of the memory allocations and their deletions dynamically. When an object is no more required then the garbage collector deletes the object and free up all the resources that were held by that object. 15. Which operator can be used to free the memory allocated for an object in C++? a) Free() b) delete c) Unallocate d) Collect Answer: b Explanation: The delete operator in C++ can be used to free the memory and resources held by an object. The function can be called explicitly whenever required. In C++ memory management must be done by the programmer. There is no automatic memory management in C++. To practice all areas of Object Oriented Programming using C++ for tests, .
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Types of Inheritance”. 1. How many types of inheritance are possible in C++? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: d Explanation: There are five types of inheritance that are possible in C++. Single level, Multilevel, multiple, hierarchical and hybrid. Here we count hybrid also because it sometimes can bring up a new form of inheritance, Like inheritance using multiple and hierarchical, which sometimes results in diamond problem. 2. Which among the following is true? a) Java supports all types of inheritance b) Java supports multiple inheritance c) Java doesn’t support multiple inheritance d) Java doesn’t support inheritance Answer: c Explanation: Java doesn’t support multiple inheritance. This is done to avoid the diamond problem that sometimes arises with inherited functions. Though, multiple inheritance can be implemented in java using interfaces. 3. Which type of inheritance is illustrated by the following code? class student{ public: int marks; }; class topper: public student { public: char grade; }; class average{ public: int makrs_needed; }; class section: public average{ public: char name[10];  }; class overall: public average{  public: int students;  }; a) Single level b) Multilevel and single level c) Hierarchical d) Hierarchical and single level Answer: d Explanation: It is hierarchical inheritance and single level inheritance. Since class topper is inheriting class student, it is single level inheritance. And then average is inherited by section and overall, so it is hierarchical inheritance. But both of them are separate. Hence it is not hybrid inheritance. 4. Which among the following best describes multiple inheritance? a) Two classes being parent of any other classes b) Three classes being parent of other classes c) More than one class being parent of other child classes d) More than one class being parent of single child Answer: d Explanation: If a class inherits more than one class, it is known as multiple inheritance. This should not be referred with only two or three classes being inherited. But there must be one class which inherits more than one class to be called as multiple inheritance. 5. How many types of inheritance can be used at a time in a single program? a) Any two types b) Any three types c) Any 4 types d) Any type, any number of times Answer: d Explanation: Any type of inheritance can be used in any program. There is no rule to use only few types of inheritance. Only thing that matters is how the classes are inherited and used. 6. Which type of inheritance results in the diamond problem? a) Single level b) Hybrid c) Hierarchical d) Multilevel Answer: b Explanation: In diamond problem, hierarchical inheritance is used first, where two different classes inherit the same class and
then in turn a 4th class inherits the two classes which had inherited the first class. Using more than one type of inheritance here, it is known as hybrid inheritance. 7. If 6 classes uses single level inheritance with pair classes (3 pairs), which inheritance will this be called? a) Single b) Multiple c) Hierarchical d) Multilevel Answer: a Explanation: Here all the pairs are using single inheritance. And no different pairs are inheriting same classes. Hence it can’t be called hybrid or multilevel inheritance. You can say the single inheritance is used 3 times in that program. 8. Which among the following is correct for the following code? class A {      public : class B     {         public : B(int i): data(i)        {         }        int data;    } }; class C: public A {     class D:public A::B{ }; }; a) Multi-level inheritance is used, with nested classes b) Multiple inheritance is used, with nested classes c) Single level inheritance is used, with enclosing classes d) Single level inheritance is used, with both enclosing and nested classes Answer: d Explanation: Class C is inheriting Class A. Class D is inheriting class B, both are nested. Hence it is single inheritance. For multiple inheritance, class C or D should have inherited both class A and class B. 9. Which among the following is false? a) If one class inherits the inherited class in single level inheritance, it is multi-level inheritance b) Hybrid inheritance always contains multiple inheritance c) Hierarchical inheritance involves inheriting same class into more than one classes d) Hybrid inheritance can involve any types of inheritance together Answer: b Explanation: It is not necessary to have multiple inheritance in hybrid type. It can have any type together. This doesn’t have to be of specific type always. 10. If class A has two nested classes B and C. Class D has one nested class E, and have inherited class A. If E inherits B and C, then ________________ a) It shows multiple inheritance b) It shows hierarchical inheritance c) It shows multiple inheritance d) Multiple inheritance among nested classes, and single level for enclosing classes Answer: d Explanation: This involves the same concept of inheritance, where the nested classes also follow the inheritance rules. The Enclosing classes are having single inheritance. Nested classes involves multiple. 11. In hierarchical inheritance, all the classes involve some kind of inheritance. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: This is so because few classes might not be involved in any type of inheritance in whole program whereas other classes might be participating in more than one type of inheritance at the same time. 12. Which type of inheritance cannot involve private inheritance? a) Single level 
b) Multiple c) Hybrid d) All types can have private inheritance Answer: d Explanation: This is a common type of inheritance where the protected and public members of parent class become private members in child class. There is no type which doesn’t support private inheritance. 13. How many classes can be inherited by a single class in multiple inheritance (C++)? a) Only 2 b) Only 27 c) Only 1024 d) Any number of classes can be inherited Answer: d Explanation: Any class can inherit any number of classes. There is no limit defined for the number of classes being inherited by a single class. 14. How many classes can be inherited by a single class in java? a) Only 1 b) Only 27 c) Only 255 d) Only 1024 Answer: a Explanation: Since java doesn’t support multiple inheritance, it is not possible for a class to inherit more than 1 class in java. This is the same case in C# also. 15. If multi-level inheritance is used, First class B inherits class A, then C inherits B and so on. Till how many classes can this go on? a) Only till class C b) Only till class J c) Only till class Z d) There is no limit Answer: d Explanation: In this case, there is no limit. All the classes going on like this will inherit the members of base class, and hence the upper level inheritance won’t affect the number of classes that can go on inheriting in this pattern.
This set of Object Oriented Programming (OOPs) using C++ Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Upcasting”. 1. What is upcasting? a) Casting subtype to supertype b) Casting super type to subtype c) Casting subtype to super type and vice versa d) Casting anytype to any other type Answer: a Explanation: The upcasting concept includes only the casting of subtypes to the super types. This casting is generally done implicitly. Smaller size types can fit into larger size types implicitly. 2. Which among the following is true for upcasting in inheritance? a) Downward to the inheritance tree b) Upward to the inheritance tree c) Either upward or downward d) Doesn’t apply on inheritance Answer: b Explanation: The upcasting concept in inheritance is always applied upward the inheritance tree. The derived class objects can be type casted to any of its parent class type. Since is a relationship applies in general inheritance. 3. Which among the following is safe? a) Upcasting b) Downcasting c) Both upcasting and downcasting d) If upcasting is safe then downcasting is not, and vice versa Answer: a Explanation: The upcasting is always safe since the derived type or the smaller type is converted into the base type or the larger size. This results in allocating a smaller size data into bigger type data. No data is lost in casting, hence safe. 4. Which among the following is the best situation to use upcasting? a) For general code dealing with only subtype b) For general code dealing with only supertype c) For general code dealing with both the supertype and subtype d) For writing a rigid code with respect to subtype Answer: b Explanation: When a general code has to be written where we use only the supertype object or the data of bigger size, then upcasting would be the best option. Since the whole code will require only the supertype name references. 5. Which property is shown most when upcasting is used? a) Code reusability b) Code efficiency c) Complex code simple syntax d) Encapsulation Answer: c Explanation: The code written using upcasting mostly shows complex code in simpler syntax features. This is because the upcasting concept can be applied as polymorphism and to group the similar type of objects. 6. Upcasting and downcasting objects are the same as casting primitive types. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: It is a bit confusing concept since both casting concepts are different. Primitive casting depends on the type and size of data being typecast. Whereas in objects casting, the classes and inheritance order plays a big role. 7. Which casting among the following is allowed for the code given below? class A { public :int a; } class B:public A { int b; }
main() { B b=new A();  //casting 1 A a=new B();  //casting 2 } a) Casting 1 b) Casting 2 c) casting 1 and casting 2 d) casting 1 nor casting 2 Answer: b Explanation: The casting 2 is correct. The objects casting must be done from derived class object to a parent class object. That is, the object of the superclass can be made an object of subclass only. Vice versa is not possible. 8. If multiple inheritance is implemented, which upcasting will be correct? a) Upcast to first base class listed in inheritance b) Upcast to send base class listed in inheritance c) Upcast to any base class d) Upcast is not possible Answer: c Explanation: The upcasting of derived class object is possible to any base class. This is because the base class object can represent any of its derived classes using upcasting. 9. If class C inherits class B and class B inherits class A ________________ a) Class C object can be upcasted to object of class B only b) Class C object can be upcasted to object of class A only c) Class C object can be upcasted to object of either class A or B d) Class C object can’t be upcasted Answer: c Explanation: Both class A and B are parent classes of class C. Class C object hence can be upcasted to any of those class objects. It is not compulsory to upcast to nearest parent. 10. Upcasting is _____________________ without an explicit type cast. a) Always allowed for public inheritance b) Always allowed for protected inheritance c) Always allowed for private inheritance d) Not allowed Answer: a Explanation: The public inheritance shows the most flexible is-a relationship. Hence explicit type casting is not required. Implicit type casting is done by the compiler. 11. Which concept is needed because of implicit type casting use? a) Static binding b) Dynamic binding c) Compile time binding d) Source code binding Answer: b Explanation: Since the implicit type casting allows casting of a base class pointer to refer to its derived class object or even base class object. We need dynamic type casting so that the references can be resolved during execution of program. 12. When are the pointer types known for upcasting the objects? a) Compile time b) Runtime c) Source code build time d) Doesn’t apply to pointer types Answer: a Explanation: The pointer or reference types are known at compile time for the upcasting of an object. This is because the addresses must be known for casting the derived class to base class object. 13. When are the object type known for upcasting the objects? a) Compile time b) Runtime c) Source code build time d) Doesn’t apply to objects directly 
Answer: b Explanation: The upcasting with objects directly requires runtime resolving. The objects are fixed and address are allocated at compile time. But the execution of a program requires runtime knowledge of object types, for implicit type cast. 14. If two classes are defined “Parent” and “Child” then which is the correct type upcast syntax in C++? a) Parent *p=child; b) Parent *p=*child; c) Parent *p=&child; d) Parent *p=Child(); Answer: c Explanation: The syntax must contain the base class name first. So that the parent class object pointer can be declared. Then the object is assigned with the derived class object with & symbol. & symbol is added to get the address of the derived class object. 15. Which among the following is true? a) Upcasting is possible only for single level inheritance b) Upcasting is possible only for multilevel inheritance c) Upcasting is possible only for multiple inheritance d) Upcasting is possible for any type of inheritance Answer: d Explanation: The type of inheritance doesn’t matter with the upcasting concept. Upcasting applies to all types of inheritance. Any derived class object can be upcasted to any of its base class object.
This set of Object Oriented Programming using C++ Question Bank focuses on “Protected Access Specifier”. 1. Which among the following best describes the protected specifier? a) Members are most secure and can’t be used outside class b) Members are secure but can be used outside the class c) Members are secure as private, but can be inherited d) Members are secure like private, but can’t be inherited Answer: c Explanation: The members which are made protected, are most secure if inheritance is not used. But, this facility is provided to keep those members private and with that, they can be inherited by other classes. This is done to make the code more flexible. 2. If a constructor is defined in protected access, then? a) It’s instance can be created inside the subclasses b) It’s instance can be created anywhere in the program c) It’s instance can be created inside the subclasses and main() function d) It’s instance can be created inside the parent class only Answer: a Explanation: The instances will be allowed to be created only inside the sub classes. This is because the protected members will be inherited and hence the constructor too. This will allow the subclasses to call the constructor whenever an object is created. 3. For the following code, choose the correct option. class A {   int marks; protected : A() {   marks=100;  } public : A( int x) {   marks=x;   } }; a) The instances can be created only in subclasses b) The instances can be created only in main() function c) The instances can be created only in parent class d) The instances can be created anywhere in the program Answer: d Explanation: The instances can be created anywhere in the program. The only restriction will be on which constructor will have to be called. The instances with zero arguments will be allowed to be created only inside the subclasses, but the instances with one argument can be created anywhere in the program. 4. If the protected members are to be made accessible only to the nearest subclass and no further subclasses, which access specifier should be used in inheritance? a) The sub class should inherit the parent class privately b) The sub class should inherit the parent class as protected c) The sub class should inherit the parent class as public d) The sub class can use any access modifier Answer: a Explanation: The sub class should use private inheritance. This will allow only the nearest sub classes to inherit the protected members and then those members will become private. Hence further inheritance of those members will not be possible. 5. What will be the output of the following code (all header files and required things are included)? class A { int marks; protected : A(int x) {   marks=x;  } public : A() {   marks=100; 
 } } class B { A a; A b=100; }; main() { A a, b=100; B c; } a) Program runs fine b) Program gives runtime error c) Program gives compile time error d) Program gives logical error Answer: c Explanation: The objects being created with assignment value are allowed, if the constructor accepts only 1 argument. But main() function will not be able to create the object here with assignment, as the constructor which accepts one argument is in protected mode in the class. 6. Which among the following is true for the given code below? class A { protected : int marks; public :  A() {   marks=100;  } disp() {   cout&lt;&lt;”marks=”&lt;&lt;marks;  } }; class B: protected A { }; B b; b.disp(); a) Object b can’t access disp() function b) Object b can access disp() function inside its body c) Object b can’t access members of class A d) Program runs fine Answer: a Explanation: The object of class B can’t access the members of A outside the class. This is because the class is being inherited in protected access, so all the members will become protected in subclass B. 7. Protected members differ from default members as _______ a) Protected members can be accessed outside package using inheritance, but default can’t b) Default members can be accessed outside package using inheritance, but protected can’t c) Protected members are allowed for inheritance but Default members are not allowed d) Both are same Answer: a Explanation: The protected members are allowed in the same package but can also be accessed in other packages using inheritance. But the default members can never be accessible in other packages. 8. If all the members are defined in protected specifier then? (Constructors not considered) a) Instance of class can’t be created b) Instance of class can be created anywhere c) Instance of class can be created only in subclasses d) Instance of class can be created only in main() function Answer: b 
Explanation: The instances can be created anywhere in the program. This is because the constructors are not considered among the members defined in protected mode. Hence the default implicit constructor will be used whenever an object is created. 9. Which among the following is correct for the code given? class A {    private: int marks;    A()    {     }    Public : disp()    {           cout&lt;&lt; marks;      } }; class B: public A { } B b; a) Instance of B will not be created b) Instance of B will be created c) Program gives compile time error d) Program gives runtime error Answer: a Explanation: Instance of B will not be created. When you try to create an instance of B, First the constructor of parent class will be called, but the parent class constructor is private, hence it won’t be able to initialize and allocate memory for parent class members. In turn, the object of B will not be created. 10. If protected inheritance is used then _____ a) Public members become public in subclass b) Protected members become public in subclass c) Protected members become protected in subclass d) Protected and Public members become protected in subclass Answer: d Explanation: The protected and public members of the parent class will become the protected members in subclass. This is predefined rule of inheritance. The reason behind is to maintain the level of security in subclass too. 11. If protected members are to be accessed from outside the class then__________ a) Members must be inherited publicly in subclass b) Members must accessed using class pointers c) Members must be accessed as usual d) Members must be made public Answer: d Explanation: The members must be made public, otherwise it is not possible. In every case, the protected members will act as private members if it’s about access specifier. It will only be inherited, that too will lead to make those members protected again, in subclasses. 12. Which among the following can use protected access specifier? a) Members which may be used in other packages b) Members which have to be secure and should be used by other packages/subclass c) Members which have to be accessed from anywhere in the program d) Members which have to be as secure as private but can be used by main() function Answer: b Explanation: The members which have to be secure and might get used in other packages or subclasses can use protected access. This also allows the members to be safe from accidental modification. 13. Protected access is same as default access that is given implicitly in java if no specifier is mentioned. a) True b) False Answer: b Explanation: The statement given is true. The clear difference is protected members are available in other packages also, but the default members are available within the package only.
14. If a class have default constructor defined in private access, and one parameter constructor in protected mode, how will it be possible to create instance of object? a) Define a constructor in public access with different signature b) Directly create the object in the subclass c) Directly create the object in main() function d) Not possible Answer: a Explanation: If a new constructor is defined in public access. That will be available to the whole program. Only restriction will be of the way to use it. 15. What will be the output of the program given below? class A { Public : A(int a=0) {   cout&lt;&lt;”new A”;        } }; A a; A b; A c; a) new A new A new A b) newAnewAnewA c) new Anew Anew A d) new A new Anew A Answer: c Explanation: The constructor has a default argument. Whenever the object is created, the constructor will be called and print the message in its definition. Since the argument is default valued, it is not mandatory to pass anything to the new object. To practice Object Oriented Programming Question Bank using C++, .

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